immuno1.21.24 Flashcards
(500 cards)
1
Q
Person makes ab, immunized/infection, memoryie. rubella immunization
A
active immunity
2
Q
ab transferred to, no memoryie. neonatal syphilitic IgG ab titer
A
passive immunity
3
Q
1st line, immediatenonspecific, no memoryskin,acid,PMNs, NK
A
Natural, innate
4
Q
Takes timespecific, memoryT/B cells (cytokines,ab)
A
Adaptive, acquired,anamnastic
5
Q
Two parts to adaptive, acquired immunity
A
cellular, humoral
6
Q
Kind of immunity…viral,fungal, intracellulartcell/lymphokinestype 4 delayed
A
cellular
7
Q
type of immunitybacteria,phagocytosis,extracellulartype 1(immediate)type 2(ADCC,complement)type 3 immune complex
A
humoral
8
Q
4 things that make antigens more immunogenic
A
largecomplexprotein/polysaccharideforeign
9
Q
4 subclasses of IgG
A
IgG 1,2,3,4
10
Q
Immunoglobulin with highest concentration
A
IgG
11
Q
Concen immunoglobulins high to low
A
G>A>M>D>E
12
Q
Largest antibody
A
IgM
13
Q
Pentamer, Jchain, fixes complement the best,1st to appear in neonates
A
igM
14
Q
Immunoglobulin on mature cells
A
IgD
15
Q
Immunoglobulin type 1 hypersensitivity, histamines
A
IgE
16
Q
Monoclonal ab made by
A
immunizing mousecombining spleen cells w/myeloma cells
17
Q
Hybridoma
A
plasma cell fused w/myeloma cells,make monoclonal abs
18
Q
Most circulating lymphoid cells are… and are…%
A
Tcells, 80%
19
Q
5 T cell surface markers
A
CD…2,3,4, 8,25
20
Q
CD4 surface markers are… and release…
A
T helper, cytokines
21
Q
CD3 surface markers are
A
associated w/TCR
22
Q
CD2 surface markers
A
rosette w/SRBCs
23
Q
2 Tcell surface markers that are regulatory cells that suppress immune response
A
CD4,25
24
Q
CD8 is
A
cytotoxic
25
3 surface markers on B cells
CD 19,20,21
26
2 markers for NK cells
CD 16,56
27
cells that nonspecifically kill virus infected and tumor cells
NK
28
Normal T:B cell ratio
8:1
29
Normal T helper:Tcyto ratio
2:1
30
AIDs T helper:Tcyto
1:2
31
which pathway initiated by immune complexes (IgG/IgM)
classical
32
What consists of 21 proteins that controls inflammation, activates phagocytosis, opsonizesEnhances ability of antibody, phagocytic cells to clear microbes/damaged cells, promotes inflammation and attack pathogen cell membrane
complement
33
In complement what is the major chemotatic agent
C5a
34
classical complement proteins and order of binding
C: 1,4,2,3
35
Most abundant complement protein in both pathways
C3
36
Alternative complement is activated by
lipopolysaccharides, polysaccharidesPathogen surface
37
Proteins involved in alternative pathway
C3Factors B/D, H/IProperdin
38
complement proteins of MAC
C56789
39
Name of soluble ag+ab forms lattice and visibe precipitate forms
precipitation
40
Double diffusion(ouchterlony),Single diffusion (radial),Immunoelectrophoresis,Immunofixation All are what kinds of rxns
precipitation
41
antigen excess is called
postzone
42
antibody excess is called
prozone
43
IgE mediated, histamine, mast cell activation (Bee sting,hay fever,asthma) all are what type of hypersensitivity rxns
Type 1, anaphylatic, immediate
44
Complement mediated cytolysis initiated by ag-abTransfusion rxn,AIHA, Hashimoto, Goodpasture all are what type of hypersensitivity rxn
Type 2, ab-dependent cytotoxicity
45
IgG at soluble ag, immune complexes damage tissueRA, SLE, serum sickness all are what type hypersensitivity
Type 3 immunie complex
46
Type 2 is
antibody dependent
47
Type 1 is
anaphylatic, immediate
48
Type 3 is
immune complex
49
Type 4 is
delayed
50
Ag specific Tcell:TB skin tests, contact dermatitis, poison ivy, GVHD all are what type of hypersensitivity
Type 4 delayed
51
Two skin tests for allergy
RIST,RAST
52
What test for IgE
ELISA
53
Eos/IgE in what type of hypersensitivity
Type 1, anaphylatic, immediate
54
natural active immunity seen in
infection
55
natural passive immunity seen in
maternal ab
56
2 primary lymphoid organs
thymusbone marrow
57
What type of immunity with skin,mucous,BF
natural
58
what kind of immunity with vaccines
specific immunityartificial active
59
adaptive immunity w/ab is called
humoral immunity
60
immunity inside infected cells
cell mediated
61
Plasma protein that activates complement system of innate
properdin
62
enzyme that catalyzes destruction of cell walls of bacteria
