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Bacteriology > Enterobacteriaceae > Flashcards

Enterobacteriaceae Flashcards

1
Q

Enterobacteriaceae are often referred to as ________.

A

Enterics or Coliforms

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2
Q

Natural habitat of Enterobacteriaceae

A

Intestinal tract

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3
Q

Gram stain reaction and Morphology of Enterobacteriaceae

A

Gram (-) bacilli and coccobacilli

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4
Q

Aerotolerance of Enterobacteriaceae

A

Facultative anaerobes or Aerobes

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5
Q

Enterobacteriaceae do not produce ________.

A

Cytochrome oxidase

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6
Q

Which member of Enterobacteriaceae produces cytochrome oxidase?

A

Plesiomonas spp.

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7
Q

Which carbohydrate/s can be fermented by the members of Enterobacteriaceae?

A

Glucose

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8
Q

Can Enterobacteriaceae reduce nitrate to nitrite?

A

Yes

EXCEPT: Photohabdus and Xenorhabdus

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9
Q

Which member of Enterobacteriaceae cannot reduce nitrate?

A
  • Photorhabdus
  • Xenorhabdus
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10
Q

Are Enterobacteriaceae motile?

A

Yes (at room temperature)

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11
Q

Which member/s of the Enterobacteriaceae family are not motile at room temperature?

A

MNEMONIC: SKY
* Shigella spp.
* Klebsiella spp.
* Yersinia spp.

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12
Q

Enterobacteriaceae possess a ____ flagella

A

peritrichous

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13
Q

Catalase reaction of Enterobacteriaceae

A

(+)

EXCEPT: Shigella dysenteriae type 1

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14
Q

Which member/s of the Enterobacteriaceae family is not Catalase (+)?

A

Shigella dysenteriae type 1

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15
Q

Colonial appearance of Enterobacteriaceae on BAP/CAP

A

Large, moist, and gray colored

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16
Q

____ are used in order to classify the members of the Enterobacteriaceae Family.

A

Tribes

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17
Q

Tribes are proposed by ____.

A

Ewing

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18
Q

When did Ewing proposed the classification of Enterobacteriaceae Family according to Tribes?

A

1963

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19
Q

Genus under the Escherichieae Tribe

A
  • Escherichia
  • Shigella
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20
Q

Genus under the Edwardsielleae Tribe

A

Edwardsiella

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21
Q

Genus under the Salmonelleae Tribe

A

Salmonella

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22
Q

Genus under the Citrobacteriaceae Tribe

A

Citrobacter

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23
Q

Genus under the Klebsielleae Tribe

A
  • Klebsiella
  • Enterobacter
  • Pantoea
  • Cronobacter
  • Hafnia
  • Serratia
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24
Q

Genus under the Proteeae Tribe

A
  • Proteus
  • Providencia
  • Morganella
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25
Q

Genus under the Yersinieae Tribe

A

Yersinia

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26
Q

H2S (+) organisms in TSI agar

A

MNEMONIC: SPACE
* Salmonella
* Proteus
* Arizona
* Citrobacter
* Edwardsiella

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27
Q

H2S (+) organisms in LIA

A

MNEMONIC: SACE
* Salmonella
* Arizona
* Citrobacter
* Edwardsiella

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28
Q

Rapid Urease Producers

A

ACRONYM: PPM
* Proteus
* Providencia
* Morganella

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29
Q

Slow Urease Producers

A

ACRONYM: CKEYS
* Citrobacter
* Klebsiella
* Enterobacter
* Yersinia
* Serratia

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30
Q

Deaminase (+) organisms

A

ACRONYM: PPM
* Proteus
* Providencia
* Morganella

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31
Q

Lysine Decarboxylation (+) organisms

A

ACRONYM: KEESSH
* Klebsiella
* Escherichia
* Edwardsiella
* Serratia
* Salmonella
* Hafnia

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32
Q

Lysine Decarboxylation (-) organisms

A

ACRONYM: PPMYCES
* Proteus
* Providencia
* Morganella
* Yersinia
* Citrobacter
* Enterobacter
* Shigella

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33
Q

Which Enterobacter sp. is not a slow urease producer?

A

Enterobacter gergoviae

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34
Q

Which Salmonella sp. is not LDC (+)?

A

Salmonella paratyphi A

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35
Q

Which Enterobacter sp. is not LDC (-)?

A
  • Enterobacter gergoviae
  • Enterobacter aerogenes
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36
Q

A heat-stable antigen found on the cell wall

A

Somatic Antigen (O antigen)

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37
Q

A heat-labile antigen found on the surface of the flagella

A

Flagellar Antigen (H antigen)

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38
Q

A heat-labile polysaccharide found on encapsulated species

A

Capsular Antigen (K antigen)

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39
Q

O antigen is also known as _______.

A

Somatic antigen

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40
Q

H antigen is also known as _______.

A

Flagellar antigen

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41
Q

K antigen is also known as _______.

