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Staphylococcus Flashcards

1
Q

Staphylococcus spp. belong to the family ___________.

A

Staphylococcaceae

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2
Q

Staphylococcus spp. is combined with the _________, __________, and _________ into the order Bacillales.

A

Bacillaceae, Planococcaceae, and Listeriaceae

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3
Q

Staphylococcus spp. has now been combined with the Bacillaceae, Planococcaceae, and Listeriaceae into the order _________.

A

Bacillales or Bacillacea

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4
Q

In terms of biochemical examination, majority of the Staphylococcus spp. are __________.

A

Catalase Positive

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5
Q

Staphylococcus spp. can also be ________, but some can be __________.

A

Coagulase Positive, some are Coagulase Negative

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6
Q

What do we call the Staphylococcus spp. that are COAGULASE NEGATIVE?

A

CoNS - Coagulase Negative Staphylococcus

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7
Q

Describe the appearance of Staphylococcus spp.

A

Gram Positive cocci in singly, in pairs, and in GRAPE-LIKE clusters

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8
Q

Staphylococcus spp. are commonly known for their _________ appearance.

A

Grape-like

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9
Q

Which bacteria are often mistaken for Staphylococcus?

A

MNEMONIC: ARA
- Aerococcus spp.
- Rothia mucillaginosa
- Alloiococcus otitidis

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10
Q

Why is ARA mistaken for staphylococcus?

A

Because they are all Gram Positive cocci

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11
Q

staphylococcus is a _______ of the human skin and mucous membrane.

A

Normal Flora

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12
Q

staphylococcus is a normal flora of the ________.

A

Human Skin and Mucous Membrane

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13
Q

Aside from staphylococcus, what are other GRAM POSITIVE normal flora?

A
  • Micrococcus spp.
  • Kytococcus spp.
  • Kocuria spp.
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14
Q

Staphylococcaceae resembles the family ___________.

A

Micrococcaceae

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15
Q

Microccocaceae are _________ and __________.

A

Catalase Positive and Coagulase Negative

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16
Q

Describe the appearance of Micrococcus spp.

A

Gram Positive cocci in pairs, TETRADS and in irregular clusters.

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17
Q

Describe pigment of the colonies of Micrococcus spp.

A

Yellow Pigment

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18
Q

Alloiococcus otitidis is recovered from _________.

A

Human middle ear fluid

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19
Q

How many species are there within the genus Staphylococcus?

A

39

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20
Q

How many subspecies are there within the genus Staphylococcus?

A

21

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21
Q

What is the result of the Modified Oxidase (Microdase) Test in micrococci?

A

Positive (+)

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22
Q

What is the result of the Modified Oxidase (Microdase) Test in staphylococci?

A

Negative (-)

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23
Q

Anaerobic Acid Production is also called ________.

A

Fermentation

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24
Q

What is the result of the Anaerobic Acid Production from glucose (fermentation) in staphylococci?

A

Positive (+)

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25
Q

___________ are fermenters.

A

staphylococci

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26
Q

What is the result of the Anaerobic Acid Production from glucose (fermentation) in micrococci?

A

Negative (-)

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27
Q

__________ are oxidizers.

A

micrococci

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28
Q

What is the aerotolerance of stapylococci?

A

Facultative Anaerobes

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29
Q

What is the aerotolerance of micrococci?

A

Obligate Aerobes

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30
Q

What is the result of the Anaerobic Acid Production from glycerol in the presence of erythromycin (fermentation) in staphylococci?

A

Positive (+)

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31
Q

What is the result of the Anaerobic Acid Production from glycerol in the presence of erythromycin (fermentation) in micrococci?

A

Negative (-)

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32
Q

Furoxone-Tween 80 oil-red O agar is an example of __________.

A

Selective Media

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33
Q

Which is the inhibitor in the Furoxone-Tween 80 oil-red O agar?

A

Furoxone

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34
Q

What is the result of the growth on Furoxone-Tween 80 oil-red O agar in staphylococci?

A

Negative (-) as it is inhibited by Furoxone

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35
Q

What is the result of the growth on Furoxone-Tween 80 oil-red O agar in micrococci?

A

Positive (+)

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36
Q

It means that the bacterium is not inhibited by the antibiotic.

A

Resistant

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37
Q

It means that the bacterium is inhibited by the antibiotic.