lysozyme
63
signal protein release by cells due to virus
interferon
64
Subtance that stimulates cell locomotion/migration
chemotactic factor
65
Cell that kills tumor cells nonspecifically
NK
66
Have receptors that are specific for a tumor/microbe
cytotoxic cells
67
Combines to larger carriers to elicit immune response but doesn't elicit on its own
hapten
68
Enhances immune response
adjuvant
69
molecule that can elicit an immune response
immunogen
70
3 secondary lymphoid organs
spleen,tonsils,lymph nodes
71
Which 2nd lymph organs respond to antigens by making lymphocytes and plasma cells
lymph nodes contain WBCSspleen makes WBCs,ab
72
cell that specifically kills tumor cells/virally infectedneeds exposure
T cytotoxic
73
cell nonspecifically kills tumorinnate/no need exposure
NK
74
Phagocytosis is main function of what cell
PMNs
75
Genes that control expresson of HLA antigens are called
MHCmajor histocompatibility complex
76
3 Class I gene products
HLAA,B,C
77
5 Class II gene productspresent antigen outside of the cell of T lymphs
HLAD-M,O,P,Q,R
78
Ab increases during convalescence phase(symptoms disappear, return to normal)
IgG
79
Ig...best precipitinsoluble ag/specific ab
IgG
80
Ig..best agglutinin
IgM
81
has 4 subclasses
IgG
82
Ig...dimer
IgA
83
2 Ig...monomer
IgG, E
84
Ig...pentamer
IgM
85
2 Ig have Jchain
IgM, A
86
complement are heat...
labile
87
complement acts as an...and end result of complement is...
opsonincell lysis
88
Which ab bind complement
IgG/M
89
First component to bind to immunoglobulin in recognition phase of complementcan bind bacteria,ab,CRP
C1q
90
Proteases of complement that don't bind/aren't active
Clr/s
91
Complement component that is chemotactic and anaphylatoxicMediator of inflammation andis released to recruit phagocytes
C5a
92
Factor B,D and properdin is in what pathway
alternate
93
IgG ab binds to rbc and is reversible is called
sensitization
94
clumping ag w/ab after sensitization is called
agglutination (IgM best)
95
Antigen in agglutination inhibition is...which is bound to
Pt serumab reagent
96
Positive test for aggulutination inhibition
no aggglutionationPT has antigen(in serum) and reagent ab is bound to serum/antigen so it can't react with indicator
97
Negative test for agglutination inhibition
agglutinationPT doesn't have antigen in serum, and reagent ab isn't bound thus reacting w/indicator
98
Two examples of agglutionation inhibition tests
hemaggutination inhibition (rubella)latex agglutination inhibition (viruses)
99
complement fixation positive test is
no hemolysisno C available, complement is fixed, not available to combine w/indicator (SRBC coated w/antiSRBC)
100
complement fixation
when complement finds/attaches to antibody-antigen complex
101
complement fixation negative test
hemolysis:no antibody in serum and complement not bound, attaches to indicator/SRBC+antiSRBC and lyse
102
What type of rxn/test is ab-ag combined in presence of complement to see if hemolysis occursdetects IgM ab w/sheep RBC/antiSRBC/hemolysin
complement fixation (CF)
103
...quantitatively determines the level of an antigen. Antibody is incorporated into liquefied agar and allowed to gel. The antigen is added to small wells and radiates throughout the antibody-containing medium, leaving a precipitate throughout the gel. The amount of diffusion is quantified.
radial immunodiffusion (RID)ORsingle immunodiffusion
104
single immunodiffusion also called
radial immunodiffusion (RID)
105
Rxn where diffusion occurs and a ring of precipitate forms on an agar plate with ab where serum/standards are added
Radial immunodiffusion(RID)Single immunodiffusion
106
Fahey(kinetic) and Mancini(end pt) are what kind of tests
RID/immunodiffusion/precipitaition
107
... ... is an agar gel immunodiffusion.It is a special precipitation reaction on gels where antibodies react with specific antigens forming large antigen-antibody complexes which can be observed as a line of the precipitate.In...both the antibody and antigen are allowed to diffuse into the gel.After application of the reactants in their respective compartments, the antigen and the antibody diffuse toward each other in the common gel and a precipitate is formed at the place of equivalence.