A

Capsular antigen

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42
Q

Which antigen is present in E. coli?

A

K1 antigen

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43
Q

K1 antigen is found in ____.

A

Escherichia coli

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44
Q

Which antigen is present in Salmonella enterica?

A

Vi antigen

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45
Q

Vi antigen is found in ____.

A

Salmonella enterica

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46
Q

IMVC stands for _________.

A
  • Indole
  • Methyl Red
  • Voges-Proskauer
  • Citrate
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47
Q

IMVC reaction of Escherichia coli

A
  • Indole (+)
  • Methyl red (+)
  • Voges-Proskauer (-)
  • Citrate (-)
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48
Q

Who discovered E. coli?

A

Escherich

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49
Q

When was E. coli discovered?

A

1885

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50
Q

“Colon bacillus” or “Golden bacillus” refers to ______.

A

Escherichia coli

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51
Q

Escherichia coli is also known as _______.

A

Colon bacillus or Golden bacillus

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52
Q

Oxidase reaction of E. coli

A

Negative (-)

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53
Q

______ is used as a primary marker of fecal contamination in water quality testing.

A

Escherichia coli

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54
Q

Which carbohydrate/s can E. coli ferment?

A
  • Glucose
  • Lactose
  • Trehalose
  • Xylose
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55
Q

Colonial appearance of E. coli on EMB agar

A

Greenish-metallic sheen

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56
Q

Infections associated with Escherichia coli

A
  • UTIs
  • Bacteremia
  • Neonatal meningitis
  • Nosocomial infections
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57
Q

____ is the most common cause of gram (-) nosocomial infections

A

Escherichia coli

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58
Q

Extraintestinal infections of E. coli

A

Septicemia and meningitis among neonates

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59
Q

Deoxyribonuclease production of E. coli

A

Negative (-)

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60
Q

Phenylalanine deaminase production of E. coli

A

Negative (-)

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61
Q

The most common cause of UTIs in humans

A

Uropathogenic Escherichia coli

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62
Q

____ is one of the major causes of infant bacterial diarrhea.

A

Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)

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63
Q

____ is the most common cause of Traveler’s Diarrhea.

A

Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)

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64
Q

Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) is the most common cause of _______.

A

Traveler’s Diarrhea

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65
Q

How is Traveler’s Diarrhea transmitted?

A

Through the consumption of contaminated food or water

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66
Q

Patients with a diarrhea caused by ETEC exhibit this complication.

A

Achlorhydria

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67
Q

____ is the deficiency of hydrochloric acid in the stomach.

A

Achlorhydria

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68
Q

ETEC produces a ____ enterotoxin.

A

heat-labile

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69
Q

Symptoms of diarrhea caused by ETEC

A
  • Watery diarrhea
  • Abdominal cramps
  • Nausea
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70
Q

____ are known to cause infantile diarrhea.

A

Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli

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71
Q

Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli are known to cause _____.

A

Infantile diarrhea

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72
Q

Symptoms of diarrhea caused by EPEC

A
  • Low-grade fever
  • Malaise
  • Vomitting
  • Diarrhea
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73
Q

EPEC has ____ groups

A

2

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74
Q

Groups under EPEC

A
  • O serogoup
  • H antigenic group
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75
Q

Which group under EPEC causes diarrhea?

A

O serogroup

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76
Q

Which group under EPEC causes intestinal infections?

A

H antigenic group

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77
Q

Stool description of diarrhea caused by EPEC

A

Watery with mucus but without blood

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78
Q

____ produce dysentery with direct penetration, invasion and destruction of the intestinal mucosa.

A

Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC)

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79
Q

Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC) produces ____.

A

dysentery

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80
Q

____ is similar to Shigellosis

A

Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC)

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81
Q

Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC) is similar to _____.

A

Shigellosis

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82
Q

How are EIEC infections transmitted?

A

Through person-to-person via fecal-oral route

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83
Q

Which type of E. coli is non-motile?

A

Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli

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84
Q

Which type of E. coli is not a lactose fermenter?

A

Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli

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85
Q

Which type of E. coli is LDC (-)?

A

Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli

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86
Q

____ is the most well-known strain of Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC).

A

E. coli O157:H7

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87
Q

____ is associated with hemorrhagic diarrhea, colitis, and hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS).

A

E. coli O157:H7

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88
Q

E. coli O157:H7 is associated with _____.

A

Hemorrhagic diarrhea, Colitis, and Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

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89
Q

E. coli O157:H7 was first recognized during the _____.

A

outbreak of hemorrhagic diarrhea and colitis

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90
Q

E. coli O157:H7 was first recognized in _____.

A

1982

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91
Q

____ is characterized by low platelet count and presence of hemolytic anemia and kidney failure.

A

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)

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92
Q

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) is characterized by _____.