A

Susceptible/Sensitive

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38
Q

Resistance to bacitracin (0.04 U) of staphylococci

A

Resistant (not inhibited by bacitracin)

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39
Q

Resistance to bacitracin (0.04 U) of micrococci

A

Susceptible (inhibited by bacitracin)

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40
Q

Resistance to lysosome (50-mg disk) of staphylococci

A

Resistant (not inhibited by lysosome)

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41
Q

Resistance to lysosome (50-mg disk) of micrococci

A

Susceptible (inhibited by lysosome)

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42
Q

Resistance to lysostaphin (200 ug/mL) of staphylococci

A

Susceptible (inhibited by lysostaphin)

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43
Q

Resistance to lysostaphin (200 ug/mL) of micrococci

A

Resistant (not inhibited by lysostaphin)

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44
Q

All micrococci are OBLIGATE AEROBES except _________.

A

MNEMONIC: KRIVA
- Micrococcus kristinae
- Micrococcus varians

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45
Q

Micrococcus kristinae and Micrococcus varians are both _________.

A

Facultative Anaerobes (fermenters)

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46
Q

All staphylococci are NEGATIVE in the MICRODASE TEST except _________.

A

MNEMONIC: SCLEVI CASE
- Staphylococcus sciuri
- Staphylococcus lentus
- Staphylococcus vitulus
- Macrococcus caseolyticus

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47
Q

Enumerate examples of staphylococci that are positive in the Microdase Test.

A

MNEMONIC: SCLEVI CASE
- Staphylococcus sciuri
- Staphylococcus lentus
- Staphylococcus vitulus
- Macrococcus caseolyticus

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48
Q

rothia result in Catalase Test

A

+/-

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49
Q

aerococcus result in Catalase Test

A

-

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50
Q

enterococcus result in Catalase Test

A

-

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51
Q

rothia result in Microdase Test

A

-

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52
Q

aerococcus result in Microdase Test

A

-

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53
Q

enterococcus result in Microdase Test

A

-

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54
Q

Aerotolerance of rothia

A

Facultative Anaerobe

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55
Q

Aerotolerance of aerococcus

A

Facultative Anaerobe

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56
Q

Aerotolerance of enterococcus

A

Facultative Anaerobe

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57
Q

Resistance to bacitracin (0.04 U) of rothia

A

Resistant or Susceptible

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58
Q

Resistance to bacitracin (0.04 U) of aerococcus

A

Susceptible

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59
Q

Resistance to bacitracin (0.04 U) of enterococcus

A

Resistant

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60
Q

Resistance to furazolidone (100 ug) of staphylococci

A

Susceptible

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61
Q

Resistance to furazolidone (100 ug) of micrococci

A

Resistant

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62
Q

Resistance to furazolidone (100 ug) of rothia

A

Resistant or Susceptible

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63
Q

Resistance to furazolidone (100 ug) of aerococcus

A

Susceptible

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64
Q

Resistance to furazolidone (100 ug) of enterococcus

A

Susceptible

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65
Q

Resistance to lysostaphin (200 ug/mL) of rothia

A

Resistant

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66
Q

Resistance to lysostaphin (200 ug/mL) of aerococcus

A

Resistant

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67
Q

Resistance to lysostaphin (200 ug/mL) of enterococcus

A

Resistant

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68
Q

Staphylococcaceae came from the Greek word ______.

A

Staphle

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69
Q

Staphle means _________.

A

Bunches of Grapes

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70
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
staphylococci are motile

A

False

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71
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
staphylococci are non-spore forming

A

True

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72
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Staphylococcus spp. are aerobic

A

True (some)

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73
Q

Which strains of staphylococci are obligate anaerobes, and catalase negative?

A
  • Staphylococcus saccharolyticus
  • Staphylococcus aureus subsp. anaerobius
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74
Q

What is the standard size of staphylococci?

A

Medium (4 to 8 mm)

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75
Q

Describe the color of staphylococci colonies

A

Cream-colored (common), white or rarely light gold (golden yellow)

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76
Q

Describe the texture of staphylococci colonies

A

Buttery-looking

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77
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Generally, staphylococci are fastidious.

A

False

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78
Q

Fastidious staphylococci requirements:

A

CO2, hemin, menadione, with at least 48 hours of incubation

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79
Q

These are organisms which are capable of developing a polysaccharide that appears as a slime layer.

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Staphylococcus epidermidis
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80
Q

The polysaccharide layer of S. aureus and S. epidermidis allows them to form a _______.

A

Biofilm

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81
Q

What is the purpose of biofilm in S. aureus and S. epidermidis?

A

To allow them to attach to inorganic surfaces, and protect against or overcome antibiotic activities.

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82
Q

Enumerate the sites where Staphylococcus aureus is found.

A
  • Anterior nares
  • Nasopharynx
  • Perineal area
  • Skin
  • Colonizer of mucosa
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83
Q

Boil or Pigsa is medically known as _________.

A

Furuncle

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84
Q

A cutaneous infection caused by S. aureus which has systemic manifestations.

A

Carbuncle

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85
Q

A cutaneous infection caused by S. aureus which is characterized by a large pustule with erythema.

