Ch. 13 Lower GI System Workbook Flashcards

1
Q

T/F - 0.1% barium sulfate suspension is often instilled before CT enteroclysis

A

true

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2
Q

T/F - a cleansing bowel prep is not required before a CTC

A

false

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3
Q

T/F - contrast BEs are performed commonly on patients who have a clinical history of diverticulosis

A

false

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4
Q

what projection is recommended during a small bowel series

A

prone PA

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5
Q

T/F - shielding is not recommended during studies of the lower GI tract

A

false

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6
Q

T/F - if a retention-type enema tip is used, it should be removed after fluoro is completed and before x-ray projections are taken to better visualize the rectal region

A

false

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7
Q

what kVp is recommended for a small bowel series (single-contrast study)

A

110-125

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8
Q

what are breathing instructions for a projection taken during a small bowel series

A

expiration

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9
Q

generally a small bowel series is complete after the contrast media reaches what

A

ileocecal valve

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10
Q

what type of patient may require 2 14x17 cw IRs for an AP BE projection

A

hypersthenic

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11
Q

what projections taken during a BE best demonstrates the right colic flexure

A

RAO and LPO

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12
Q

how much body rotation is required for oblique BE projections

A

35-45 degrees

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13
Q

in a person with good muscle tone, how long is the entire small intestine

A

15-18 ft (4.5-5.5m)

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14
Q

what position should be performed if the patient cannot lie prone on the table to visualize the left colic flexure

A

RPO

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15
Q

what projection during a double contrast BE series best demonstrates the descending colon for possible polyps

A

right lateral decub

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16
Q

what is the average length of the large intestine

A

5 ft (1.5m)

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17
Q

what are the 3 divisions of the small intestine in descending order

A
  • duodenum
  • jejunum
  • ileum
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18
Q

which aspect of the large intestine is best demonstrated with an AP axial projection

A

rectosigmoid region

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19
Q

what is the advantage of performing an AP axial oblique projection rather than an AP axial

A

less superimposition of the rectosigmoid segments

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20
Q

what is another term describing the AP and PA axial projections

A

butterfly

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21
Q

what CR angle is required for the AP axial

A

30-40 cephalad

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22
Q

what CR angle is required for the PA axial projection

A

30-40 caudad

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23
Q

which divisions of the small intestine is the shortest

A

duodenum

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24
Q

what position is recommended for the post evacuation projection taken following a BE

A

PA prone

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25
Q

what kVp range is recommended for a postevac projection following a BE

A

90-100

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26
Q

what is recommended kVp range for oblique projections taken during a single contrast BE study

A

110-125

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27
Q

in which two abdominal quadrants would the majority of the jejunum be found

A

LUQ and LLQ

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28
Q

which division of the small intestine has a feathery or coiled-spring appearance during a small bowel series

A

jejunum

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29
Q

what is the recommended kVp range for oblique projections taken during a double contrast study

A

90-100

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30
Q

what medication can be given to minimize colonic spasm during a BE

A

glucagon

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31
Q

which division of the small intestine is the longest

A

ileum

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32
Q

how many sections of the colon are there and how many flexures

A

4 sections and 2 flexures

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33
Q

what are the two functions of the ileocecal valve

A

-prevents contents of the ileum from passing too quickly into cecum
- prevents reflux back into ileum

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34
Q

what is another term for appendix

A

vermiform appendix

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35
Q

longest aspect of the large intestine

A

transverse colon

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36
Q

widest portion of the large intestine

A

cecum

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37
Q

aspect of small intestine that is the smallest in diameter but longest in length

A

ileum

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38
Q

shortest aspect of small intestine

A

duodenum

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39
Q

lies in pelvis but possesses a wide freedom of motion

A

sigmoid colon

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40
Q

makes up 40% of the small intestine

A

jejunum

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41
Q

found between cecum and transverse colon

A

ascending colon

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42
Q

how long is the average small bowel if removed and stretched out during autopsy

A

23ft (7m)

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43
Q

what is the term for the 3 bands of muscle that pulls the large intestine into pouches

A

taeniae coli

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44
Q

what are the pouches or sacculation’s formed by the taeniae coli, seen along the large intestine called

A

haustra

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45
Q

which portion of the small intestine is located primarily to the left of the midline

A

jejunum

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46
Q

which portion of the small intestine is located primarily in the right lower quadrant

A

ileum

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47
Q

which portion of the small intestine has the smoothest internal lining and does not present a feathery appearance when barium filled

A

ileum

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48
Q

which quadrant does the terminal ileum connect with the large intestine

A

RLQ

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49
Q

what is the widest portion of the large intestine

A

cecum

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50
Q

which two aspects of the large intestine are not considered part of the colon

A
  • cecum
  • rectum
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51
Q

a blind pouch inferior to the ileocecal valve

A

appendix

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52
Q

distal part, also called the iliac colon

A

descending colon

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53
Q

which flexure of the large intestine usually extends more superiorly

A

left colic (splenic)

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54
Q

inflammation of the vermiform appendix

A

appendicitis

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55
Q

what is an older term for the mucosal folds found within the jejunum

A

plicae circulares

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56
Q

which structures will fill with air during a double contrast BE with the patient supine

A

transverse colon and sigmoid colon

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57
Q

which aspect of the GI tract is primarily responsible for digestion, absorption, and reabsorption

A

small intestine

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58
Q

which aspect of the GI tract is responsible for the synthesis and absorption of vitamins B and K and amino acids

A

large intestine

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59
Q

which of the digestive movements occurs in both large intestine and small intestine

A

peristalsis

60
Q

which aspect of the small intestine is the most fixed in position

A

duodenojejunal flexure

61
Q

which muscular band marks the junction between the duodenum and the jejunum

A

ligament of treitz

62
Q

what type of patients should receive extra care when using water-soluble contrast medium

A

young and dehydrated

63
Q

what is the classification of the sigmoid colon in relation to the peritoneum

A

intraperitoneal

63
Q

what is the classification of the cecum in relation to the peritoneum

A

intraperitoneal

63
Q

form of inflammatory disease of the GI tract

A

regional enteritis

64
Q

what is the classification of the ascending colon in relation to the peritoneum

A

retroperitoneal

64
Q

radiographically appears as cobblestone appearance

A

regional enteritis

65
Q

what is the classification of the transverse colon in relation to the peritoneum

A

intraperitoneal

65
Q

what is the classification of the descending colon in relation to the peritoneum

A

retroperitoneal

66
Q

what is the classification of the upper rectum in relation to the peritoneum

A

retroperitoneal

66
Q

what is the classification of the jejunum in relation to the peritoneum

A

intraperitoneal

66
Q

what is the classification of the lower rectum in relation to the peritoneum

A

infraperiotneal

67
Q

what is the classification of the c-loop of duodenum in relation to the peritoneum

A

retroperitoneal

68
Q

common birth defect found in the ileum

A

meckel diverticulum

68
Q

what is the classification of the ileum in relation to the peritoneum

A

intraperitoneal

68
Q

what are the two conditions that may prevent the use of barium sulfate during a small bowel series

A
  • possible perforated hollow viscus
  • large bowel obstruction
69
Q

common parasitic infection of the small intestine

A

giardiasis

70
Q

obstruction of the small intestine

A

ileus

71
Q

new growth

A

neoplasm

72
Q

a form of sprue

A

celiac disease

73
Q

inflammation of the intestine

A

enteritis

74
Q

radiographically appears as an apple-core sign

A

adenocarcinoma

75
Q

radiographically appears as large diverticulum of the ileum

A

meckel diverticulum

76
Q

radiographically appears as a beak sign

A

volvulus

77
Q

giardiasis is a condition acquired through what

A
  • contaminated food
  • contaminated water
  • person to person contact
78
Q

when is a small bowel series deemed complete

A

when contrast medium passes through ileocecal valve

79
Q

T/F - fluoroscopy is sometimes used during a small bowel series to visualize the ileocecal valve

A

true

80
Q

what two types of contrast media are used for an enteroclysis

A
  • high density barium sulfate
  • air or methylcellulose
81
Q

what is the recommended patient prep before a small bowel series

A

NPO at least 8 hours before procedure and no gum chewing or smoking

82
Q

which position is recommended for small bowel radiographs

A

prone to separate loops of intestine

83
Q

a twisting of a portion of the intestine on its own mesentery

A

volvulus

84
Q

outpouching of the mucosal wall

A

diverticulum

85
Q

inflammatory condition of the large intestine

A

colitis

86
Q

severe form of colitis

A

ulcerative colitis

87
Q

telescoping of one part of the intestine into another

A

intussusception

88
Q

inward growth extending from the lumen of the intestinal wall

A

polyp

89
Q

which type of patient most often experiences intussusception

A

infant (<2 years old)

90
Q

a condition of numerous herniations of the mucosal wall of the large intestine

A

diverticulosis

91
Q

what pathologic condition may produce a tapered or corkscrew radiographic sign during a BE

A

volvulus

92
Q

what condition may produce the cobblestone radiographic sign during a BE

A

ulcerative colitis

93
Q

T/F - intestinal polyps and diverticula are very similar in structure

A

false

94
Q

T/F - volvulus occurs more frequently in males than females

A

true

95
Q

T/F - the BE is a commonly recommended procedure for diagnosing possible acute appendicitis

A

false

96
Q

T/F - any stool retained in the large intestine may require the postponement of a BE study

A

true

97
Q

T/F - an example of an irritant cathartic is magnesium citrate

A

false - castor oil

98
Q

T/F - synthetic latex enema tips or gloves do not cause problems for latex-sensitive patients

A

true

99
Q

what is the name of the patient position recommended for insertion of the rectal enema tip

A

sims position

100
Q

the initial insertion of the rectal enema tip should be pointed toward what

A

umbilicus

101
Q

what procedure is most effective to demonstrate small polyps in the colon

A

double contrast BE

102
Q

T/F - a special tapered enema tip is inserted into the stoma before a colostomy BE

A

true

103
Q

the enema bag should not be more than how far above the tabletop before the beginning of the procedure

A

no more than 24” (60cm)

104
Q

T/F - the tech should review the patients chart before a BE to determine whether a sigmoidscopy or colonoscopy was performed recently

A

true

105
Q

T/F - both CT and sonography might be performed to aid in diagnosing appendicitis

A

true

106
Q

T/F - because of the density and the amount of barium within the large intestine, computed radiography should not be used during a BE

A

false

107
Q

meckel diverticulum is best diagnosed with which imaging modality

A

nuclear medicine

108
Q

whipple disease is a rare disorder of what

A

proximal small intestine

109
Q

how much barium sulfate is generally given to an adult patient for a small bowel only series

A

2 cups (16 oz)

110
Q

how long does it usually take to complete an adult small bowel series

A

2 hours

111
Q

when is the first radiograph generally taken during a small bowel series

A

15-30 minutes after ingesting contrast

112
Q

how long does it take barium sulfate in a healthy adult, given orally, to reach the rectum

A

24 hours

113
Q

what is the tip of the catheter advanced to during an enteroclysis

A

duodenojejunal flexure

114
Q

what is the purpose of introducing methylcellulose during an enteroclysis

A

dilates the intestinal lumen to produce a more diagnostic study

115
Q

what is the most common form of carcinoma found in the large intestine

A

annular carcinoma

116
Q

what 4 conditions would prevent the use of a laxative cathartic before a BE procedure

A
  • gross bleeding
  • sever diarrhea
  • obstruction
  • inflammatory lesion
117
Q

what are the 3 types of enema tips commonly used (all are single use and disposable)

A
  • plastic disposable
  • rectal retention
  • air-contrast retention
118
Q

what water temp is recommended for BE mixtures

A

warm - 85-90 F (29-32 C)

119
Q

to minimize spasm during a BE what can be added to the contrast media mixture

A

lidocaine

120
Q

which aspect of the large intestine must be demonstrated during evacuative proctography

A

anorectal angle

121
Q

which clinical condition is best demonstrated with evacuative proctography

A

rectal prolapse

122
Q

what procedure uses the thickest mixture of barium sulfate

A

evacuative proctogram

123
Q

what position is the patient placed for imaging during the evacuative proctogram

A

lateral

124
Q

what is another term for CT colonography (CTC)

A

virtual colonoscopy

125
Q

why is oral contrast media sometimes given during a CTC

A

to mark or tag fecal matter

126
Q

what is the chief disadvantage of a CTC

A

cannot remove polyps discovered

127
Q

how frequently should images be taken during a small bowel series on a pediatric patient

A

20-30 minutes

128
Q

what position is a recommended alternative for the lateral rectum projection during a double contrast BE

A

ventral decub

129
Q

where is CR centered for the 15 min radiograph during a small bowel series

A

2” above iliac crest

130
Q

what projection taken during a double contrast BE produces an air-filled image of he right colic flexure, ascending colon and cecum

A

left lateral decub

131
Q

where is the cR for a lateral projection of the rectum

A

level of ASIS at MCP

132
Q

patients with lactose or sucrose sensitivities

A

malabsorption syndrome

133
Q

radiographically appears as circular staircase or herringbone sign

A

ileus

134
Q

radiographically appears as dilation of the intestine with thickening of circular folds

A

giardiasis

135
Q

the term enteroclysis describes what type of a small bowel study

A

double contrast method

136
Q

what two pathologic conditions are best evacuative through an enteroclysis procedure

A
  • regional enteritis
  • malabsorption syndrome
137
Q

a procedure to alleviate postoperative distention of a small intestine obstruction

A

therapeutic intubation