A

low platelet count, hemolytic anemia, and kidney failure

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93
Q

____ does not ferment sorbitol in 24 hours.

A

E. coli O157:H7

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94
Q

E. coli O157:H7 does not ferment ____ in 24 hours.

A

sorbitol

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95
Q

Biochemical test for E. coli O157:H7

A

4-methylumbelliferyl-β-D-glucoronide (MUG) assay

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96
Q

____ rarely produces the enzyme β-D-glucoronidase.

A

E. coli O157:H7

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97
Q

____ E. coli O157:H7 strains can produce β-D-glucoronidase.

A

92%

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98
Q

MUG assay principle

A

β-D-glucoronidase will cleave MUG and produce a fluorescent product

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99
Q

How many toxins does E. coli O157:H7 produce?

A

2

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100
Q

Toxins produced by E. coli O157:H7

A
  • Verotoxin I
  • Verotoxin II
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101
Q

Which toxin produces damage to Vero cells?

A

Verotoxin I

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102
Q

Vero cells came from _____.

A

Kidney cells of African green monkey

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103
Q

Symptoms of EHEC infections

A
  • Watery diarrhea
  • Bloody diarrhea
  • Abdominal cramps
  • Low-grade fever or no fever
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104
Q

Pathotypes of Enteroadherent Escherichia coli

A
  1. Diffusely Adherent E. coli (DAEC)
  2. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
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105
Q

____ is associated with diarrheal syndromes and UTIs.

A

Diffusely Adherent E. coli (DAEC)

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106
Q

Diffusely Adherent E. coli (DAEC) is associated with _____.

A

Diarrheal syndromes and UTIs

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107
Q

____ is associated with diarrhea by adhering to the surface of the intestinal mucosa.

A

Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)

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108
Q

Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC) is associated with _____.

A

Diarrhea by adhering to the surface of the intestinal mucosa

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109
Q

Which species of Escherichia are yellow-pigmented?

A
  • Escherichia hermanii
  • Escherichia vulneris
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110
Q

____ is isolated from CSF, wounds, and blood.

A

Escherichia hermanii

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111
Q

____ is isolated from humans with infected wounds.

A

Escherichia vulneris

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112
Q

____ is associated with diarrheal disease in children.

A

Escherichia albertii

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113
Q

IMVC reaction of Klebsiella and Raoultella

A
  • Indole (-)
  • Methyl red (-)
  • Voges-Proskauer (+)
  • Citrate (+)
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114
Q

Most Klebsiella and Raoultella spp. grow on ______.

A

Simmon’s Citrate and Pottasium Cyanide Broth

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115
Q

Motility of Klebsiella and Raoultella

A

Variable

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116
Q

Klebsiella and Raoultella are associated with _______.

A

Opportunistic and Hospital-acquired infections (e.g., Pneumonia, wound infections, and UTIs)

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117
Q

____ is the most commonly isolated species of Klebsiella.

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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118
Q

A virulence factor of Klebsiella pneumoniae is the presence of _____.

A

Polysaccharide capsule

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119
Q

Colonial appearance of Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

Moist and mucoid colonies

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120
Q

Which factor is responsible for the moist and mucoid colonies of K. pneumoniae?

A

Capsule

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121
Q

The colonies of K. pneumoniae are mucoid and tend to ____.

A

string

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122
Q

The colonies of ____ are mucoid and tend to “string”.

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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123
Q

____ is also known as Friedlander’s Bacillus.

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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124
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae is also known as ______.

A

Friedlander’s Bacillus

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125
Q

____ causes pneumonia that is very necrotic and hemorrhagic.

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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126
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae causes _____.

A

Pneumonia (necrotic and hemorrhagic)

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127
Q

“Currant jelly-like sputum” is associated with ______.

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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128
Q

____ is the only Klebsiella sp. that is Indole (+).

A

Klebsiella oxytoca

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129
Q

Which Klebsiella sp. is Ornithine (+)?

A

Klebsiella oxytoca

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130
Q

Which Klebsiella sp.?

____ is isolated from stool and blood cultures.

A

Klebsiella oxytoca

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131
Q

Klebsiella oxytoca is isolated from _______.

A

stool and blood cultures

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132
Q

____ is associated with antibiotic-associated hemorrhagic colitis.

A

Klebsiella oxytoca

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133
Q

Klebsiella oxytoca is associated with ______.

A

antibiotic-associated hemorrhagic colitis

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134
Q

____ is highly associated with the presence of plasmid-mediated ESBLs.

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae subsp. ozaenae

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135
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae subsp. ozaenae is highly associated with ______.

A

Plasmid-mediated ESBLs

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136
Q

Which Klebsiella sp.?

____ is isolated from nasal secretions and cerebral abscesses.

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae subsp. ozaenae

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137
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae subsp. ozaenae is isolated from _____.

A

nasal secretions and cerebral abscesses

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138
Q

____ has been isolated from patients with Rhinoscleroma.

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae subsp. rhinoscleromatis

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139
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae subsp. rhinoscleromatis is the causative agent of _______.

