Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Positioning 1 > Ch. 15 Trauma, Mobile, and Surgical Radiography Workbook > Flashcards

Ch. 15 Trauma, Mobile, and Surgical Radiography Workbook Flashcards

1
Q

the two primary types of mobile x-ray units

A
  • battery operated, battery drive
  • standard AC power source, nonmotor drive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how far can a fully charged battery-powered mobile unit drive on a level ground

A

10 miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

with a battery-powered mobile unit type, how long does recharging take if the batteries are fully discharged

A

8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which type of mobile unit is lighter in weight

A

standard power source, nonmotor drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the common term for a mobile fluoroscopy unit

A

C-arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the 2 primary components of a mobile fluoroscopy unit

A
  • x-ray tube
  • image intensifier
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

why should the mobile fluoroscopy unit not be placed in the AP projection

A

more dose to the operators head, neck and eyes area, and it increases OID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

with the tube and intensifier in a horizontal position, at which side of the patient should the surgeon stand if he or she must remain near the patient

A

on the intensifier side because it is much less dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

of the two monitors found on most mobile fluoroscopy units, which is generally considered the “active” monitor

A

left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

does the operator need to determine image orientation on the mobile fluoroscopy monitors before the patient is brought into the room

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

do all mobile digital fluoroscopy units include the ability to magnify the image on the monitor during fluoroscopy

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

a 30 degree c-arm tilt from the vertical perspective increases exposure to the head adn neck regions of the operator by a factor of what

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

are automatic exposure control systems feasible with mobile fluoroscopy

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

name the feature that allows an image to be held on the monitor while also providing continuous fluoroscopy imaging and removing stationary structures from the viewing screen

A

roadmapping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does the intermittent mode used during mobile fluoroscopy procedures do

A

produces brighter images and reduces patient dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how is CR centered and aligned in relation to the sternum for an AP portable projection of the chest

A

angled caudal to get CR perp to sternum and 3-4” below jugular notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

are focused grids recommended for mobile chest studies

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what position can be used to replace the RAO of the sternum for the patient who cannot lie prone on the table but can be rotated into a semi supine position

A

15-20 degree LPO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

other than the straight AP, what other projections of the ribs can be taken for the supine immobile patient who cannot be rotated into an oblique

A

30-40 degree madiolateral cross-angled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what position best demonstrates free intra-abdominal air for the patient who cannot stand or sit erect

A

left lateral decub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what projection of the abdomen most effectively demonstrates a possible abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

dorsal decub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

disadvantage of performing a PA rather than an AP thumb projection

A

increased OID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which projections are taken for a post reduction study of the wrist

A

PA and lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

for a trauma lateral elbow projection, the CR must be kept parallel to this plane

A

intercondylar plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

a patient with a possible fracture of the proximal humerus enters the ER. due to multiple injuries the patient is unable to stand or sit erect, what positioning routine should be performed to diagnose the extent of the injury

A

supine AP, and horizontal beam transthoracic lateral or shoulder Y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

a patient with a possible dislocation of the proximal humerus enters the ER. due to multiple injuries the patient is unable to stand or sit erect. in addition to the AP, what second projection demonstrates whether the condition is an anterior or posterior dislocation

A

transthoracic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

a scapular Y projection taken AP supine for a trauma patient requires this much rotation

A

25-30 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how much CR angulation should be used for an AP axial projection of the clavicle on a hypersthenic patient

A

15 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

to ensure the joints are opened up for an AP projection of the foot, how is the CR aligned

A

10 degrees posteriorly from perpendicular to plantar surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

an orthopedic surgeon orders a mortise projection of the ankle, but the patient has a severely fractured ankle and can’t rotate it for the ankle mortise projection. what can the tech do to provide this projection without rotating the ankle

A

angle tube 15-20 degrees lateromedially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

a patient with a possible dislocation of the patella enters the emergency room. what type of positioning routine should be performed on this patient that would safely demonstrate the patella

A

AP and cross table lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

a patient with a possible fracture of the proximal tibia and fibula enters the emergency room. the routine AP and lateral projections were inconclusive, patient is unable to rotate leg, what position/projection can be performed that would provide an unobstructed view of the fibular head and neck

A

45 degree lateromedial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

to provide a lateral view of the proximal femur, what projection would be performed on a trauma patient

A

danellius miller - cross table lateral hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how must the IR and grid be positioned for the inferosuperior projection of the hip

A

parallel to the femoral neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what projection demonstrates the odontoid process for the trauma patient who is unable to open the mouth yet can extend the skull and neck

A

fuchs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

a patient with a possible C2 fracture enters the ER on a backboard. the AP does not demonstrate C2 and the patient cannot open his mouth due to mandible fracture. what projection can be performed safely

A

35-40 degree cephalad angle (CR parallel to MML)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

which projection will best demonstrate the pedicles of the cervical spine on a severely injured patient

