Mycobacterium Flashcards

1
Q

Morphology of Mycobacterium spp.

A

Slender, slightly curved or straight, rod-shaped (bacilli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Are Mycobacterium spp. motile?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Aerotolerance of Mycobacterium spp.

A

Strict or Obligate aerobes (some are Capnophiles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mycobacterium spp. are known to be ______ bacteria.

A

acid-fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mycobacterium spp. exhibits which color when stained using Acid Fast method?

A

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Incubation period of Mycobacterium spp.

A

2 months or 8 weeks

For slow growers, some species can mature faster (rapid growers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mycobacterium spp. are ____ growers.

A

slow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which Mycobacterium spp. are rapid growers?

A

Group IV Runyon Classification (Rapid Growers)
* Mycobacterium fortuitum
* Mycobacterium chelonae
* Mycobacterium phlei
* Mycobacterium smegmatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cell wall components of Mycobacterium spp.

A

High amounts of Lipids and Mycolic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Do Mycobacterium spp. resist decolorization in Acid Fast Staining?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

____ that act as storage deposits of nutrients exist in Mycobacterium spp.

A

Inclusion bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are inclusion bodies?

A

Storage deposits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which inclusion body is present in Mycobacterium spp.?

A

Much granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mycobacterium is classified into how many groups?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mycobacterium spp. are classified into different groups based on ________.

A

Their capability to cause infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Groups under Mycobacterium spp.

A
  1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex
  2. Mycobacteria other than tuberculosis (MOTT) or Non-tuberculosis mycobacteria (NTM)
  3. Mycobacterium leprae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Members of Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex

A

ACRONYM: TBA
* Mycobacterium tuberculosis
* Mycobacterium bovis
* Mycobacterium africanum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do members of M. tuberculosis complex have in common?

A

They are all causative agents of Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Members under this group are the most common causes of Tuberculosis

A

M. tuberculosis complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is also known as ________.

A

Koch Bacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

“Koch Bacillus”

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis was discovered by ______.

A

Robert Koch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Robert Koch was the one who discovered ______.

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis was discovered in _____.

A

1882

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis requires ____ for growth.

A

5 - 10% CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Virulence factors of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A
  • Cord Factor
  • Sulfatides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How are cord factor and sulfatides virulent?

A

They produce a sticky response which is responsible for making the mucus very purulent which may trap the bacteria inside, masking it and making it unrecognized by phagocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Skin test for Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

PPD or Mantoux Test or Tuberculin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Skin test for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is measured after _____.

A

48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

(+) Result of skin test for Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

> 10 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

To determine whether the quality of the specimen is to be accepted or rejected, we will use the ________.

A

Bartlett’s Classification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Bartlett’s classification is used to ______.

A

qualify the specimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which objective lens is used when viewing epithelial cells?

A

Low Power Objective (LPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

LPO is used when viewing ______.

A

Epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which objective lens is used when viewing polymorphonuclear cells?

A

High Power Obejctive (HPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

HPO is used when viewing ______.

A

Polymorphonuclear cells (PMNs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Determine which specimen is present

> 10 EC with <25 PMNs

A

Saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Determine which specimen is present

<10 EC and >25 PMNs

A

Sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Accept or Reject?

> 10 EC with <25 PMNs

A

Reject

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Accept or Reject?

< 10 EC and >25 PMNs

A

Accept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Most common specimen for Mycobacterium tuberculosis identification

A

Sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Describe the sputum of a patient suspected with Tuberculosis

A

Sticky and very purulent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How many sputum specimens are needed for Direct Microscopic Examination or AFB Identification?

A

3 specimens (1 per day consecutively)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How many sputum specimens are needed for Culture?

A

1 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Interpret the Scenario

The patient submitted a sputum specimen for 3 consecutive days. Out of all three, 2 specimens turned out to be positive.

A

The patient is definitive for Pulmonary tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Interpret the Scenario

The patient submitted a sputum specimen for 3 consecutive days. Out of all three, only 1 specimen turned out to be positive.

A

Request for a 4th specimen

(+) = Definitive of Pulmonary Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Interpret the Scenario

A patient whose sputum was submitted for testing has 1 out of 3 specimens positive for Tuberculosis. After submitting a 4th specimen, it also turned out to be positive.

A

The patient is definitive for Pulmonary tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Interpret the Scenario

The patient submitted a sputum specimen for 3 consecutive days. The 4th specimen submitted was negative.

A

Request for repetition of the entire process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Specimens of Tuberculosis

A
  • Sputum
  • Secretions
  • Blood
  • Urine
  • CSF
  • Pleural, Pericardial, and Peritoneal fluid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How are specimens collected if a patient is not able to exudate his/her own sputum?

A

Their secretions are collected through bronchoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Presence of tuberculosis in the CSF is indicated by ______.

A

Pellicle of web-like clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Presence of tuberculosis in the ____ is indicated by a pellicle of web-like clot.

A

CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Presence of tuberculosis in PPP fluid is indicated by ______.

A

Increased Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Presence of tuberculosis in ____ is indicated by increased Adenosine Deaminase (ADA).

A

Pleural, Pericardial, and Peritoneal Fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

DOTS stands for ______.

A

Directly Observed Treatment Short-course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

According to DOTS, how many days are sputum sample collected?

A

2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How many sputum specimens per patient are collected by DOTS?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How many sputum specimens are collected in the 1st day according to DOTS?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How many sputum specimens are collected in the 2nd day according to DOTS?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When is the first specimen collected according to DOTS?

A

First thing in the morning after the patient’s mouth is washed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When is the second specimen collected according to DOTS?

A

Upon arrival in the laboratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When is the third specimen collected according to DOTS?

A

First thing in the morning after the patient’s mouth is washed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Prior to culture, the sputum sample must be _________.

A

Digested, decontaminated, and liquefied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The removal of normal flora and contaminating organisms

A

Decontamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Decontamination means ______.

A

The removal of normal flora and contaminating organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The breaking of sulfide bonds in the mucus of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

Digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Digestion means _______.

A

The breaking of sulfide bonds in the mucus of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Digestant and Decontaminating agents

A
  • 2-4% NaOH
  • Benzalkonium Chloride (Zephiran)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

A liquefying agent that speeds up the digestion process

A

N-acetyl-L-cysteine (NALC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the purpose of NALC in terms of digestion?

A

A liquefying agent that speeds up the digestion process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The most common combination for digesting and decontaminating Mycobacterium spp. causing tuberculosis

A

NALC or Dithiothreitol + 2 - 4% NaOH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which is substituted for NALC?

A

Dithiothreitol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A digestant-decontaminant that shortens exposure time

A

Benzalkonium Chloride (Zephiran)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the purpose of Benzalkonium Chloride (Zephiran) in digestion-decontamination?

A

It is a digestant-decontaminant that shortens exposure time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

It liquefies sputum but requires longer time of exposure

A

Trisodium Phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the purpose of Trisodium Phosphate in digestion-decontamination?

A

It liquefies sputum but requires longer time of exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Another combination for digestion-decontamination

A

Benzalkonium Chloride (Zephiran) + Trisodum Phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

It decontaminates specimens contaminated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

5 - 6% Oxalic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the purpose of 5 - 6% Oxalic acid in digestion-decontamination?

A

It decontaminates specimens contaminated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Gram stain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

Gram ghost or none (gram positive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Stains for Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A
  • Acid Fast Stain
  • Fite Faraco’s Stain
  • Auramine-Rhodamine Fluorochrome Stain
  • Spengler’s Stain
  • Pappenheim’s Stain
  • Baumgarten’s Stain
82
Q

AFB smear size

A

2 cm x 3 cm

83
Q

It uses hematoxylin instead of methylene blue as a counterstain

A

Fite Faraco’s Stain

84
Q

What is the difference between Fite Faraco’s and Acid Fast Stain?

A

Fite Faraco’s uses hematoxylin instead of methylene blue (in AFS) as counterstain

85
Q

Appearance of Mycobacterium tuberculosis using Auramine-Rhodamine Stain

A

Bright, yellowish-orange against a dark background

86
Q

Which kind of microscope is used for Auramine-Rhodamine Stains?

A

Fluorescent microscope

87
Q

A stain used by color blind individuals

A

Spengler’s Stain

88
Q

Appearance of Mycobacterium tuberculosis using Spengler’s Stain

A

Black

89
Q

Appearance of Mycobacterium tuberculosis using Pappenheim’s Stain

A

Red

90
Q

Appearance of Mycobacterium smegmatis using Pappenheim’s Stain

A

Blue

91
Q

Which species appears blue using Pappenheim’s Stain?

A

Mycobacterium smegmatis

92
Q

Appearance of Mycobacterium tuberculosis using Baumgarten’s Stain

A

Blue

93
Q

Appearance of Mycobacterium leprae using Baumgarten’s Stain

A

Red

94
Q

Which species appears red using Baumgarten’s Stain?

A

Mycobacterium leprae

95
Q

Requirement of Mycobacterium tuberculosis for Culture

A

Increased amount of protein

96
Q

Colonial appearance of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A
  • Tan to buff colonies
  • Dry, warty, rough, and granular
  • Resembles cauliflower
97
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis resembles ________.

A

Cauliflower

98
Q

Which form of media is Mycobacterium tuberculosis cultured?

A

Tubed Media

99
Q

Why is Mycobacterium tuberculosis cultured in tubes?

A
  • Moisture does not easily evaporate
  • Small opening = less chance of contaminats and transmission
100
Q

Primary drugs for Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

ACRONYM: RIPES
* Rifampicin
* Isoniazid
* Pyrazinamide
* Ethambutol
* Streptomycin

101
Q

Secondary drugs for Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

ACRONYM: CROCKER
* Capreomycin
* Rifabutin
* Ofloxacin
* Ciprofloxacin
* Kanamycin
* Ethionamide
* Rifabutin (ulit hehe)

102
Q

Agar-based Media for Mycobacterium tubereculosis

A
  • Duboi’s Oleic Acid Albumin Medium
  • Mitchinson’s Medium
  • Middlebrook 7H10-7H11
103
Q

Which medium is used for AST in Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

Middlebrook 7H10-7H11

104
Q

Egg-based Media for Mycobacterium tubereculosis

A
  • Petragnani Medium
  • Lowenstein-Jensen Medium
  • American Thoracic Society
  • Dorset Egg Medium
105
Q

Liquid Media for Mycobacterium tubereculosis

A
  • Bactec 12B
  • Septi-Check
  • Middlebrook 7H9
106
Q

Inhibitor present in egg-based media for Mycobacterium tubereculosis

A

Malachite green

107
Q

A medium used for heavily contaminated specimen (with increased concentration of malachite green)

A

Petragnani Medium

108
Q

Ma’am Christy’s medium of choice for Mycobacterium tubereculosis

A

Lowenstein-Jensen Medium

109
Q

Niacin Test Principle

A

Niacin + Niacin Ribonucleotide + Aniline Dye + Cyanogen Bromide

110
Q

(+) Result for Niacin Test

A

Yellow color

111
Q

Which organism is (+) for Niacin Test?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

112
Q

(-) Result for Niacin Test

A

No color change

113
Q

Which organism is (-) for Niacin Test?

A

Mycobacterium bovis

114
Q

Catalase Test at 68 C Principle

A

Tween 80 + Mycobacteria + 30% H2O2 + Heat at 68 C (20 mins)

115
Q

Medium for Catalase Test

A

Tween 80

116
Q

Reagent for Catalase Test

A

30% H2O2

117
Q

(+) Result for Catalase Test

A

45 mm height of gas bubbles

118
Q

Which organism is (+) for Catalase Test?

A

Mycobacterium kansasii

119
Q

(-) Result for Catalase Test

A

No bubbles

120
Q

Which organism is (-) for Catalase Test?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

121
Q

Nitrate Reduction Test Principle

A

HCL + Sulfanilamide + n-napthtylethylene diamine

122
Q

(+) Result for Nitrate Reduction Test

A

Pink or Red color

123
Q

Which organism is (+) for Nitrate Reduction Test?

A
  • Mycobacterium kansasii
  • Mycobacterium szulgai
  • Mycobacterium fortuitum
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
124
Q

(-) Result for Nitrate Reduction Test

A

No color change

125
Q

Which organism is (-) for Nitrate Reduction Test?

A

Mycobacterium intracellulare

126
Q

(+) Result for Tween 80 HOH Test

A

Red color

127
Q

Which organism is (+) for Tween 80 HOH Test?

A

Mycobacterium kansasii

128
Q

(-) Result for Tween 80 HOH Test

A

No red or amber color

129
Q

Which organism is (-) for Tween 80 HOH Test?

A

Mycobacterium avium

130
Q

(+) Result for Tellurite Reduction Test

A

Smooth, fine, black precipitate

131
Q

Which organism is (+) for Tellurite Reduction Test?

A

Mycobacterium avium

132
Q

(-) Result for Tellurite Reduction Test

A

Gray clumps

133
Q

Which organism is (-) for Tellurite Reduction Test?

A

Mycobacterium kansasii

134
Q

What test is conducted for rapid growers?

A

Aryl Sulfatase Test

135
Q

Aryl Sulfatase Test Principle

A

Tripotassium phenolphthalein disulfide or sulfate is acted upon by aryl sulfatase to produce free phenolphthalein

136
Q

(+) Result for Aryl Sulfatase Test

A

Pink or Red color

137
Q

Which organism is (+) for Aryl Sulfatase Test?

A

Group IV Rounyon Classification: Rapid Growers
* M. fortuitum
* M. chelonae
* M. phlei
* M. smegmatis

138
Q

Which organism is (+) or Susceptible for TCH Susceptibility Test?

A

Mycobacterium bovis

139
Q

Which organism is (-) or Resistant for TCH Susceptibility Test?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

140
Q

TCH stands for ______.

A

Thiophene-2-Carboxylic Acid-Hydrazide

141
Q

Iron Uptake Test Principle

A

To convert ferric ammonium citrate to iron oxide

142
Q

(+) Result for Iron Uptake Test

A

Rusty brown colonies

143
Q

Which organism is (+) for Iron Uptake Test?

A

Rapid growers

144
Q

(-) Result for Iron Uptake Test

A

No color formation

145
Q

Which organism is (-) for Iron Uptake Test?

A

Mycobacterium chelonae

146
Q

Pyrazinamidase Test Principle

A

Pyrazinamidase hydrolyzes pyrazinamide to produce pyrazinoic acid and ammonia in 4 days

147
Q

(+) Result for Pyrazinamidase Test

A

Red pigment

148
Q

Which organism is (+) for Pyrazinamidase Test?

A
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Mycobacterium marinum
149
Q

(-) Result for Pyrazinamidase Test

A

No color formation

150
Q

Which organism is (-) for Pyrazinamidase Test?

A
  • Mycobacterium bovis
  • Mycobacterium kansasii
151
Q

Urease Test Principle

A

Detection of urease activity

152
Q

Which organism is (+) for Urease Test?

A

Mycobacterium scrofulaceum

153
Q

Which organism is (-) for Urease Test?

A

Mycobacterium gordonae

154
Q

Sodium Chloride Tolerance Test Principle

A

High salt concentration (5% NaCl) in egg-based media inhibits the growth of most Mycobacteria

155
Q

(+) Result for Sodium Chloride Tolerance Test

A

Growth

156
Q

Which organism is (+) for Sodium Chloride Tolerance Test?

A
  • M. flavescens
  • M. trivìale
  • Most rapid growers
157
Q

Group 1 Runyon’s Classification

A

Photochromogens: KMSA
* M. kansasii
* M. marinum
* M. simiae
* M. asiaticum

158
Q

Group 1 Runyon’s Classification is ____ with the presence of light.

A

pigmented

159
Q

Group 1 Runyon’s Classification is ____ without the presence of light.

A

non-pigmented

160
Q

Which Organism is It?

  • “Yellow Bacillus”
  • Has beta-carotene
  • Nitrate (+)
A

Mycobacterium kansasii

Group 1: Photochromogens

161
Q

M. kansasii is also called as _____.

A

Yellow bacillus

162
Q

Why is M. kansasii termed as “yellow bacillus”?

A

Because it has beta carotene

163
Q

Which Organism is It?

Swimming pool granuloma

A

Mycobacterium marinum

Group 1: Photochromogens

164
Q

M. marinum is associated with ______.

A

Swimming Pool Granuloma

165
Q

Which Organism is It?

Niacin (-)

A
  • Mycobacterium simiae
  • Mycobacterium asiaticum

Group 1: Photochromogens

166
Q

Group 2 Runyon’s Classification

A

Scotochromogens
* M. scrofulaceum (scrofula)
* M. szulgai
* M. xenopi
* M. gordonae
* M. flavescens
* M. thermoresistable

167
Q

Group 2 Rounyon’s Classification is ____ with the presence of light.

A

pigmented

168
Q

Group 2 Rounyon’s Classification is ____ without the presence of light.

A

pigmented

169
Q

Which Organism is It?

  • Cervical lymph adenitis
  • Nitrate (-)
  • Niacin (+)
A

Mycobacterium scrofulaceum

Group 2: Scotochromogens

170
Q

Mycobacterium scrofulaceum is associated with _________.

A

cervical lymph adenitis

171
Q

Which Organism is It?

  • “Tap water Bacillus”
  • Tween 80 (+)
A

Mycobacterium gordonae

Group 2: Scotochromogens

172
Q

Mycobacterium gordonae is also known as _____.

A

Tap water Bacillus

173
Q

Group 3 Runyon’s Classification

A

Non-photochromogens
* M. avium-intracellulare complex
* M. avium
* M. ulcerans
* M. xenopi
* M. triviale
* M. haemophilum
* M. terrae
* M. malmoense
* M. gastri

174
Q

Group 3 Rounyon’s Classification is ____ with the presence of light.

A

non-pigmented

175
Q

Group 3 Rounyon’s Classification is ____ without the presence of light.

A

non-pigmented

176
Q

Which Organism is It?

  • “Battey Bacillus”
  • Tuberculosis in AIDS patients
A

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex

Group 3: Non-photochromogens

177
Q

M. avium-intracellulare complex is also known as _______.

A

Battey Bacillus

178
Q

Which Organism is It?

Tuberculosis in birds and chickens

A

Mycobacterium avium

Group 3: Non-photochromogens

179
Q

Which Organism is It?

  • “Innert Bacillus”
  • Buruli ulcers in skin
A

Mycobacterium ulcerans

Group 3: Non-photochromogens

180
Q

M. ulcerans is also known as _______.

A

Innert Bacillus

181
Q

Which Organism is It?

Hot, cold water taps at 42 C

A

Mycobacterium xenopi

Group 3: Non-photochromogens

182
Q

Which Organism is It?

“Radish Bacillus”

A

Mycobacterium terrae

Group 3: Non-photochromogens

183
Q

Which Organism is It?

“J Bacillus”

A

Mycobacterium gastri

Group 3: Non-photochromogens

184
Q

Group 4 Runyon’s Classification

A

Rapid Growers
* M. fortuitum
* M. chelonae
* M. phlei
* M. smegmatis

185
Q

Which Organism is It?

Grows on MAC without crystal violet

A
  • Mycobacterium fortuitum
  • Mycobacterium chelonae

Group 4: Rapid Growers

186
Q

Which Organism is It?

Provides CO2

A

Mycobacterium phlei

Group 4: Rapid Growers

187
Q

Which Organism is It?

Confused with Mtb in urine

A

Mycobacterium smegmatis

Group 4: Rapid Growers

188
Q

The causative agent of Hansen’s Disease or Leprosy

A

Mycobacterium leprae

189
Q

Mycobacterium leprae is the causative agent of ______.

A

Hansen’s Disease or Leprosy

190
Q

Leprosy is formally known as ____.

A

Hansen’s Disease

191
Q

The appearance of Mycobacterium leprae is described to be as ______.

A

Cigarette packet or Picket-fence

192
Q

Specimen for Mycobacterium leprae

A

Earlobe or Nasal scraping

193
Q

Culture for Mycobacterium leprae

A

Armadillo pads

194
Q

Stain for Mycobacterium leprae

A

Fite-Faraco

195
Q

Treatment for Mycobacterium leprae

A
  • Dapsone
  • Sulfone
196
Q

Skin test for Mycobacterium leprae

A

Lepromin Test

197
Q

Early reaction

A

Fernandez

198
Q

24-48 hours

A

Fernandez or Early reaction

199
Q

Late reaction

A

Mitsuda

200
Q

3-4 weeks

A

Mitsuda or Late reaction