A

Rhinoscleroma

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140
Q

____ is an infection of the nasal cavity, characterized by an intense swelling and malformation of the entire face and neck.

A

Rhinoscleroma

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141
Q

____ is Indole and Ornithine decarboxylase (+).

A

Raoultella (Klebsiella) ornithinolytica

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142
Q

____ have been isolated from urine, respiratory tract, and blood of humans.

A

Raoultella (Klebsiella) planticola

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143
Q

____ have been isolated from primarily sterile sites.

A

Klebsiella variicola

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144
Q

____ is previously known as Calymmatobacterium granulomatis

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

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145
Q

Klebsiella granulomatis is previously known as ______.

A

Calymmatobacterium granulomatis

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146
Q

____ is a granuloma inguinale.

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

147
Q

____ causes a sexually-transmitted disease.

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

148
Q

IMVC reaction of Enterobacter, Chronobacter and Pantoea

A
  • Indole (-)
  • Methyl red (-)
  • Voges-Proskauer (+)
  • Citrate (+)
149
Q

Enterobacter, Chronobacter, and Pantoea resemble ____ when growing on MAC agar.

A

Klebsiella

150
Q

Enterobacter, Citrobacter, and Pantoea grow on ______.

A

Simmons Citrate and Potassium Cyanide Broth

151
Q

Ornithine decarboxylase reaction of Enterobacter, Chronobacter, and Pantoea

A

Positive (+)

152
Q

Which Enterobacter sp. is Lactose (-)?

A

Enterobacter taylorae

153
Q

Which Enterobacter sp. is ONPG (+)?

A

Enterobacter taylorae

154
Q

____ resembles Enterobacter aerogenes

A

Enterobacter gergoviae

155
Q

Enterobacter gergoviae resembles ______.

A

Enterobacter aerogenes

156
Q

Which Enterobacter sp. is a rapid urease producer (RUP)?

A

Enterobacter gergoviae

157
Q

____ causes infection of the urinary tract and blood.

A

Enterobacter gergoviae

158
Q

Enterobacter gergoviae causes infection of the ______.

A

urinary tract and blood

159
Q

____ is biochemically similar to Enterobacter cloacae

A

Chronobacter (Enterobacter) sakazakii

160
Q

Chronobacter (Enterobacter) sakazakii is biochemically similar to _____.

A

Enterobacter cloacae

161
Q

Which Enterobacter sp. typically produces a yellow pigment?

A

Chronobacter (Enterobacter) sakazakii

162
Q

____ is a pathogen in neonates.

A

Chronobacter (Enterobacter) sakazakii

163
Q

Chronobacter (Enterobacter) sakazakii causes _______ in neonates.

A

meningitis and bacteremia

From powdered infant formula

164
Q
  • Lysine (-), Ornithine (-), Arginine (-) or Triple Decarboxylases (-)
  • Indole (+), Mannitol (-), Raffinose (-), Salicin (-), Sucrose (-), Maltose (-), and Xylose (-)
A

Pantoea (Enterobacter) agglomerans

165
Q

IMVC reaction of Serratia spp.

A
  • Indole (-)
  • Methyl red (v)
  • Voges-Proskauer (+)
  • Citrate (+)
166
Q

Serratia spp. are ____ pathogens.

A

opportunistic

167
Q

____ are associated with outbreaks in health care settings.

A

Serratia spp.

168
Q

Serratia spp. are associated with _____.

A

Outbreaks in healthcare settings

169
Q

Which member of the Enterobacteriaceae Family is ONPG (+)?

A
  • Serratia spp.
  • Hafnia spp.
170
Q

Serratia spp. are ONPG (+), except ____.

A

Serratia fonticola

171
Q

____ produce extracellular DNAse.

A

Serratia spp.

172
Q

Most of Serratia spp. are classified as ______.

A

non-pigmented

173
Q

These organisms produce a characteristic, pink-to-red pigment called Prodigiosin, especially when the cultures are incubated at room temperature.

A
  • Serratia marcescens
  • Serratia rubidaea
  • Serratia plymuthica
174
Q

Some Serratia spp. produce the pink-to-red pigment called _____.

A

Prodigiosin

175
Q

____ is characterized by its dirty, mousy odor resembling that of rotten potatoes.

A

Serratia odorifera

176
Q

The odor of Serratia odorifera resembles ______.

A

rotten potatoes

177
Q

Serratia odorifera has ____ biogroups.

A

2

178
Q

Which Serratia odorifera Biogroup?

Isolated from respiratory tract

A

Serratia odorifera biogroup 1

179
Q

Which Serratia odorifera Biogroup?

Isolated from blood and CSF

A

Serratia odorifera biogroup 2

180
Q

Which Serratia odorifera Biogroup?

(+) for Sucrose, Raffinose, and Ornithine

A

Serratia odorifera biogroup 1

181
Q

Which Serratia odorifera Biogroup?

(-) for Sucrose, Raffinose, and Ornithine

A

Serratia odorifera biogroup 2

182
Q

Which Serratia odorifera Biogroup?