A

AP axial trauma oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

can you use a grid for the AP axial trauma oblique c-spine

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

a patient with a Monteggia fracture enters the ER, what positioning routine should be performed

A

PA/AP and horizontal beam lateral forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

a patient with a possible greenstick fracture enters the ER, what age group does this fracture usually effect

A

pediatric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

a patient with a possible Pott’s fracture enters the ER, what positioning routine should be performed for this patient

A

AP and horizontal beam lateral lower leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

a patient is struck directly on the patella with a heavy object, and the patella is shattered. the resultant fracture most likely would describe this

A

stellate fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

four essential attributes of the successful surgical technologist

A
  • confidence
  • mastery
  • problem-solving skills
  • communication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

individual who assists the surgeon

A

surgical assistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

health professional who prepares the operating room (OR) by supplying it with the appropriate supplies and instruments

A

certified surgical technologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

individual who has the responsibility of ensuring the safety of the patient and monitoring physiologic functions and fluid levels of the patient during surgery

A

anesthesiologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

individual who has primary responsibility for the surgical procedure and the well-being of the patient before, during, and immediately after surgery

A

surgeon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

individual who prepares the sterile field, scrubs, and gowns for the members of the surgical team, and prepares and sterilizes the instruments before the surgical procedure

A

scrub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

individual who assists in the OR with the needs of the scrubbed members within the sterile field before, during, and after the surgical procedure

A

circulator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

can the technologist violate the sterile environment in surgery if he/she is wearing sterile glove, mask, and surgical scrubs

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

who’s responsible to maintain a safe radiation environment for all personnel in the OR

A

the x-ray tech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

does the tech have a moral and ethical responsibility to report any violations of the sterile field during surgery even if it was not noticed by another member of the surgical team

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

this is the absence of infectious organisms

A

surgical asepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

this consists of the practice and procedures to minimize the level of infectious agents present in the surgical environment

A

surgical asepsis

55
Q

which parts of the sterile gown are considered sterile

A

the shoulders to the level of the sterile field, as well as the sleeve from the cuff to just above the elbow

56
Q

is the entire OR table considered sterile

A

no

57
Q

what are the 3 measures that can be taken to maintain the sterile field when operating a mobile fluoroscopy unit

A
  • drape the intensifier, tube, and c-arm
  • drape patient or the surgical site
  • use shower curtain
58
Q

should soft (canvas) shoes be worn in surgery

A

no

59
Q

what is the pliable nose strip on the surgical mask for

A

help prevent fogging of eyeglasses

60
Q

during most surgical procedures is the tech required to wear protective eyewear

A

no

61
Q

do sterile gloves needs to be worn when handling contaminated IR in surgery

A

no

62
Q

what type of equipment cleaner should not be used in surgery

A

aerosol

63
Q

what is the primary disadvantage of using the “boost” feature during a mobile fluoroscopic procedure

A

can add to patient dose and to surround surgical team

64
Q

what is the primary advantage of using the “boost” feature during a mobile fluoroscopic procedure

A

brighter image

65
Q

which cardinal rule is most effective in reducing occupational exposure

A

distance

66
Q

what are the 3 words describing the cardinal rules of radiation protection

A

time, distance, shielding

67
Q

what measure is most effective in limiting exposure with mobile fluoroscopy

A

use intermittent or “foot tapping” fluoroscopy

68
Q

what anatomy is examined during an operative (immediate) cholangiogram

A

biliary ductal system

69
Q

what is the common name for the special tray device that holds the IR and grid during an operative cholangiogram

A

“pizza pan”

70
Q

how must the IR and grid be aligned if the OR table is tilted during an operative cholangiogram

A

landscape

71
Q

on average, how much contrast media is injected during an operative cholangiogram

A

6-8mL

72
Q

what are the 3 advantages of laparoscopic cholecystectomy over traditional cholecystectomy

A
  • can be done as an outpatient procedure
  • less invasive procedure
  • reduce hospital time and cost
73
Q

a radiographic exam of the pelvicalyceal system only during surgery is termed what

A

retrograde pyelogram

74
Q

in what position is the patient placed during retrograde urography

A

modified lithotomy position

75
Q

what orthopedic procedure is considered nonsurgical

A

closed reduction

76
Q

which of the following orthopedic devices is classified as an external fixator

A

ilizarov device

77
Q

which of the following orthopedic devices is often used during a hip pinning

A

cannulated screw assembly

78
Q

which of the following devices is often used to reduce femoral, tibial, and humeral shaft fractures

A

intramedullary nail

79
Q

what is the name of the newer type of prosthetic device to replace a defective hip joint

A

modular bipolar hip prosthesis

80
Q

a surgical procedure, performed to alleviate pain caused by bony neural impingement involving the spine, is termed this

A

laminectomy

81
Q

what is the name of the device used to stabilize the vertebral body in lieu of traditional spinal fusion