Double Immuno-diffusion
108
Another name for double diffusion
Ouchterlony
109
Test used to determine relationship between ag-ab Ab is added around ab well and diffussion occurs with precipitation bandsConcentration and rate of diffusion dictates location of bandsUsed to id ab w/autoimmune disorders
double diffusion/ouchterlony
110
Double diffusion pattern that fuse together is
identity
111
double diffusion pattern that intersect are
nonidentity
112
double diffusion patterns that parially intersect are
partial identity
113
Test where ab-ag diffuse thru agar after serum proteins are electrophoresed on agar
immuno-electrophoresis (IEP)
114
Serum IEP can detect
monoclonal gammopathies
115
urine IEP can dectect
Bence Jones protein or free light chains
116
In this method the sample goes through a complex process called electrophoresis. This process singles out the different proteins in your blood. A dye is used to bind to the proteins and stain them.This method "fixes" certain proteins into place with antibodies and then washes away the others before staining them. On a computer screen, these proteins form a pattern of bands. Peaks and valleys in the bands may mean that you may be making too many or too few of certain proteins. The band pattern is specific for certain diseases.
Immunofixation
117
protein electrophoresis plus immuno-precipitation is called
immunofixation
118
Immunofixation is used to classify
monoclonal gammoopathies/determine heavy and light chains
119
name of test where ab-ag migrate toward each other and forms precipitate
countercurrent immunoelectrophoresisCIE
120
Two examples of RIA, radioimmunoassay
RIST, RAST
121
Which RIA measures total IgE
RISTradio-immunosorbent test
122
which RIA measures IgE to specific allergens
RASTradio-allergosorbent test
123
Which test is a sanwhich tecnique with ab on solidPT serum addedenzyme labeled abenzyme substrate
EIA/ELISA enzyme immunoassay
124
HIV/Serum HcG/hepatitis mreausred by
EIA/ELISA
125
EMIT measuresenzyme multiplied immunoassay
small molecules like drugs, hormonesThe enzyme multiplied immunoassay technique (EMIT) is one of the more common drug screening platforms.
126
Positive EMIT is
colorA change in absorbance is measured at 340 nm by a spectrometer In this enzyme immunoassay (EIA), NAD is reduced to NADH when it reacts with the enzyme G6PD.
127
Negative EMIT is
no color
128
Test where insoluble complexes reflects scattered light
nephleometry
129
FTA-ABS STANDS FOR...TETS FOR...TO...
FTA-ABSFluorescent Treponemal Antibody ABS: absorptionpresence of antibodies to Treponema pallidum
130
Type of immunohistochemistry technique that utilizes fluorophores to visualize various cellular antigens such as proteins.
Immunofluorescence (IF)
131
ANA and FTA-Abs can be tested with
immuno-fluorescencefluorescein labeled ab
132
Positive FPIA
reduction of polarized light
133
negative FPIA
increased polarized light
134
FPIA stands for
Fluorescence polarization immunoassay
135
Time frame to test for infectious disease
acute and convalescent specimens 2weeks apart
136
Clinically sig titer for infectious disease is
4-fold or 2 tube rise
137
Ability of test to detect very small amount of a substancwe
sensitivity
138
ability of test to give positive result if PT has the disease-less false neg
sensitivity
139
ability of test to detect substance without interference from cross reacting substances
specificity
140
ability of test to give neg result if PT does not have disease-less false pos
speficity
141
Name of principle where if person has ab to virus, the virus on the RBCs added will be neutralized and inhibit agglutination
hemaaglutination inhibitionAg are on rbcs
142
a substance in the blood of persons with syphilis responsible for positive serological reactions for syphilis an antibody (such as IgE in humans) that mediates hypersensitive allergic reactions of rapid onset
reagin
143
fusing B lymphs w/a plasma myeloma cell is how you make
monoclonal ab
144
binding strength of single sitesingle antigenic determinent + individual ab
affinity
145
total binding strength, multivalent ag-b
avidity
146
reproducible technique for quantitation of a single protein, and is also applicable in a protein mixture. The quantitation is based on measuring the height of the precipitate peak.
one dimensional single electroimmuno-diffusion
147
one dimensional single electroimmunodiffusion also called
rocket electrophoresisLAURELIn rocket immunoelectrophoresis, antigen migrates in an electric field in a layer of agarose containing an appropriate antibody.
148
fluorochrome that gives minimal false reading and is green
fuorescein(isothiocyanate)
149
fluorochrome gives off red at 580nm
tetra-methyl-rhodamine isothicyanate
150
...tests are an indirect method in that they detect biomarkers that are released during cellular damage that occurs from the syphilis spirochete. ...are screening tests, very rapid and relatively simple, but need to be confirmed with...
Nontreponemalconfirm with treponemal tests
151
....tests look for antibodies that are a direct result of the infection thus, IgG, IgM and to a lesser degree IgA.
Treponemal
152
The nontreponemal antigens in syphilis are
cardiolipin and lecithin
153
The VDRL antigens are
cardiolipin and lecithin
154
Nontreponemal antibody
reagin
155
...is a fundamental process utilized to facilitate the aggregation of small particles in a liquid or solution to form larger clusters, known as flocs.
Flocculation
156
VDRL
venereal disease research laboratory
157
Ab-ag rxn in VDRL test is what type
flocculationThe VDRL test doesn’t look for the bacteria that cause syphilis. Instead, it checks for the antibodies (reagins) your body makes in response to antigens produced by cells damaged by the bacteria.
158
Which requires heat inactivation, VDRL or RPR
VDRL
159
In VDRL, each serum sample must be heat-inactivated for...minutes at ...prior to testing. If heat-inactivation occurs more than four (4) hours prior to testing, reheat the serum for an additional ...minutes at...
Heat inactivate for 30 min at 56CIf >4hrs, reheat 10min at 56C
160
antigens for RPR
cardiolipin + charcoalThe rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test uses the same antigen as VDRL, but the antigen is bound to a carbon particle to allow visualization of the reaction without a microscope.
161
reactive RPR forms
black clumps
162
two nontreponemal tests/reagin tests
VDRL/RPR
163
Reiter strain serves as a .... in FTA-ABSFluorescent Treponemal Antibody ABS: absorption
absorbent, removes nonspecific ab
164
In FTA-ABS, what strain is used with serum after absorbed off
NicholsFTA-ABS test system employs nonviable T. pallidum (Nichols strain) cells as a substrate (antigen).
165
Name of test1.)Absorb ab, Reiter2.)Add Nichols, serum3.)label, fluorescein
FTAfluorescent treponemal ab absorption
166
most sensitive tests for syphillis
FTS-ABS and EIisa
167
MHA-TP
Microhemagglutination-Treponema pallidumdetects antibodies
168
Less likely to be reactive in primary,secondary syphillis in which test
MHA-TPMicro agglutination
169
Test name that detects treponemal abremove nonspecific ab w/sorbent, react serum w/Nichols strain of pallidium, add fluorecein label
FTA-ABsfluorescent treponemal ab absorptoin test
170
Test you add live treponemes to PT serum
TPItreponema pallidium immobilization testp
171
positive TPI
treponemes immobilized
172
MHA-TP used to detect
ab to T.pallidium
173
in MHA TP what is PT serum added to
SRBCs sensitized w/T.pallidum
174
positive MHA TP
agglutination, ab
175
TP-PA uses what kind of particles
gellatin
176
Which microflocculation test is screen for CSF syphillis
VDRL
177
Whici microflocculation test for syphillis does not require heat
RPR
178
Virus that causes infectious mononucleosis
EBVepstein barr virus
179
What does the screen for EBV test for
heterophile ab
180
What is a positive rxn for EBV using the screening rapid diff slide test
greater agg in kidney absorbed cells
181
What are the indicator cells for the EBV screen rapid diff slide test
Sheep, RBCs
182
What is the confirmation test for EBV
Tests for ab such as ELISA, CLIA
183
In CLIA test to confirm EBV, what stage of infection is it when there is a presesnce of IgG/IgM + anti-VCA in absense of anti-EBNA
current or recent
184
anti-VCA IgM/IgGanti-EAanti-EBNA all are antibodies to what virus
EBV
185
Anti-EBNA and IgG anti-VCA w/out IgM anti-VCA indicate what stage of infection of EBV
past
186
Name 5 streptococal ag
streptolysin, streptokinaseDNase: deoxyribonuclease BNADaseHyaluronidase
187
Streptozyme test:Kind of rxn, what it tests for, reagent used
hemagglutionationtests for abSRBC
188
Name of specific neutralizaton test for antibody made in group A strep infection
Anti-DNase B test
189
What is a positve rxn in the anti-DNase B test
green color
190
Test name where strep abs prevent the lysing of group O rbcs by neutralizing
Anti-streptolysin O neutralization test
191
What indicates presence neutralizing ab in the anti-strepolysin O neutralizing test
Dilution of last tube shows no hemolysis
192
Name of reciprocal of dilution of last tube in anti-streptolysin O neutralization test
Todd units
193
Two tests for strep A antigens
LFA Molecular testing for DNA
194
What is used to screen for HIV-1 ab
ELISA
195
2 ways to Confirmation for HIV
Western blotNucleic acid testing
196
Name of retrovirus that attackes CD4 cells
HIV-1
197
Cause of CMV
herpes virus
198
Testing for CMV
ELISA
199
HepB serology involved in acute phase
HBsAg, HBeAg
200
Hep B serology involved in early recovery
anti-HBc IgM
201
Hep B serology involved in recovery, immunity
anti-HBc totalanti-HBsanti-HBe
202
Hep A serology recent infection
anti-HAV IgM
203
Order of Hepatitis B ag/ab
HBsAg, HBeAgantiHBc, antiHBe, antiHBs
204
Paul Bunnell heterophil ab test uses what type of rbc
sheep
205
Paul Bunnell heterophil ab used to detect
ab from IM
206
Forssman ab are absorbed by what kind of kidney antigen
guinea pig
207
Davidsohn diff test uses what kind of rbc
sheep and horse
208
Which antigen is the somatic antigen used to determine antigenic grouping of enteric bacteria
O
209
which antigen is the flagellar antigen
H
210
Widal test tests for what
Salmonella typhi
211
An elevated O titer in the Widal test indicates
increase in agglutinins to S.typhi
212
Weil-Felix test detects ab to
Rickettsia
213
Proteus,OX19-2, agglutination all have to do with what organism
rickettsia
214
What kinds of strains are OX19 and OX2 antigens
strains of Proteus vulgaris
215
Widal(typhoid) and Weil-Felix (Rikettsial) detect
febrile agglutinins
216
Francisella tularensis will cross react with
Brucella abortusF.t./B.a.
217
To diagnose aspergillosis, titer must be
1:512
218
India Ink is replacing what test...
cryptococcal antigen test
219
What inferes w/crytococcal antigen latex agg test
RF
220
autoimmune disease where IgM/IgG ab are directed against Fc portion of IgG
RA
221
What type of hypersensitivity is RA, what is formed
Type 3 immune complexes
222
what does screening test, RF assay for RA detect
serum IgM
223
Confirmatory test for RA
anti-CCPcyclic citrullinated peptide
224
Screen test for autoimmune dieases
ELISA
225
Two tests for ANA are
ELISAIIFindirect immunofluorescence
226
Antinuclear antibodies are seen in what conditions
SLESjogrensSclerodermaRAMCTD
227
In IIF for ANA what cells are fixed to a slide
HEp2 cells
228
Disease where autoab to myelin sheath of nerves/myelin basic protein
MS
229
In MS, what kind of bands are in CSF but not in serum
oligoclonal IgG
230
Disease name in hyperthyroidism
Graves Disease
231
Disease where autoab are directed against TSH receptors (TSH-R)
Graves, hyperthyroidismLess TSH means thyroid makes more T3/T4
232
In Graves disease what are TSHs and T3/T4 levels
Low TSHIncreased T3/T4
233
TPO...High levels indicate both...
TPO: Thyroid peroxidase antibodies (TPOAb)High levels of these antibodies are seen in both Graves and Hashimoto's
234
TRAb...Sign of...
TRAb:Thyrotropin receptor antibodies (TRAb). These antibodies can be a sign of Graves' disease.
235
TSI...Seen in...
The TSI test measures the level of thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI) in your blood. High levels of TSI in the blood can indicate the presence of Graves’ disease
236
TSHR ab...Seen in...
Autoantibodies (Ab) against the thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor (TSHR) are frequently found in Graves
237
3 ab elevated in Graves
TSHR-ab/TR-AbTSITPO
238
Graves disease symptoms
anxiousweight loss goiter
239
Name of disease with hypothyroidism
Hashimotos thyroiditis
240
Tg/Tg-Ab...Sign of...
Thyroglobulin antibodies (TgAb)Hashimotos thyroiditis
241
Autoab made against thyroglobulinThyroglobulin antibodies (TgAb). High levels of these antibodies are a sign of this disease.thyroglobulin helps make T3/T4, decreased equals less T3/T4
Hashimotos thyroiditis
242
In Hashimotos, what are the TSH levels
increased TSH
243
In Hashimotos, what ab are present
TPOTg/Tg-Ab
244
Symptoms of Hashimotos
TiredWeight gainintolerance to cold
245
A type of cancer that develops in the lymph system and has Reed-Sternberg cells
Hodgkin lymphoma, also called Hodgkin disease
246
IMBurkitts, Hodgkin'sCarcinomaLymproloferative all associated with
EBV
247
is an aggressive non-Hodgkin B-cell lymphoma, worse prognosis than Hodgkins
Burkitt lymphoma (BL)
248
Lab finding in IM
Lymphocytosis>50%20% atypicalHetetophile abAb EBV ag
249
Name of ab formed against Forssman ag (discovered in guinea pig tissue)
Forssman hetetophile ab
250
IM hetetophile ab are usually Ig...Can react to which 3 rbcs...Absorbed by...Not absorbed by...
IgMHorse, sheep, ox rbcsAdsorbed by beef rbcNot adsorbed by guinea pig kidney cells
251
Name of test screens for hetetophile ab using titer of abIncubated with sheep RBCHighest dilution of agglutination
Paul Bunnell test
252
Paul Bunnell test titer needs to be
>56
253
Performed when Paul Bunnell is >56
Davidsohn diff test
254
True false, Paul Bunnell diff between hetetophile ab
False
255
Test that diff hetetophile ab, uses sheep RBC
Davidsohn diff test
256
Sig titer in Davidsohn
>224
257
Which cells are used in Davidsohn diff test...
Guinea pig kidney cellsBeef rbc
258
Which cells removes Forssman and serum sickness ab..Which cells are agglutinated by them...
Removed by Guinea pig kidney cellsAgglutination by beef
259
Which cells remove serum sickness and IM ab...Which cells agglutinate them
Beef rbcs remove IM abGuinea agglutinate IM ab
260
Ab adsorbed by only guinea kidney cells not beef rbc
Forssman abThus not able to agg the guinea kidney
261
Ab adsorbed by both guinea and beef
Serum sickness, thus not able to agg either
262
Ab adsorbed by only beef not guinea
IM, thus not able to agg beef
263
Adsorption Fossman, Serum, IM
Adsorbed on...Fossman: guinea pig kidneyIM: beef rbcSerum sickness: both
264
Agglutination: Fossman, Serum, IM
Agglutination Fossman: beef rbcIM: guinea pigSerum sickness: none
265
2 EBV antigens in early acute phase
EAR, EAD (restricted,nuclear)(diffuse, nucleus, cytoplasm)
266
2 EBV late phase antigens
VCA (viral capsid)MA (membrane)
267
2 latent phase antigens EBV
EBNALMP
268
PT sero neg, lacks ab to VCA they are
Susceptible to EBV
269
Has IgM to VCA, EBNA absentHigh IgG VCA is what stage of infection
Primary infection
270
Ab to EBNA, increased EA ab what stage of EBV
Reactivation
271
Ab to VCA and EBNA what stage
Past infection
272
E-rosette test used to enermurate
T lymphs
273
Disease that is hypersensitive to gliadin/gluten
Celiac disease/sprue
274
4 ab to test for celieac
tTG IgA,GEMA-IgAAGA-IgG
275
2 HLA markers in all celiac
HLA-DQ 2, 8
276
Disease where autoab directed against TSH receptors
Graves
277
Disease where autoab directed against basement mebrane of kidney and lungs
Goodpastures
278
Disease where autoab directed against thyroglobulin
Hashimotos
279
Disease where autoab directed against myeline sheath of nerves or myelin basic protein
MS
280
Disease where autoab directed against acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular joints
MGmyasthenia gravis
281
Disease where IgM autoab directed against Fc portion of IgG
RA
282
Disease where autoab directed against salivary duct,tear duct
SJogrens syndrome
283
ANA centromere pattern associated with
CREST
284
Nucleolar ANA pattern associated with these two diseases
SclerodermaCTD connective tissue
285
SLE ANA patterns
Peripheral(rim)Homogenous(diffuse)
286
What is used in diagnosing, determining progression, choosing drugs, monitoring diseases
tumor markers
287
Tumor markers tested using
ELISA
288
AFP, Alpha Fetoprotein associated with these 3 cancers/organs
liverovary, testes
289
CEA, carcinoembryonic ag associated with these three cancer/organs
colonbreastlung
290
CA 15-3 associated with this cancer/organ
breast
291
4 Breast tumor markers
CA-15-3BR 27-29CEAEstsrogen/Progesterone receptors
292
2 ovary tumor markers
CA 125AFP
293
CA 125 what organ/tumor marker
ovary
294
CA 19-9 what organ/tumor marker
pancreas
295
2 testes/testicular markers1 prostate
HCGAFPPSA
296
Beta-2 microglobulin marker for
MM, CLL
297
Disease with ineffective phagocytosis, defect in neutrophils thus recurrent bacterial infections
CGDchronic granulomatous
298
Disease with impaired neutrophil function
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
299
T cell deficiency disease, no thymus
DiGeorge's syndrome
300
DiGeorge has no thymus
...
301
Decreased TH, TH/TS ratio/Tcell proliferation
HIV
302
Partial combined immunodef, thrombocytopenia at birth
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
303
Complete or marked def of T and B
SCIDsevere combined immunodef
304
Name of test where dilute serum is added to latex coated AHG to detect ag against IgG
RF latex slide test
305
Which test...detects IgM, positive doesn't agg, is a screen, and synovial fluid can be a source
RF factor latex
306
Anti-RNP indicates
Mixed connective tissue disease
307
Ab to proteins in centromere of chromosome indicates...
CREST
308
anti-dsDNA or anti-histone indicates these two diseases...ANA pattern of...
SLEdrug induced lupusHomogenous/diffuse
309
anti-ds DNA highly suggestive of...has a ANA pattern of...
SLEPeripheral/rim
310
Anti-RNA, anti-ENA has what ANA pattern...Associated w/most but not...
speckelednot CREST
311
2 Scleroderma ANA patterns
Nucleolarspeckled
312
connective tissue ANA pattern
nucleoloar
313
RA ANA pattern
speckled
314
2 SLE pattern
peripheral/rim, homogenous/diffuse
315
Anti-I ab seen in present infections with what ogranism
Mycoplasma penumoniae
316
After infection with Myco pneumo, what forms
cold agglutinins
317
Acute/chronic infection HB ag
HBsAg, HBeAg
318
Vaccinated HB ab
anti-HBs
319
early recovery HB...recovery HB...
early: antiHBcIgMrecovered: antiHBc,HBs,HBe
320
HSV that can cause urogenital infections/genital herpes...which one more common in genital herpes
HSV 1,2HSV 2 is 90% of genital herpes
321
HSV more related to sex, mom passing on, genital
HSV 2
322
HSV more related to oral, break in skin
HSV 1
323
HSV 3 is which virus
varicella zoster virus
324
How to type HSV with high specificity
ELIAA
325
Serotype HSV with
DFAdirect fluoresecent ab
326
Cause of chicken pox, spread thru respiratory, spreads to blood, skin and lays dormant in nerves
Varicella zoster virus
327
Latent varicella zoster turns into
Herpes Zoster, shingles
328
Serological test for VZV
ELIAA
329
CMV is diagnosed serologically by detecting
IgM and IgG ab
330
IgM ab with 4 fold increased in IgG indicates what stage of CMV
active
331
IgG, no IgM ab indicates what stage of disease in CMV
inactive
332
Which virus attacks monos/grans/lymphs/episis spread by STI, tranplant tissue, thru placenta
CMV
333
Why is indirect immunofluorescence not a great test for CMV
Has false positives
334
Screening test for immunity to rubella
IgG ab
335
Serological test for rubella, VZV, HSV, and T.gondii
ELIAAenzyme linked immunosorbent assay
336
Serological test for T.gondii is called
ELIAAIgG, IgE
337
Mantoux skin/TB test type of hypersensitivity
Type 4 delayed
338
Type III rxn due to
immune complexes
339
Type II due to
antibody, transfusion, AIHA
340
Type I due to
anaphylactic
341
Ataxia telangiectasia
Louis bargenetic, nervous, immuneataxia
342
Brutons aggamaglobulinemia
sex linked immunodef, absense of plasma cells thus lack of ab made
343
Tcell subset enumeration by flow cytometry can be used in what syndrome
DiGeorgethey have no thymus, tcell def
344
West nile caused by
arbovirus, bite from mosquito (female culex) that feed on birds
345
Virus that Can attach immune cells, can make BBB more impermeable
WNV
346
Serologic method for WNV
IgM ab
347
Giardia common in
water, water parks, vegetables
348
Diagnositc forms of Giardia
in fecesinfective is cysttroph
349
Diagnosis Giardia thru 3 ways
fecal ag test, EIA/direct IFAexamine stool cyst/trophbiopsy troph
350
Lyme diease caused by vector/organism
ticks, Borrelia
351
2 step testing Serological testing for Lyme
1.)EIA2.)Western blot
352
Tick that spreads B.Burgdorferi
Ixodes tick, deer
353
Which Borrelia is in US and causes lyme disease
B.Burgdorferi
354
Serological diagnosis of Lyme
ELISA
355
Crytosporidium parvum infectious stage
sporulated oocyst
356
How is C.parvum transmitted
oocyst is ingested from fecal contam food etcdiarrhea, AIDs
357
Testing for C.parvum
PCR, Antigen, NAATStool not so sensitive, acid fast stain
358
Cryptococus
soil, pidgeon droppingsinhalationnarrow based buddingindia ink, halos formlatex agg test for ag PCAAIDs,lung infections, meningitis
359
Process tags foreign pathogens to be eliminated by phagocytosis
opsonization
360
process that cells takes in fluid along with dissolved small molecules
pinocytosis
361
process where person becomes protected against a disease thru vaccination
immunization
362
plasma glycoprotein that activates the complement system of the innate immune system
properdin
363
enzyme that catalyzes the destruction of cell walls of certain bacteria
lysozymes
364
signaling protein made and released by host cells in response to presence of several viruss
interferon
365
substances that stimulate cellular locomotion/migration
chemotactic factors
366
3 types of phagocytes in innate immunity that ingest/destroy damaged cells/bacteria in antigen independent fashion and all are from myeloid
macrophages (tissue monos)Neutrophils/PMNsDendritic cells (DCs): are antigen-presenting cells that capture, process, and present antigens to lymphocytes to initiate and regulate the adaptive immune response.
367
complement and acute phase reactants are part of the
innate immune system
368
In adaptive immunity, dendritic cells act as
APCengulf and present to B/T cells
369
Which 3 classes of hypersensitivity are involved in humoral immunity of adaptive system
IIIIII
370
Immediate, IgE hypersensitivity
I
371
Immune complex hypersensitivity
III
372
ADCC, complement hypersensitivity
II
373
An antigen that ellicit a response from an organisms adaptive immune system
immunogen
374
ability of agent to elicit a immune response
immunogenicity
375
enhances immune response
adjuvant
376
this is recognized by the immune system
epitope
377
can combine to larger carrier to elicit immune/doen't elicit on its own; smaller molecules that are antigenic but can't be immunogenic unless bound to larger molecule such as a protein
hapten
378
vaccination is a type of
artifical active immunity
379
two organs that respond to circulating antigens by filtering/producing lymphs and plasma cells
lymph nodes and spleen
380
T cells differentiate/are dependent in the...B cells differentiate in the...
