exam prep Flashcards

1
Q

in class we discussed two compounds that inhibit production of dTMP. What are these compounds and what specifically do they inhibit?

A

Flurouracil
- inhibit thimidylate synthase enzyme
methotrexate- inhibit the enzymatic conversion of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate

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2
Q

your patient is suffering from gout-like symptoms. What treatment do you recommend? Why is this treatment effective

A

allopurinol

  • will inhibit xanithine oxidase thus decreasing production of uric acid
  • also binds to PRPP thus lowering the amount of purine synthesis
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3
Q

Will elevated PRPP levels increase, or decrease purine biosynthesis

A

increase

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4
Q

a defect in the enzyme ApeI will affect which DNA repair pathway

A

base excision repair

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5
Q

describe the specifics of a DNA repair pathway. What type of DNA lesion is corrected? What proteins detect the damage? how is it removed? how is it repaired?

A

Nucleotide excision repair
-repairs larger lesions in DNA, not just single nucleotides
-XPA and XPE detect the damage then XPB and XPD of TFIIH act as helicase
-XPE and XPG then remove the error
-DNA polymerase then replaces correct bases
ligase then seals the DNA

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6
Q

why does acetylation of histone N terminal tails often correlate with high transcriptional activity?

A

acetylation neutralized the positive charge of the histone-this decreasing the histones ionic interactions with the negative charge of DNA. this allows DNA to be exposed (TATA box, promoters) thus allowing transcription to occur more highly

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7
Q

what complex of proteins binds specifically to the TATA box

A

general transcription factors- TFIID-TBP(TATA binding protein)

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8
Q

transcription factors activation domains can stimulate transcription. Describe several ways that these domains can function.

A

activation domains such as acid blobs, proline rich or glutamine rich act to bridge info/relay between general transcription factors and DNA binding domain of transcription factors. they can also act to bring proteins to the transcription area- such proteins may act to speed up the initiation or process of transcription.

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9
Q

describe in detail cleavage/polyadenylation

A

when mRNA has a AAUAAA sequence produced on it, CPDF and CSH move from the CTD to the new mRNA. CPSF brings to the AAUAAA sequence, while CSTF beings to a GU. Cleavage factors 1 and 2 then act to cleave the mRNA near the CSTF. PAP then acts to initiate/produce a poly-A tail of around 200 onto the end of the mRNA- in this way the mRNA is cleaved and then a poly-a tail is added

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10
Q

what is the function in translation of the shine dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA

A

shine dalgarno ensures that the mRNA enters the ribosome correctly, so it may be read 5-3 and so that start condon may be found and initiate act of translation

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11
Q

if a viral RNA sequence contained an internal ribosome entry site, what eukaryotic translation protein would be dispensable for translation of the viral sequence?

A

eIF4E

???

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12
Q

bacterial EF-G is needed for which step in bacterial translation

A

moving the growing polypeptide attached to a tRNA from the Asite to the Psite and move RNA 3 nucleotides

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13
Q

you have normal and disease tissue samples from your patient. you would like to compare the gene expression profile in these samples. What diagnostic method would you use?

A

microarray assay

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14
Q

a mouse hepatitis virus outbreak has closed your lab facility. the outbreak appears to be contained because serological tests do not reveal viral proteins. However you suspect a low level of viral infection persists. what test would you use to detect trace levels of virus in your mouse blood samples?

A

PCR

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15
Q

your patient’s beta globin gene is silent due to DNA methylation. What compound could be given to demethylate the DNA and activate the gene?

A

5-azacytidine

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16
Q

RNAi can inhibit expression in two ways. What are they?

A

degrade mRNA

-inhibit the further transcription of mRNA that it can bind to

17
Q

how)in what form) are dietary carbohydrates absorbed?

A

monosaccharides

18
Q

if you are asked to design a drug for reducing dietary carb uptake, what specific enzymes would you target?

A

lactase, sucrase and maltase

19
Q

what is energy charge of cells and how would you define it>

A
  • measure of a cell’s energy status

- defined as a range from 0.8-0.95

20
Q

on chart of phosphofructoklinase-1 which line shows allosteric inhibition? which line shows allosteric activation?

A

activation- starts fast then tapers

inhibition- 3rd line- starts slow then S curve

21
Q

name one allosteric inhibitor other than citrate and one allosteric activator

A

inhibitor- ATP

activator- ADP

22
Q

where and in which pathway is citrate produced

A

produced in mitrochondria during the TCA cycle

23
Q

is citrate an allosteric inhibitor or activator of PFK1? what is the significance of citrate regulating the activity of PFK1

A

allosteric inhibitor
-this is a form of feedback inhibition because PFFK1 is an enzyme of gylcolysis a process that results in pyruvate production. this pyruvate is then modified to acetyl-coA which enters the TCA cycle- it is during this cycle that citrate is produced. so if a lot of citrate is made, the cell is in high EC, so gylcolysis may slow down thus PFK1 is inhibited