A

interbody fusion cages

82
Q

in what position is the patient placed during most cervical laminectomies

A

supine

83
Q

what are the two external fixators commonly used during scoliosis surgery

A
  • Harrington rods
  • luque rods
84
Q

orthopedic wire that tightens around the fracture site to reduce shortening of limb

A

cerclage wire

85
Q

narrow orthopedic screw designed to enter and fix cortical bone

A

cortical screw

86
Q

large screw used in internal fixation of nondisplaced fractures of proximal femur

A

cannulated screw

87
Q

fabricated (artificial) substitute for a disease or missing anatomic part

A

prosthesis

88
Q

isolation drape that separates the sterile field from the nonsterile environment

A

shower curtain

89
Q

soaking of moisture through a sterile or nonsterile drape, cover, or protective barrier

A

strike through

90
Q

unthreaded (smooth) or threaded metallic wire used to reduce fractures of wrist (carpals) and individual bones of the hands and feet

A

kirschner wire

91
Q

orthopedic screw designed to enter and fix porous and spongy bone

A

cancellous screw

92
Q

creation of an artificial joint to correct ankyloses

A

arthroplasty

93
Q

electrohydraulic shock waves used to break apart calcifications in the urinary system

A

ESWL

94
Q

what type of pathology is addressed through a vertebroplasty

A

compression fracture of vertebral body

95
Q

what single term best describes the primary difference between trauma positions and standard positioning

A

adaptation

96
Q

what should be done to achieve specific projections if the patient cannot move because of trauma

A

move CR and IR around the patient

97
Q

what is the minimum number of projections generally required for any trauma study

A

2 - 90 degrees from eachother

98
Q

how many joints must be included for an initial study of a long bone

A

2 - both

99
Q

a follow-up post reduction radiograph of the middle portion of a long bone must include this

A

at least one joint space

100
Q

is digital radiography well suited for ED and mobile procedures

A

yes

101
Q

this is effective in diagnosing certain emergency conditions such as pulmonary emboli

A

nuclear medicine

102
Q

what are the two terms describing displacement of bone

A

dislocation; luxation

103
Q

4 regions of the body most commonly dislocated during trauma

A
  • shoulder
  • finger/thumb
  • patella
  • hip
104
Q

term for partial dislocation

A

subluxation

105
Q

a forced wrenching or twisting of a joint that results in a tearing of supporting ligaments

A

sprain

106
Q

an injury in which there is no fracture or breaking of the skin

A

contusion

107
Q

term that describes the associative relationship between the long axes of fracture fragments

A

alignment

108
Q

term that describes a type of fracture in which the fracture fragment ends are overlapped and not in contact

A

bayonet apposition

109
Q

what term describes the angulation of a distal fracture fragment toward the midline

A

varus deformity

110
Q

where is the apex pointed if the fracture fragment is toward the midline

A

lateral apex

111
Q

what are the 2 types of incomplete fractures

A
  • torus (buckle) fracture
  • greenstick (hickory or willow stick) fracture
112
Q

which type of comminuted fracture produces several separate wedge-shaped fragments

A

butterfly fracture

113
Q

what is the name of the fracture in which one fragment is driven into the other

A

impacted fracture

114
Q

secondary name for hutchinson fracture

A

chauffeur

115
Q

secondary name for baseball fracture

A

mallet fracture

116
Q

secondary name for compound fracture

A

open fracture

117
Q

secondary name for depressed fracture

A

ping-pong fracture

118
Q

secondary name for simple fracture

A

closed fracture

119
Q

what type of reduction fracture does not require surgery

A

closed reduction

120
Q

fracture of proximal half of the ulna with dislocation of radial head

A

monteggia fracture

121
Q

fracture of the base of the first metacarpal

A

bennett fracture

122
Q

fracture of the pedicles of C2

A

hangman fracture

123
Q

fracture of distal radius with anterior displacement

A

smith fracture

124
Q

complete fracture of distal fibula, frequently with fracture of medial malleolus

A

pott’s fracture

125
Q

fracture of lateral malleolus, medial malleolus, and distal posterior tip of tibia

A

trimalleolar fracture

126
Q

incomplete fracture with broken cortex on one side of bone only

A

greenstick fracture

127
Q

fracture resulting in multiple
(two or more) fragments

A

comminuted fracture

128
Q

fracture of distal fifth metacarpal

A

boxer fracture

129
Q

intra-articular fracture of radial styloid process

A

hutchinson fracture

130
Q

fracture of distal radius with posterior displacement

A

colles fracture

131
Q

indented fracture of the skull

A

depressed fracture

132
Q

fracture resulting from a severe stress to a tendon

A

avulsion fracture

133
Q

fracture with fracture lines radiating from a center point

A

stellate fracture

134
Q

fracture producing a reduced height of the anterior vertebral body

A

compression fracture

Positioning 1 (44 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions