Chapter 17 Applications Of Immune Response Flashcards
(96 cards)
1
Q
Immunity that results from an immune response upon exposure to an antigen
A
Active immunity
2
Q
A preparation of a serum that contains protective antibodies
A
Antiserum
3
Q
Vaccine that is composed of a weakened form of a pathogen that is generally unable to cause disease
A
Attenuated Vaccine
4
Q
Technique that uses enzyme-labeled antibodies to detect given antigens or antibodies
A
Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay
5
Q
Technique that uses fluorescently labeled antibodies to detect specific antigens on cells attached to a microscope slide.
A
Fluorescent Antibody Test
6
Q
Protection of an entire population based upon a critical concentration of immune hosts that prevents the spread of an infectious agent
A
Herd immunity
7
Q
Test that takes advantage of the specificity of antigen-antibody interactions by using known antibodies or antigens to detect or quantify given antigens or antibodies
A
Immunoassay
8
Q
Medical intervention that Modifies specific immune response as a means to treat certain diseases
A
Immunotherapy
9
Q
Vaccine composed of killed bacterial cells, inactivated viral particles, fractions of pathogens, or inactivated toxins
A
Inactivated Vaccine
10
Q
Immunity that results when antibodies are transferred into an individual
A
Passive Immunity
11
Q
Preparation of a pathogen or its products used to induce active immunity
A
Vaccine
12
Q
Procedure that uses labeled antibodies to detect specific antigens in a mixture of proteins seperated according to their molecular weight
A
Western Blotting
13
Q
Procedure to induce immunity
A
Immunization
14
Q
Immunity acquired through vaccination or immune globulins
A
Artifical immunity
15
Q
Ig__ is passes through the placenta
Ig__ is passed through breastfeeding
A
IgG placenta
IgA breastfeeding
16
Q
Give examples of Natural Passive Immunity
A
IgG from the placenta
IgA from breastfeeding
17
Q
Does passive immunity build memory cells
A
No
18
Q
This type of immunity is from receiving a vaccine
A
Artificial Active Immunity
19
Q
This type of immunity comes from having antibodies directly injected into a person
A
Artificial Passive Immunity
20
Q
What is the fluid portion of blood that remains after blood clots called?
A
Serum
21
Q
Preparation of a serum that contains protective antibodies
A
Antiserum
22
Q
Antiserums give which type of immunity
A
Artificial passive
23
Q
Immunoglobulin prepared from a sera of donors with a large amount of antibodies to a certain disease, tetanus.
Used to prevent disease by giving immediately after possible exposure
A
Hyperimmune globulin
24
Q
Immunoglobulin G portion of pooled plasma from many donors, contains a wide variety of antibodies, used to provide passive immunity
A
Intervenous IV Immune globulins
25
Which type of vaccine has the ability to spread the pathogen to other people
Attenuated
26
Which type of vaccine cannot cause infections or revert to a pathogenic form?
Inactivated vaccine
27
Polysaccharides vaccines are not effective in children because polysaccharides are
T-independent antigens
28
These vaccines are polysaccharides linked to proteins converting them to T-dependent antigens
Conjugate vaccines
29
Are there nucleic acid-based vaccines
Name 1
Yes
Covid
30
Adjuvant
Substance that increases the immune response to antigens
31
______ & ______ cause dendritic cells to produce Co-stimulatory molecules, allowing them to activate helper T cells, which in turn activate ___ cells
MAMP microbes-associated molecular patters
PAMP pathogen-associated molecular patterns
B cells
32
Which type of vaccine has a need for an adjuvant
Inactivated vaccine
33
Which has the better Cell-mediated response of the 2 type of vaccines
Attenuated
34
Which type of vaccine had a risk to immune compromised people
Attenuated
35
Which vaccine handles warm storage temperature better
Inactivated vaccine
36
MMRV vaccine protects against these
Measles, Mumps, Rubella, Varicella
37
____ polio vaccine composed of attenuated poliovirus aka Sabin vaccine
This vaccine has the advantage that it induces better mucosal immunity (secretory IgA)
Oral polio vaccine
38
This polio vaccine is the safe choice because it cannot become virulent
But it is less effective
Inactive polio vaccine
39
Cancer cells avoid detection by exploting _____ tolerance
And down-grade production of _____
Peripheral
MHC
40
Category of immunotherapy that either boosts or suppresses the immune response
Immunmodulator
41
Antibodies with a single specificty produced in vitro by lymphocytes that have been fused with a type of malignant cell
mAbs
Monoclonal antibodies
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This type of immunotherapy interferes with peripheral tolerance allows cytotoxic T cells to kill cancer cells
Check point inhibitors
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Preparation of antibody molecules produced by clones of a single B cell, so that all molecules in the Preparation recognize only a single epitope.
Monoclonal antibody
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Examples of mAbs include
1. mAbs without attached components
2. Ones that deliver toxin or other molecule to a cancerous cell
3. Constructed to have two different antigen-binding sites.
4. Naked antibodies that are also immunomodulators
1. Naked antibodies
2. Conjugated antibodies
3. Bi-specific antibodies
4. Checkpoint inhibitors
45
PDL-1 is what
A protein on the surface of cancer cells that stops them from being identified
46
PD-1 is what
Cyto T cell scanner that is looking for mutations
47
T cells that have been genetically engineered to recognize and respond to a specific epitope, with out the need for antigen presentation or co-stimulation
Chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T cells
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Once ____ have been created with a paitents own T cells in vitro they are put back into the patients blood where they seek out and destroy host cells that have the epitope on their surface
Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR) T cells
49
Oncolytic viruses not only destroy cancer cells but also encodes the production of GM-CSF a protein that does what?
Granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor
Stimulates an anti-tumor immune response
50
The only FDA approved cancer vaccine is for Prostate cancer.
Leukocytes are collected then presented with a 2 component engineered protein consisting of GM-CSF which promotes that development of ____ which do what....
The other component is a antigen that characterizes Prostate Cancer
Dendritic cells which present the Prostate cancer cells to T cells for destruction
51
The main damage from autoimmune disease is from...
Inflammatory response
52
2 types of immunetherapies to treat autoimmune disease
Immunomodulators:
Monoclonal antibodies:
Describe their actions
Immunomodulators: basically the opposite of checkpoint inhibitors
Monoclonal antibodies: mAbs maybe used to decrease number of B cells
53
The study of antibody/ antigen reactions, particularly those that direct antibodies in serum
Serology
54
Antibodies used in immunoassays can be
_____ which recognize only a single epitope because it was produced by clones of a single B cell
Or
______ which recognize multiple epitopes on the same antigen because they are produced by clones of a collection of B cells
Monoclonal / Polyclonal
55
Antibodies that bind the constant region of human IgG molecules
Anti-human IgG antibodies
56
____ are used to quantify or detect given antigens or antibodies in a sample
Immunoassays
57
Immunoassays may be serially diluted to determine the antibody ____
Tither
58
Antibodies used in immunoassays can be either ____ or _____
Polyclonal / monoclonal
59
In vitro test that uses labeled antibodies against a specific antigen to detect that antigen in a sample
Direct immunoassays
60
2 step in vitro test uses labeled secondary antibodies to detect unlabeled primary antibodies bound to a given antigen; the test is typically used to detect antibodies of a given specificity in a paitents serum
Indirect immunoassays
61
Antibodies labeled with a detectable marker can be used to ID an antigen in this type of test _____
Or to detect a patients antibodies to a known antigen in this type of test ___
Direct
Indirect test
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ELISA
Direct is testing for ______
Indirect test is looking for _____
Antigens
Antibodies
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1. Protiens are separated by size via gel electrophoresis
2. Transfered to a nylon
3. Add paitents serum
4. Antibodies in serum bind to antigens
5. Add labeled Anti Human IgG, wash off antibodies that don't bind
6. Labeled 2ndry antibodies bind to IgG and remain
7. Use appropriate procedure to detect labeled antibodies
Describes this process
Western Blotting
64
Machine that sorts fluorescenctly labeled cells in a mixture by passing a stream of cells past photo detectors
Fluorescence-activated cell sorter
65
___ can be used for a variety of purposes, including diagnosis and monitoring the progress of diseases involving WBC
Fluorescence-activated cell sorter
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In immunological testing, clumping together of cells or particles by antibody molecules
Agglutination reaction
67
When certain viruses (measles) are mixed with RBC what happens
Viruses bind causing Hemagglutination
68
A paitent who has measles serum and measles virus are mixed together and the Antibodies in the serum stick to the measles virus.
If RBC are added to this mixture will hemaggulation occur
No, because the virus can't attach to the RBC due to antibodies already being attached
69
When soluble antigens (protiens) react with soluble antibodies they form a
Precipitate
70
Reaction of antibody with soluble antigen to form an insoluble substance
Precipitation reaction
71
In precipation reactions
In the ___________, extensive cross-linking occurs, a visible precipitate forms
Zone of optimal proportions
(ZOOP)
72
Antibodies that bind the constant region of human IgG molecules
Anti-human IgG antibodies
73
_____ are used to detect IgG molecules in a paitent specimen
Anti-human IgG antibodies
74
____ are typically used to ID unknown antigens
______ are typically used to detect antibodies of a given specificity in a paitents serum
Direct immunoassays
Indirect immunoassays
75
The ____ relies on fluorescencent microscopy to locate fluorescencently labeled antibodies bound to antigens fixed to a microscope slide
Fluorescent antibody (FA) test
76
The _______ test uses antibodies labeled with a detectable enzyme
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
77
In the _____ technique, the various protiens that make up an antigen are seperated by size before reacting them with antibodies
Western Blot
78
The ______ can be used to count and seperate antigens labeled with fluorescent antibodies, as well as to determine concentrations and characteristics of the labeled particles.
Fluorescent-activated cell sorter
79
Antibodies bound to soluble antigens may form complexes that precipitate out of the solution
An example of this kind of test is Ouchterlony
True or False
True
80
H. influenza is an encapsulated bacterium that causes infant meningitis. Which would be the best option to protect infants against this organism
Conjugate vaccine
81
All of the following are correctly labeled except
ELISA - radioactive label
Fluorescent-activated cell sorter- flow cytometey
Fluorescent antibody test- microscopy
Western Blot- gel electrophoresis
ELISA-radioactive lable
82
Which would be the most useful for screening thousands of specimens for antibodies that indicate a certain disease
Western blot
Fluorescent antibody
ELISA
all the above
None of the above
ELISA
83
mAbs are aka
A type of protein that is made in the laboratory and can bind to a certain target in the body, such as an antigen on the surface of cancer cells
Monoclonal antibodies
84
To cause a solid to settle out of a solution.
Precipitate.
85
What 2 methods can one make an Inactive vaccine.
These methods kill the pathogen
Heat & Formalin
86
Type of vaccine for Diphtheria & Tetnus
Toxoids
87
Polysaccharides only vaccines produce Ig____ antibody and No memory
IgM
88
If a polysaccharide vaccine is Conjugated (attached to a protein) then it provides (2)
T-dependent antigen
Memory
89
Inactivated Salk vaccine produces only this type of antibodies (description of what they do)
Circulating
90
Sabin polio vaccine or Attenuated produces these types of antibodies (2) - (describe what they do)
Circulating & Mucosal
91
This vaccine type
Contains key antigenic portion
No extra material that can cause complications
Peptide vaccine
92
Neutralization immunological test
Serum containing Ab to virus + virus
If matched Ab binds to virus (neutralized)
"Neutralized" virus is added to cell culture if virus is Neutralized will there be plaque formation
No
93
Hemagglutination inhibition
Antibodies in serum against virus will _____ hemagglutination when added to mixture of RBCs
Prevent
94
Finding the titer of Ab
This test checks for presence of antibodies or antigens in tissue samples
Fluorescent tagging
95
Fluorescent dyes
Fluorscein: (This color)
Rhodomine:(This color)
Yellow-Green
Red
96
Direct fluorescent test can be viewed with a ....
UV scope