A

Bullous Impetigo

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86
Q

Enumerate the infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

A
  • Cutaneous infections (folliculitis, furuncles, carbuncles, bullous impetigo)
  • Food Poisoning
  • Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSS)
  • Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)
  • Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN)
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87
Q

Enumerate the infections caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis.

A

Nosocomial Infections

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88
Q

Enumerate the sites where Staphylococcus haemolyticus is found.

A
  • Skin
  • Mucous membranes
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89
Q

Enumerate the infections caused by Staphylococcus haemolyticus.

A
  • Wound
  • Septicemia
  • UTIs
  • Native Valve Infections
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90
Q

Enumerate the infections caused by Staphylococcus lugdunensis.

A
  • Catheter-related bacteremia
  • Endocarditis
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91
Q

Enumerate the infections caused by Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

A

UTI (in adolescent girls and young women)

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92
Q

Enumerate the sites where Staphylococcus saprophyticus is found.

A
  • Skin
  • Genitourinary tract
  • Mucosa
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93
Q

Enumerate the sites where Micrococcus spp.,Kytococcus spp., and Kocuria spp. are found.

A
  • Skin
  • Mucosa
  • Oropharynx
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94
Q

Enterotoxins are serologically grouped into groups _________.

A

A-E and G-J

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95
Q

What are the three infections associated with Enterotoxins?

A
  • Food Poisoning
  • Toxic Shock Syndrome
  • Pseudomembranous Enterocolitis
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96
Q

Enterotoxins

Food poisoning is caused by ________.

A

Enterotoxin Groups A-E

Mahon: A, B, D

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97
Q

How can we determine if food poisoning is caused by the Staphylococcus aureus bacterium?

A

If the patient developed gastrointestinal symptoms such as:
- Vomiting
- Stomach ache
- Diarrhea
within 2 to 6 hours after eating contaminated food

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98
Q

How can we determine if food poisoning is caused by a virus?

A

If the incubation period or manifestation of symptoms is longer.

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99
Q

Enterotoxins

Toxic Shock Syndrome is caused by __________.

A

Enterotoxin Groups B, C, G, I

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100
Q

Enterotoxins

Pseudomembranous enterocolitis is caused by _________.

A

Enterotoxin Group B

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101
Q

How can you acquire pseudomembranous enterocolitis?

A

By consuming contaminated milk products

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102
Q

Enterotoxins are stable at __________.

A

100 C for 30 minutes

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103
Q

How can you get rid of enterotoxins?

A

By heating them for more than 100 C for more than 30 minutes

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104
Q

A virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus characterized by desquamation of the skin.

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin-1 (TSS)

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105
Q

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin-1 (TSS) is previously known as ___________.

A

Enterotoxin F

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106
Q

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin-1 (TSS) is also known as __________.

A

Pyrogenic Exotoxin C

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107
Q

What are the systemic effects of Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin-1 (TSS)?

A

Manifestation of fever which can lead to hypotension, which can result to shock and/or death.

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108
Q

What happens to the plasma volume when one has hypotension?

A

Decreases

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109
Q

Who are the people commonly affected by Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin-1 (TSS)?

A

Women wearing tampons during menstruation

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110
Q

Exfoliative Toxin is also known as ___________.

A

Epidermolytic Toxin A & B

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111
Q

Exfoliative toxin is a _________ which splits the intracellular bridges of the epidermis.

A

Serine protease

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112
Q

What does the exfoliative toxin (serine protease) do?

A

Split the intracellular bridges of the epidermis which causes the skin to slough off excessively and appear as burnt-like skin.

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113
Q

Exfoliative toxin causes __________.

A

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome

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114
Q

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome is also known as ________.

A

Ritter Disease

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115
Q

Exfoliative toxin is the causative agent or virulence factor associated with _________.

A

Bullous Impetigo

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116
Q

___________ is the causative agent or virulence factor associated with bullous impetigo.

A

Exfoliative Toxin

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117
Q

These are extracellular proteins that affect the RBCs and WBCs.

A

Cytolytic Toxin or Cytotoxin

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118
Q

_________ targets the red blood cells (RBCs).

A

Hemolysin

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119
Q

_________ targets the white blood cells (WBCS).

A

Leukocidins

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120
Q

Hemolysins for Staphylococcus aureus

A

Alpha, Beta, Gamma, and Delta

121
Q

It is characterized by the disruption of smooth muscle in the blood vessels, and its toxicity to erythrocytes, leukocytes, hepatocytes, and platelets.

A

α-hemolysin

122
Q

α-hemolysin is toxic to ________.

A
  • Erythrocytes
  • Leukocytes
  • Hepatocytes
  • Platelets
123
Q

It acts on sphingomyelin in the plasma membrane of the RBCs.

A

β-hemolysin

124
Q

β-hemolysin is also known as _______.

A

Sphingomyelinase C or “hot-cold lysin”

125
Q

Why is β-hemolysin also called as “hot-cold lysin”?

A

Because its hemolytic activity is enhanced upon incubation at 37 C (hot) and subsequently at 4 C (cold)

126
Q

It is utilized as a known factor in CAMP test.

A

β-hemolysin

127
Q

β-hemolysin is utilized as a known factor in _________.

A

CAMP Test

128
Q

CAMP test is used for _______.

A

Identification of Streptococcus agalactiae

129
Q

CAMP stands for _______.

A

Christie, Atkins, Munch-Petersen

130
Q

__________ is less toxic than α-hemolysin or β-hemolysin.

A

δ-hemolysin

131
Q

The following bacteria exhibits δ-hemolysin:

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Staphylococcus epidermidis
  • Staphylococcus haemolyticus
132
Q

__________ functions with Panton-Valentine Leucocidin (PVL).

A

γ-hemolysin

133
Q

Panton-Valentine Leucocidin (PVL) targets the _________.

A

Polymorphonuclear Cells (PMN)

134
Q

It is an exotoxin lethal to polymorphonuclear cells (PMS).

A

Panton-Valentine Leucocidin (PVL)

135
Q

What does Panton-Valentine Leucocidin (PVL) do to phagocytes?

A

Suppress

136
Q

Panton-Valentine Leucocidin (PVL) is associated with __________.

A

Severe cutaneous infections and necrotizing pneumonia

137
Q

Panton-Valentine Leucocidin (PVL) is often associated with __________.

A

Community-acquired staphylococcal infections

138
Q

What are the enzymes produced by staphylococci?

A

Coagulase, Protease, Hyaluronidase, and Lipase

139
Q

Staphylocoagulase is also known as _________.

A

Free coagulase

140
Q

An enzyme produced by staphylococci that is known to be a spreading factor.

A

Hyaluronidase

141
Q

How does hyaluronidase act as a spreading factor?

A

It hydrolyzes the hyaluronic acid in the intracellular ground substance in the connective tissues, permitting the spread of bacteria during infection.

142
Q

Lipase is produced by both ___________.

A

Coagulase Positive and CoNS

143
Q

________ acts on lipids present on the surface of the skin.

A

Lipase

144
Q

Protein A is found in the _________.

A

Cell wall

145
Q

A virulence factor of staphylococci that is found in the cell wall.

A

Protein A

146
Q

________ binds to the Fc portion of immunoglobulin G .

A

Protein A

147
Q

Aside from binding to the Fc portion of IgG, what are the other activities that Protein A do?

A

Block phagocytosis and inhibit the action of IgG

148
Q

A virulence factor of staphylococci that activates complement, IL-1, chemotactic to PMNs.

A

Peptidoglycan

149
Q

A virulence factor of staphylococci that mediates binding to fibronectin.

A

Teichoic Acid

150
Q

Enumerate the workflow in performing a laboratory test.

A
  1. Specimen Collection
  2. Direct Microscopic Examination
  3. Culture
  4. Macroscopic and Microscopic Examination
  5. Biochemical Testing
151
Q

In specimen collection, explain the rule of thumb.

A

The site of infection is the site of collection

152
Q

_______ are ideal sample for cutaneous infections such as skin or wound infection.

A

Aspirates

153
Q

If the wound or lesion of the patient did not have fluid/pus, how will you get the sample?

A

Through a swab

154
Q

_________ are less satisfactory for both culture and smear results.

A

Swabs

155
Q

In performing a swab collection, what is the important thing to do?

A

To get from the periphery area where metabolically active bacteria are found.

156
Q

TRUE or FALSE.
In performing a swab, you should get from the middle portion of the wound/lesion.

A

False (periphery)

157
Q

How many swabs should be obtained when collecting a sample?

A

2 (for culture and smear)

158
Q

What can you expect to see when performing direct microscopic examination with a staphylococci?

A

Gram positive cocci with polymorphonuclear cells

159
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
If there is no bacteria seen under the microscope during direct microscopic examination, but there is a presence of PMNs, proceed to culture.

A

True

Whether you see or did not see bacteria, ALWAYS proceed to culture.

160
Q

What is the purpose of culture?

A

To propagate the growth of bacteria in order to easily observe its characteristics.

161
Q

What are the typical media used for staphylococci?

A
  • Blood Agar Plate (BAP)
  • Chocolate Agar Plate (CAP)
  • Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA)
  • Columbia Colistin-Nalidixic Acid (CNA)
  • Phenylethyl Alcohol Agar (PEA)
  • CHROMagar
162
Q

What is the standard incubation period and temperature?

A

35-37 C for 18-24 hours

163
Q

Describe the colonies of S. aureus on BAP during macroscopic examination.

A

Round, smooth, white, creamy colonies, exhibiting a β-hemolytic pattern

164
Q

Describe the colonies of S. epidermidis on BAP during macroscopic examination.

A

Small to medium-sized, non-hemolytic, gray-to-white colonies

165
Q

Aside from S. aureus, which bacterium also exhibits a halophilic characteristic, and is a mannitol fermenter?

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

166
Q

_________ uses chromogen to grow bacteria that exhibits a specific color.

A

Chromogenic Media or Agar

167
Q

_________ exhibits a mauve color.

A

CHROMagar

168
Q

_________ exhibits a blue-green color.

A

HiChrome agar

169
Q

A bacteria, exhibiting a gram positive cocci morphology, is seen under the microscope. Which test should be conducted first?

A

Catalase Test

170
Q

_________ mediates the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) into oxygen and water.

A

Catalase

171
Q

What is the positive result for Catalase Test?

A

Bubble formation (effervescence)

172
Q

Bubble formation is also known as _________.

A

Effervescence

173
Q

What is the negative result for Catalase Test?

A

No bubble formation

174
Q

Which bacteria tests negative for Catalase?

A
  • Streptococcus spp.
  • Enterococcus spp.
175
Q

Explain the principle of Catalase Test

A

Principle: Catalase mediates the breakdown of 30% or 3% H2O2 into oxygen and water.

Result: (+) bubble formation

176
Q

Which test should be done if we want to identify the presence of Micrococcus spp.?

A

Microdase Test (Modified Oxidase)

177
Q

What is the positive result for Microdase Test?

A

Development of blue to purple-blue color

178
Q

Explain the principle of Microdase Test.

A

Principle: Oxidase enzyme reacts with oxidase reagent and cytochrome C to form a purple-blue indophenol ring after 2 minutes.

Result: (+) blue to purple-blue color

179
Q

Microdase Test

Oxidase enzyme reacts with _________ and ___________.

A

oxidase reagent and cytochrome C

180
Q

Microdase Test

The reaction of oxidase enzyme with oxidase reagent and cytochrome C produces ___________.

A

A blue to purple-blue colored indophenol compound

181
Q

Microdase Test

When does the Microdase Test exhbit color change?

A

After 2 minutes

182
Q

___________ is used to determine the effect of bacitracin on an organism.

A

Bacitracin Test

183
Q

Explain the principle of Bacitracin Test

A

Principle: To determine the effect of 0.04 U of bacitracin on a bacterium.

Method: disk diffusion

Result: >10 mm zone of inhibition

184
Q

How many bacitracin is utilized for bacitracin test?

A

0.04 U

185
Q

Which method is used for bacitracin test?

A

Disk Diffusion

186
Q

What is the positive result for Bacitracin Test?

A

Presence of >10 mm zone of inhibition around the disk

187
Q

What is the negative result for Bacitracin Test?

A

Presence of <10 mm zone of inhibition around the disk or NO ZONE OF INHIBITION at all

188
Q

Bacitracin Test

You noticed a presence of a zone of inhibition around the bacterial disk, with a diameter of 8 mm. What should be the concluded result?

A

Negative

Reason: For it to be considered positive, it should have a diameter of 10 mm or more than 10 mm.

189
Q

____________ is used to determine whether an organism uses carbohydrates to produce acid byproducts.

A

Oxidation-Fermentation (O/F) Reactions

190
Q

Which medium is used in O/F reactions?

A

Oxidation-Fermentation Basal Medium (OFBM)

191
Q

Which carbohydrates can be used in O/F reactions?

A

Glucose, xylose, mannitol, lactose, sucrose, and maltose

192
Q

What is the pH indicator in O/F reactions?

A

Bromothymol blue

193
Q

Oxidation-Fermentation Reactions (O/F)

What color is the pH indicator if it produces acid?

A

Yellow

194
Q

Oxidation-Fermentation Reactions (O/F)

What color is the pH indicator if it did not produce acid?

A

Green

195
Q

Oxidation-Fermentation Reactions (O/F)

What color is the pH indicator if it produces an alkaline product?

A

Blue

196
Q

How do we interpret the result in O/F reactions?

A

By writing the result of Oxidation first before Fermentation

197
Q

Oxidation-Fermentation Reactions (O/F)

A bacteria exhibited a +/+ reaction. Which organism is it, and what is its aerotolerance?

A

Organism: Staphylococcus spp.
Aerotolerance: Facultative Anaerobe

198
Q

Oxidation-Fermentation Reactions (O/F)

A bacteria exhibited a +/- reaction. Which organism is it, and what is its aerotolerance?

A

Organism: Micrococcus spp.
Aerotolerance: Obligate Aerobe

199
Q

Oxidation-Fermentation Reactions (O/F)

A bacteria exhibited a -/- reaction. Which organism is it?

A

Organism: Asaccharolytic bacteria such as Moraxella spp. and Alcaligenes spp.

200
Q

Oxidation-Fermentation Reactions (O/F)

A bacteria exhibited a -/+ reaction. What is its aerotolerance?

A

Aerotolerance: Obligate Anaerobe

201
Q

Explain the process of O/F reactions

A
  1. We have a culture, and we will transfer the same colonies in two different OFBM medium.
  2. First Tube: A and Second Tube: B.
  3. The first tube contains sterile mineral oil or melted petrolatum or sterile paraffin oil. This is to promote the anaerobic environment.
  4. The second tube does not contain sterile mineral oil to promote an aerobic environment.
  5. Incubate for 18-24 hours at 37°C.
202
Q

_________ is used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from CoNS by detecting enzyme coagulase.

A

Coagulase Test

203
Q

What are the two coagulase enzymes?

A
  • Free Coagulase (staphylocoagulase)
  • Bound Coagulase (clumping factor)
204
Q

What is the positive result for Coagulase Test?

A

Formation of Clot

205
Q

Which bacteria tests positive for Slide Coagulase Test?

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Staphylococcus schleiferi
  • Staphylococcus lugdunensis
206
Q

Which bacteria tests negative for Coagulase Test?

A

5-15% of CoNS

207
Q

___________ are bound to the cell wall and reacts directly with fibrinogen in plasma.

A

Bound Coagulase or Clumping Factor

208
Q

Bound Coagulase is also known as _________.

A

Clumping Factor

209
Q

Bound coagulase are bound to the _______ and reacts directly with _______ in plasma.

A
  • cell wall
  • fibrinogen
210
Q

The alteration of fibrinogen results to __________.

A

Precipitation of the staphylococcal cell wall

211
Q

The alteration of _________ results to the precipitation of the staphylococcal cell wall.

A

Fibrinogen

212
Q

If the cell wall precipitates, what will happen next?

A

Clumping of cells

213
Q

What is the positive result in bound coagulase test?

A

Clot with clump cells

214
Q

Bound Coagulase Test is performed via _________.

A

Slide Coagulase Test

215
Q

Slide Coagulase Test is a __________.

A

Screening Test

216
Q

What reagent is used in performing bound coagulase test?

A

Human, Rabbit, and Pig plasma in EDTA

217
Q

Which reagent is ideal in performing the bound coagulase test?

A

Rabbit plasma in EDTA

218
Q

If the result turns out to be negative for Bound Coagulase Test, which test should be conducted next?

A

Free Coagulase Test

219
Q

Explain the principle of Bound Coagulase Test

A

Principle: Bound to the bacterial cell wall and reacts directly with fibrinogen in plasma.
* Alteration of fibrinogen → precipitates on the staphylococcal cell wall (magdidikit yung cells)

Result: Clot (clumping of cells)
Performed in: Slide Coagulase Test (screening test)
Reagent: human, rabbit (ideal) or pig plasma in EDTA

If negative, proceed to free coagulase test.

220
Q

When the extracellular protein enzyme called ________ interacts with _______, it forms a ___________.

A

Free Coagulase + Coagulase Reacting Factor (CRF) = Coagulase-CRF Complex

221
Q

Coagulase-CRF Complex + __________ = fibrin

A

Fibrinogen

222
Q

Coagulase-CRF Complex + Fibrinogen = __________

A

Fibrin

223
Q

What is the positive result in free coagulase test?

A

Fibrin Clot

224
Q

Free Coagulase Test is performed via _________.

A

Tube Coagulase Test

225
Q

What reagent is used in performing free coagulase test?

A

Human, Rabbit (0.5 mL), and Pig plasma in EDTA incubate at 37 C for 4 hours with monitoring every 30 minutes

226
Q

Why should we monitor the specimen every 30 minutes in free coagulase test?

A

Because it is capable of autolysis due to the autolytic enzyme Fibrinolysin

227
Q

Which autolytic enzyme is present in free coagulase test?

A

Fibrinolysin

228
Q

After incubating the specimen processed via free coagulase test for 4 hours with monitoring every 30 minutes, you noticed the absence of clot formation. What should you do next?

A

Extend incubation at 21-25 C (room temperature) overnight

229
Q

Free Coagulase Test

Why do we extend incubation at 21-25 C and not 37 C when clot formation is absent?

A

Because the temperature 37 C enhances the autolytic activity of the specimen

230
Q

What enzyme converts fibrinogen to fibrin in humans?

A

Thrombin

231
Q

Explain the principle of Free Coagulase Test

A

Principle: Extracellular protein enzyme (free coagulase) + CRF (coagulase-reacting factor)
* Coagulase-CRF complex + fibrinogen = fibrin

Result: Fibrin clot (possibility of autolysis
due to fibrinolysin)
Performed in: Tube Coagulase Test
Reagent: human, rabbit (ideal) or pig plasma in EDTA (0.5 mL) incubate at 37°C for 4 hours with monitoring of clot
formation every 30 minutes.
* If there is no clot within 4 hours, extend incubation at 21-25°C overnight.

232
Q

It is done to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other CoNS by the presence of the enzyme L-pyrroglutamylaminopeptidase.

A

Pyrrolidonyl Arylamidase (PYR) Test

233
Q

Pyrrolidonyl Arylamidase (PYR) Test is done to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other CoNS by the presence of the enzyme ______________.

A

L-pyrroglutamylaminopeptidase

234
Q

L-pyrroglutamylaminopeptidase __________ L-pyrrolidonyl-β-naphthylamide to produce β-naphthylamine

A

hydrolyzes

235
Q

Which substrate is hyrolyzed by L-pyrroglutamylaminopeptidase to produce β-naphthylamine?

A

L-pyrrolidonyl- β-naphthylamide

236
Q

β-naphthylamine reacts with ____________ to produce a color change (reagent).

A

N,N-methylaminocinnamaldehyde or P-dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde

237
Q

What is the positive result in pyrrolidonyl arylamidase test?

A

Bright red color

238
Q

Which bacteria exhibit a positive reaction with the pyrrolidonyl arylamidase test?

A
  • S. schleiferi
  • S. intermedius
  • S. lugdunensis
239
Q

What is the negative result in pyrrolidonyl arylamidase test?

A

No color change or orange color

240
Q

Which bacteria exhibit a negative reaction with the pyrrolidonyl arylamidase test?

A

S. aureus

241
Q

Explain the principle of Pyrrolidonyl Arylamidase Test

A

Principle: to differentiate S. aureus from other CoNS by the presence of the enzyme L-pyrroglutamylaminopeptidase.
* Lpyrroglutamylaminopeptidase (hydrolyzes) → L-pyrrolidonyl-β-naphthylamide/PYR (substrate) = β-naphthylamine
* β-naphthylamine + N, N-methylaminocinnamaldehyde/p-dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde (reagent)

Result:
* (+) Bright red color S. lugdunensis, S. intermedius, S. schleiferi
* (-) No color change or an orange color S. aureus

242
Q

It is used to determine the ability of some organisms to produce neutral end products from glucose fermentation.

A

Vogue-Proskauer (VP) Test

243
Q

What are examples of neutral end products?

A

Acetyl-methylcarbinol and acetoin

244
Q

What is the positive result in vogue-proskauer test?

A

Red Color

245
Q

Which bacteria exhibit a positive reaction with the vogue-proskauer test?

A

S. aureus

246
Q

What is the negative result in vogue-proskauer test?

A

Yellow Color

247
Q

Which bacteria exhibit a negative reaction with the vogue-proskauer test?

A
  • S. schleiferi
  • S. intermedius
  • S. lugdunensis
  • S. haemolyticus
248
Q

Explain the principle of Vogue-Proskauer Test

A

Principle: to determine the ability of some organisms to produce neutral end products (acetyl-methylcarbinol or acetoin) from glucose fermentation.

Result:
* (+) Red color
* (-) Yellow color

249
Q

It is used to determine the ability of an organism to hydrolyze DNA based on the production of deoxyribonuclease.

A

DNA Hydrolysis Test

250
Q

Why is the medium in DNA hydrolysis pale green?

A

Because of the DNA-methyl green complex

251
Q

The ______ will hydrolyze the DNA which causes the pH to drop and for the methyl green to become colorless.

A

DNAse

252
Q

The DNAse will hydrolyze the DNA which causes the ____ to drop and for the methyl green to become colorless.

A

pH

253
Q

The DNAse will hydrolyze the DNA which causes the pH to drop and for the methyl green to become _______.

A

colorless

254
Q

What is the positive result in DNA hydrolysis test?

A

Colorless/Clear

255
Q

Which bacteria exhibit a positive reaction with the DNA hydrolysis test?

A

MNEMONIC: SSS Mo
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Streptococcus pyogenes
- Serratia spp.
- Moraxella spp.

256
Q

What is the negative result in DNA hydrolysis test?

A

Green Color

257
Q

Explain the principle of DNA Hydrolysis Test

A

Principle: to determine the ability of an organism to hydrolyze DNA based on the production of deoxyribonuclease.
* Medium is pale green because of the DNA-methyl green complex.
* The DNAse will hydrolyze the DNA which causes the pH to drop and for methyl green to be colorless.

Result:
* +) Clear
* (-) Green

Organisms with DNAse: SSS Mo
* Staphylococcus aureus
* Streptococcus pyogenes
* Serratia spp.
* Moraxella spp.

258
Q

It is used to determine the effect of a 5-ug novobiocin disk on an organism (to differentiate CoNS)

A

Novobiocin Susceptibility Test

259
Q

What is the positive result in novobiocin susceptibility test?

A

Presence of zone of inhibition around the disk with a diameter of 16 mm or >16 mm (susceptible)

260
Q

Which bacteria exhibit a positive reaction (susceptible) with the novobiocin susceptibility test?

A
  • S. epidermidis
  • S. capitis
  • S. haemolyticus
  • S. hominis subsp. hominis
  • S. lugdunensis
  • S. saccharolyticus
  • S. warneri
261
Q

What is the negative result in novobiocin susceptibility test?

A

No presence of zone of inhibition around the disk or presence of <16 mm zone of inhibition

262
Q

Which bacteria exhibit a negative reaction (resistant) with the novobiocin susceptibility test?

A
  • S. cohnii
  • S. kloosii
  • S. saprophyticus
  • S. xylosus
263
Q

Which group of antibiotics does Penicillin belongs?

A

Methicillin

264
Q

Penicillin belongs to the group of antibiotics called _______.

A

Methicillin

265
Q

MRSA stands for _________.

A

Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus

266
Q

Penicillinase resistant penicillin

A
  • Nafcillin
  • Oxacillin
  • Cefoxitin
267
Q

Inducers of mecA resistance

A

Oxacillin and Cefoxitin (better)

268
Q

MRSE stands for _________.

A

Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus epidermidis

269
Q

What is the treatment for MRSE?

A

Vancomycin

270
Q

VISA

A

Vancomycin-intermediate Staphylococcus aureus

271
Q

VRSA

A

Vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

272
Q

It dictates the bacteria to develop resistance against methicillin.

A

mecA gene

273
Q

Clindamycin belongs to the group of antibiotics called ________.

A

Macrolide

274
Q

______ belongs to the group of antibiotics called Macrolide.

A

Clindamycin

275
Q

It dictates the bacteria to develop resistance against macrolide.

A

erm gene

276
Q

Alloiococcus otitidis belongs to the family _________.

A

Carnobacteriaceae

277
Q

Staphylococcus capitis location

A

Head

278
Q

Staphylococcus auricularis location

A

Ear

279
Q

Low concentration of TSST-1 can lead to ___________.

A

leakage of endothelial cells

280
Q

High concentration of TSST-1 can lead to __________.

A

cytotoxicity to the endothelial cells

281
Q

TSST-1 is absorbed through the __________.

A

vaginal mucosa

282
Q

It is a superantigen which stimulates T-cell proliferation and production of cytokines that leads to the manifestation of symptoms.

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin-1 (TSST-1)

283
Q

TSST-1 is a superantigen which stimulates ________ and production of ________ that leads to the manifestation of symptoms.

A

T-cell proliferation, cytokines

284
Q

A chromosomal mediated toxin

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin-1 (TSST-1)

285
Q

It is a bullous exfoliative dermatitis affecting newborns, and previously healthy young children.

A

Scalded Skin Syndrome

286
Q

A heat-labile sphingomyelinase which catalyzes the hydrolysis of membrane phospholipid resulting in cell lysis.

A

β-hemolysin

287
Q

It lyses RBCs, and cause severe tissue damage.

A

α-hemolysin

288
Q

It decreases the ability for clearance of the organism from the site of infection.

A

Protein A

289
Q

Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA) is selective because of _______.

A

Its NaCl content (7.5% or 10%)

290
Q

What is the differentiating agent for MSA?

A

Mannitol + pH indicator

291
Q

pH indicator for MSA

A

Phenol red

292
Q

The color ______ indicates that an acid is formed in MSA.

A

Yellow

293
Q

The color ______ indicates that there is no acid formed in MSA.

A

Red/Pink

294
Q

Phenylethyl Alcohol Agar (PEA) is a ________ medium.

A

selective

295
Q

What is the inhibitor in PEA?

A

Phenylethyl alcohol

Inhibits Gram (-) species

296
Q

Staphylocoagulase producing staphylococci

A
  • S. aureus
  • S. intermedius
  • S. delphini
  • S. lutrae
  • S. hyicus (some)
297
Q

It is known to be an animal pathogen.

A

S. intermedius

298
Q

Which organism is positive or susceptible for Bacitracin Test?

A

Micrococcus spp.

299
Q

Which organism is negative or resistant for Bacitracin Test?

A

S. aureus

Bacteriology (17 decks)

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