60% of its strains are Indole (+)

A

Serratia odorifera biogroup 1

183
Q

Which Serratia odorifera Biogroup?

50% of its strains are Indole (+)

A

Serratia odorifera biogroup 2

184
Q

____ is similar to Serratia marcescens.

A

Serratia liquefaciens

185
Q

How is Serratia liquefaciens different from Serratia marcescens?

A

S. liquefaciens is able to ferment arabinose

186
Q

Which Serratia sp. is able to ferment arabinose?

A

Serratia liquefaciens

187
Q

IMVC reaction of Hafnia spp.

A
  • Indole (-)
  • Methyl red (v)
  • Voges-Proskauer (+)
  • Citrate (-)
188
Q

____ has been linked to gastroenteritis.

A

Hafnia spp.

189
Q

Hafnia spp. has been linked to _____.

A

Gastroenteritis

190
Q

Hafnia spp. have been isolated from _____.

A

stool cultures

191
Q

Ornithine decarboxylase reaction of Hafnia spp.

A

Positive (+)

192
Q

Hafnia alvei is formerly known as _____.

A

Enterobacter alvei

193
Q

____ was formerly known as Enterobacter alvei

A

Hafnia alvei

194
Q

Hafnia alvei resembles ______.

A

Enterobacter spp.

195
Q

How is Hafnia alvei different from Enterobacter?

A
  • Late Lactose Fermenter
  • Citrate (-)
196
Q

How is Hafnia alvei different from Serratia?

A
  • DNAse (-)
  • Lipase (-)
  • Gelatinase (-)
197
Q

____ has a “chocolate cake” or “burnt chocolate” smell.

A

Proteus spp.

198
Q

Describe the odor of Proteus spp.

A

Chocolate cake or Burnt chocolate

199
Q

____ is the source of antigen for the Weil-Felix reaction.

A

Proteus spp.

200
Q

Proteus spp. is the source of antigen for the ______.

A

Weil-Felix Reaction

201
Q

A serologic test for the diagnosis of Rickettsial diseases.

A

Weil-Felix Reaction

202
Q

____ is the source of OX2 and OX19 antigen.

A

Proteus vulgaris

203
Q

Proteus vulgaris is the source of ____.

A

OX2 and OX19 antigen

204
Q

____ is the source of OXK antigen.

A

Proteus mirabilis

205
Q

Proteus mirabilis is the source of ____.

A

OXK antigen

206
Q

____ is also known as the Kingsbury Strain.

A

OXK antigen

207
Q

OXK antigen is also known as the _____.

A

Kingsbury Strain

208
Q

____ is characterized by its swarming motility.

A

Proteus spp.

209
Q

Proteus spp. exhibit ____ motility.

A

swarming

210
Q

Which Proteus sp. is Indole (-) and Ornithine (+)?

A

Proteus mirabilis

211
Q

Which Proteus sp. is Indole (+) and Ornithine (-)?

A

Proteus vulgaris

212
Q

____ frequently causes nosocomial infections, UTIs, and wound infections.

A

Morganella spp.

213
Q

____ is the cause of UTI and neonatal sepsis.

A

Morganella morganii

214
Q

Indole reaction of Morganella spp.

A

Positive (+)

215
Q

Methyl red reaction of Morganella spp.

A

Positive (+)

216
Q

Urease reaction of Morganella spp.

A

Positive (+)

217
Q

Ornithine decarboxylase reaction of Morganella spp.

A

Positive (+)

218
Q

____ causes urinary tract infections and some are resistant to antimicrobial therapy.

A

Providencia spp.

219
Q

Phenylalanine deaminase reaction of Morganella spp.

A

Positive (+)

220
Q

Which carbohydrate/s do Providencia spp. ferment?

A
  • Mannose
  • Citrate
221
Q
  • Pathogen of urinary tract
  • Causes occasional outbreaks in healthcare settings
  • Causes diarrheal disease among travelers
A

Providencia rettgeri

222
Q
  • Causes outbreaks in burn units
  • Isolated from urine cultures
A

Providencia stuartii

223
Q

____ is most commonly found in the feces of children with diarrhea.

A

Providencia alcalifaciens

224
Q

Which Providencia sp. is rarely isolated?

A

Providencia rustigianii

225
Q

Which Providencia sp. is yet to be isolated from any clinical specimens?

A

Providencia heimbachae

226
Q

Indole reaction of Edwardsiella spp.

A

Positive (+)

227
Q

Do Edwardsiella spp. grow on Simmons Citrate?

A

No

228
Q

____ is associated with water-harboring fish or turtle.

A

Edwardsiella spp.

229
Q

____ causes ICP patients to develop serious wound infections.

A

Edwardsiella spp.

230
Q
  • Opportunist
  • Causes bacteremia and wound infections
A

Edwardsiella tarda

231
Q

____ is isolated from birds, snakes, and water.

A

Edwardsiella hoshinae

232
Q

____ causes enteric septicemia in fish.

A

Edwardsiella ictaluri

233
Q

____ produces colonies on MAC that resemble those of E. coli

A

Citrobacter spp.

234
Q

Citrobacter spp. produce colonies on MAC agar that resemble ______.

A

E. coli

235
Q

Citrobacter spp. grow on ______.

A

Simmons Citrate Medium

236
Q

Methyl red reaction of Citrobacter spp.

A

Positive (+)

237
Q

The colony of ____ is mistaken for Salmonella when isolated from stool cultures.

A

Citrobacter freundii

238
Q

The colony of Citrobacter freundii is mistaken for ______.

A

Salmonella

239
Q
  • H2S (+) and some strains (50%) fail to ferment lactose
  • Colony morphology mistaken for Salmonella
  • Urease (+), but all fail to decarboxylate lysine
A

Citrobacter freundii

240
Q

____ is the cause of nursery outbreaks of neonatal meningitis and brain abscesses.

A

Citrobacter koseri

241
Q
  • A rare human pathogen
  • Associated with community-acquired infections including septicemia in a patient with cervical cancer.
A

Citrobacter braaki

242
Q

____ is formerly in the family Vibrionaceae.

A

Plesiomonas spp.

243
Q

____ is the only Oxidase (+) member of the family Enterobacteriaceae.

A

Plesiomonas spp.

244
Q

____ does not have the ability to produce gas from glucose.

A

Plesiomonas spp.

245
Q

____ is susceptible to Vibriostatic Agent O/129.

A

Plesiomonas spp.

246
Q

____ is the most common cause of Watery or Secretory Diarrhea.

A

Plesiomonas shigelloides

247
Q

Plesiomonas shigelloides is the most common cause of _____.

A

Watery or Secretory Diarrhea

248
Q

A subacute or chronic disease that lasts from 14 days to 2-3 months.

A

Watery or Secretory Diarrhea

249
Q

____ produces an infection that is more invasive, dysenteric form that resembles colitis.

A

Plesiomonas shigelloides

250
Q

Colonial appearance of Salmonella spp. in selective and differential media

A

Clear, colorless, non-lactose fermenting

251
Q

Indole reaction of Salmonella spp.

A

Negative (-)

252
Q

Voges-Proskauer test reaction of Salmonella spp.

A

Negative (-)

253
Q

Phenylalanine deaminase reaction of Salmonella spp.

A

Negative (-)

254
Q

Urease reaction of Salmonella spp.

A

Negative (-)

255
Q

____ do not grow in medium containing potassium cyanide.

A

Salmonella spp.

256
Q

6 subspecies of Salmonella enterica

A
  • Salmonella enterica subsp. enterica
  • Salmonella enterica subsp. salamae
  • Salmonella enterica subsp. arizonae
  • Salmonella enterica subsp. diarizonae
  • Salmonella enterica subsp. houtenae
  • Salmonella enterica subsp. indica
257
Q

Salmonella enterica subsp. I

A

Salmonella enterica subsp. enterica

258
Q

Salmonella enterica subsp. II

A

Salmonella enterica subsp. salamae

259
Q

Salmonella enterica subsp. IIIa

A

Salmonella enterica subsp. arizonae

260
Q

Salmonella enterica subsp. IIIb

A

Salmonella enterica subsp. diarizonae

261
Q

Salmonella enterica subsp. IV

A

Salmonella enterica subsp. houtenae

262
Q

Salmonella enterica subsp. V

A

Salmonella enterica subsp. indica

263
Q

Virulence factor of Salmonella spp.

A
  • Fimbriae
  • Enterotoxin
264
Q

How is fimbriae a virulence factor of Salmonella spp.?

A

It adheres to mucosa and initiate intestinal infections

265
Q

Antigenic structures of Salmonella spp.

A
  • Somatic (O) Antigen
  • Flagellar (H) Antigen
  • Capsular (K) Antigen = Vi antigen
266
Q

Clinical infections associated with Salmonella spp.

A
  • Acute gastroenteritis or Food poisoning
  • Typhoid fever
  • Enteric fever
  • Carrier state following Salmonella infection
267
Q

____ is the most severe form of enteric fever.

A

Typhoid fever

268
Q

Typhoid fever is caused by _____.

A

Salmonella serotype typhi

269
Q

____ is the Japanese Microbiologist who first isolated Shigella spp.

A

Kiyoshi Shiga

270
Q

____ do not produce gas from glucose.

A

Shigella spp.

271
Q

Shigella spp. do not produce gas from glucose EXCEPT _____.

A

Shigella flexneri

272
Q

____ do not use acetate or mutate as a source of carbon.

A

Shigella spp.

273
Q

Shigella spp. do not use ____ or ____ as a source of carbon.

A

acetate or mucate

274
Q

Which Shigella spp. is able to:
* Decarboxylate ornithine
* Late lactose fermenter (LLF)
* ONPG (+)

A

Shigella sonnei

275
Q

____ causes enteric disease (bacillary dysentery).

A

Shigella dysenteriae

276
Q

Clinical infections associated with Shigella spp.

A

Shigellosis/Bacillary Dysentery

277
Q

Stages of shigellosis/bacillary dysentery

A
  • Early stage
  • Diarrheic stage
  • Dysenteric phase
278
Q

Incubation period of shigellosis/bacillary dysentery

A

1-7 days

279
Q

Early Stage of Shigellosis/Bacillary Dysentery

A
  • Incubation period of 1-7 days
  • Fever, abdominal cramps and pain, diarrhea
280
Q

Which stage of Shigellosis/Bacillary dysentery?

  • Incubation period of 1-7 days
  • Fever, abdominal cramps and pain, diarrhea
A

Early Stage

281
Q

Diarrheic Stage of Shigellosis/Bacillary Dysentery

A

Watery diarrhea for 3 days

282
Q

Which stage of Shigellosis/Bacillary dysentery?

Watery diarrhea for 3 days

A

Diarrheic Stage

283
Q

Dysenteric Phase of Shigellosis/Bacillary Dysentery

A
  • Frequent stools with blood, pus, and mucus
  • Bacteria had invaded the lining of GIT
284
Q

Which stage of Shigellosis/Bacillary dysentery?

  • Frequent stools with blood, pus, and mucus
  • Bacteria had invaded the lining of GIT
A

Dysenteric Phase

285
Q

Which Shigella sp. does not ferment mannitol?

A

Shigella dysenteriae

286
Q

Which Shigella sp. is ONPG (-)?

A

Shigella flexneri

287
Q

________ are short, pleomorphic, gram negative rods that often exhibit bipolar staining.

A

Yersinia spp.

288
Q

Yersinia spp. exhibits a bipolar stain using _______.

A

Methylene blue or WAYSON stain

289
Q

Aerotolerance of Yersinia spp.

A

Microaerophilic or Facultative anaerobes

290
Q

____ is the causative agent of the ancient disease Plague.

A

Yersinia pestis

291
Q

Yersinia pestis is the causative agent of ______.

A

Plague

292
Q

A disease of rodents that is transmitted to humans.

A

Plague

293
Q

____ has a “safety-pin” appearance when stained with Methylene blue or WAYSON.

A

Yersinia pestis

294
Q

Yersinia pestis has ____ appearance when stained with Methylene blue or WAYSON.

A

Safety-pin

295
Q

Preferential growth temperature of Yersinia pestis

A

25 - 30 C

296
Q

Three Forms of Plague

A
  • Bubonic
  • Septicemic
  • Pneumonic
297
Q

Which Form of Plague?

The most common form of Plague

A

Bubonic Plague

298
Q

Which Form of Plague?

It results from the bite of an infected flea

A

Bubonic Plague

299
Q

Which Form of Plague?

Symptoms appear 2 to 5 days after infection

A

Bubonic Plague

300
Q

Which Form of Plague?

It is characterized by a high fever with painful regional lymph buboes (swollen lymph nodes) begin to appear.

A

Bubonic Plague

301
Q

Which Form of Plague?

It occurs when the bacteria spread to the bloodstream

A

Septicemic Plague

302
Q

Which Form of Plague?

It can be a primary infection if the bacteria are inhaled

A

Pneumonic Plague

303
Q

______ are zoonotic food-borne pathogens.

A

Yersinia enterocolitica and Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

304
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica can grow on _____.

A

SBA and MAC

305
Q

Optimal growth temperature of Yersinia enterocolitica

A

25 - 30 C

306
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica are motile at _____.

A

25 C

307
Q

Which Yersinia sp. is able to produce a heat-stable enterotoxin?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

308
Q

Which Yersinia sp. is able to survive in cold temperatures?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

309
Q

Infections associated with Yersinia enterocolitica

A
  • Acute enteritis
  • Apendicitis-like syndrome
  • Arthritis
  • Erythema nodosum
310
Q

____ is the most common form of Yersinia enterocolitica infection.

A

Acute enteritis

311
Q

____ is the inflammation of fat cells under the skin; red nodules or lumps.

A

Erythema nodosum

312
Q

Culture media for Yersinia enterocolitica

A
  • Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin (CIN) Agar
  • Yersinia-Selective Agar (YSA) Base
313
Q

____ is a selective medium to detect the presence of Yersinia enterocolitica.

A

Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin (CIN) Agar

314
Q

Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin (CIN) Agar is a ____ media.

A

selective

315
Q

What are the inhibitors present in CIN agar?

A
  • Cefsulodin
  • Irgasan
  • Novobiocin
  • Bile salts
  • Crystal violet
316
Q

____ is a modification of CIN agar.

A

Yersinia-Selective Agar (YSA) Base

317
Q

How is YSA Base modified?

A

By adding mannitol

318
Q

Fermentation of mannitol in YSA Base is indicated by _____.

A

Red at the center of the colony and precipitation of blie

319
Q

Non-fermentation of mannitol in YSA Base is indicated by _____.

A

Colorless, and transluscent colony

320
Q

____ is a pathogen of rodents, particularly guinea pigs.

A

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

321
Q

____ is characterized by caseous swellings.

A

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

322
Q

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis is characterized by caseous swellings called _____.

A

Pseudotubercles

323
Q

____ is motile at 18 - 22 C.

A

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

324
Q

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis is motile at ____.

A

18 - 22 C

325
Q

Which member of the family Enterobacteriaceae is able to ferment rhamnose?

A

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

326
Q

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis can ferment _____.

A

rhamnose

327
Q

____ is usually found in water, however, they occasionally occur in clinical specimens.

A

Budivicia aquatica

328
Q

____ are isolated from human specimens, and are similar to both Citrobacter and Kluyvera.

A

Butiauxella agrestis and Butiauxella noackiae

329
Q

Butiauxella agrestis and Butiauxella noackiae are similar to __________.

A

Citrobacter and Kluyvera

330
Q

How are Butiauxella agrestis and Butiauxella noackiae different from Citrobacter and Kluyvera?

A

Through DNA hybridization

331
Q

5 species of Cedecea

A
  • Cedecea davisae
  • Cedecea lapagei
  • Cedecea neteri
  • Cedea species type 3 and 5
332
Q

____ is the most commonly isolated Cedecea species.

A

Cedecea davisae

333
Q

Most Cedecea spp. have been recovered from _____.

A

sputum, blood, and wounds

334
Q

The only species under Ewingella is ______.

A

Ewingella americana

335
Q

____ came from human blood cultures or respiratory specimens and exhibit resistance to multiple antimicrobial agents.

A

Ewingella

336
Q

Three closely related species of Kluyvera

A
  • Kluyvera ascorbata
  • Kluyvera cryocrescens
  • Kluyvera georgiana
337
Q

____ is the most commonly isolated species of Kluyvera.

A

Kluyvera ascorbata

338
Q

Most strains of Kluyvera spp. are non-pigmented, but occasional isolates may produce a ____ pigment.

A

reddish-blue or violet

339
Q

Kluyvera spp. resemble ____ growing on MAC agar.

A

E. coli

340
Q

____ does not ferment glucose at 5 C.

A

Kluyvera ascorbata

341
Q

Kluyvera ascorbata does not ferment _____.

A

glucose (at 5 C)

342
Q

Which Kluyvera sp. ferments glucose?

A

Kluyvera cryocrescens

343
Q

____ have a yellow pigment but only on initial isolation.

A

Leclercia adecarboxylata

344
Q

____ has a similar IMVC reaction to E. coli

A

Leclercia spp.

345
Q

Common species under Leminorella spp.

A
  • Leminorella grimontii
  • Leminorella richardii
346
Q

____ produce H2S and have shown weak reactions with Salmonella antisera.

A

Leminorella spp.

347
Q

____ is positive for Citrate, Methyl red, Lactose, and Sucrose.

A

Moellerella wisconsensis

348
Q

____ is isolated from feces in two cases of diarrhea, infected gallbladders, and a bronchial aspirate.

A

Moellerella wisconsensis

349
Q

____ are fastidious, slow growing organisms at 37 C and have not been found in human specimens.

A

Obesumbacterium spp.

350
Q

Species under Photorhabdus

A
  • Photorhabdus luminescens
  • Photorhabdus asymbiotica
  • Photorhabdus temperate
351
Q

Natural habitat of Photorhabdus spp.

A

Lumen of entomopathogenic nematodes

352
Q

____ reside in the lumen of entomopathogenic nematodes.

A

Photorhabdus spp.

353
Q

____ is the name given to a group of water bacteria that are psychrotolerant.

A

Rahnella aquatilis

354
Q

Rahnella aquatilis can grow at a temperature of ____.

A

4 C

355
Q

____ resemble E. agglomerans

A

Rahnella aquatilis

356
Q

Rahnella aquatilis resemble _____.

A

E. agglomerans

357
Q

____ is isolated from vacuum-cleaner contents on the island of Guam when environmental indoor dirt samples were being collected.

A

Trabulsiella

358
Q

____ is biochemically similar to Hafnia.

A

Yokenella regensburgei

359
Q

Yokenella regensburgei is biochemically similar to _____.

A

Hafnia

360
Q

____ show more biochemical reactions at 25 C than at 35 C.

A

Tatumella ptyseos

361
Q

____ demonstrate a large 15- to 36-mm ZOI around penicillin disks.

A

Tatumella ptyseos

362
Q

Tatumella ptyseos demonstrate a large ____ of ZOI around penicillin disks.

A

15- to 36-mm

363
Q

____ are slow-growing, produce tiny colonies, and are relatively non-reactive in laboratory media.

A

Tatumella ptyseos

Bacteriology (17 decks)

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