T cells...thymusB cells..bone marrow
381
Main function of Thelper...Two other functions..
-activate Bcells to secrete antibody-help macrophages destroy/ingest-activate cytotoxic Tcells
382
Ab production turned off by
Suppressor T cells
383
Small polypeptides given off by Tcells that regulate function of phagocytic cells
lymphokines
384
T cell that specificially kills tumor/virally infected cells
cytotoxic T cells, CD8
385
effector lymphs that nonspecifically destroy infected cells/cancer that don't need previous exposure, part of innate
NK
386
Two types of T helper cells
TH1TH2
387
which T helper activates macrophages
TH1
388
which T helper activates B to make antibodies
TH2
389
Which T cell marker recognizes MHC 1 which is on most cells
CD8
390
Which T cell marker recognizes MHC 2 which are APC
CD4
391
Cells of innate that are antigen presenting
dendritic
392
Foreign body or molecule that will bind to specific antibody or T cells
antigen
393
The principal function of the... is to present antigen to T cells to discriminate between self (our cells and tissues) and nonself (the invaders or modified self).
MHC
394
Another name for epitope
determinant
395
reactive sites of an antigen
epitope/determinant
396
antibody whose production did not induce
heterologous antigen
397
Most potent antigen
protein
398
The 5 types of immunoglobulins are distinguished by their...And is called ... ...which determines their antibody class
constant region of heavy chainantigenic variation
399
Term when soluble antigen and soluble antibody form insoluble
precipitin
400
Best precipitin immunoglobulin
IgG
401
Term where one antibody binds many antigens
agglutinin
402
Best agglutinin immunoglobulin
IgM
403
When symptoms start to disappear and return to normal its called
covalescence
404
Immunoglobulin in convalescence phase
IgG
405
IgG has how many subclasses
4
406
Ig M and A have how many subclasses
2
407
Two immunoglobulins with J chains
IgM,IgA
408
Immunglobulin thought to function as antigentic receptor site on B cell surface
IgMIgM is the first class of immunoglobulin made by B cells as they mature, and it is the form most commonly present as the antigen receptor on the B-cell surface.
409
Immunoglobulins in order of decreasing concentration
G>A>M>D>E
410
Immunoglobulin has ...light chains and ...heavy chains
2,2
411
Which part of immunoglobulin binds to antigen
variable region
412
Which part has the disulfide bridge
constant region
413
proteolytic enzyme that fragments IgG into 3 fragments
papain
414
Fragment termed the antigen binding fragment after cleaved by papain
Fab
415
F(ab)2 is cleaved by
pepsin
416
Fc is which fragment of the ab molecule
crystallizable
417
Hinge region is between
CH1 and CH2
418
3 functions of complement
inflammationmediates ag/ab reactionsdefends against bacteria viruses
419
small peptide that is formed during complement activation causing increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle, release of histamine from mast cells
anaphylatoxin
420
Plasma proteins normally in circulation that are heat labile and designated by letters and numbers
complement
421
Complement component in highest concentration in serum in both classical and alternative pathways
C3
422
All 3 pathways generate protease C3 convertase which binds to pathogen and generates......is the middle man, binds to C3 convertase to form C5 convertase; activates MAC
C3b
423
Ultimate goal of MAC/complement activation
cell lysis
424
3 things that affect ag-ab binding1 that doens't affect
ph, temp, incubation timeenzyme concentration not part of it
425
Pathway that binds to pathogen surface, C3/B/D/properdin, MAC and cell lysis
alternate
426
Pathway that binds mannose on pathogen, immune complexes, opsonizes
MB-Lectin
427
Pathway that is ag-ab, starts with C1q then goes to 4,2,3; involves C5a; inflammation, chemotaxis, anaphlatoxin
classical
428
Place where optimal precipitation occures, forms lattice;most ab is precipitated by the least of amt of ag
zone of equivalence
429
Precipitation can be converted to agglutination by increasing the size of the antigen (may be by adding beads etc and getting it to visibly agglutinate)
indirect agglutinationas opposed to direct where the antigen can agglutinate without adding anything
430
Movement of ag or ab to make ag-ab complexes in semi solid media
immuno-diffusiondiffusion=movement
431
Ag and ab BOTH free to move toward each other to form a precipitate
2 D diffusion
432
Ab added to center well, PT sera/stds in weels around center and diffusion results in bands of precipitation.Identity of ab associated with autoimmune disorders
double diffusion/ouchterlony
433
Gull wing formation occurs when an abnormal protein is electrophoretically displaced from the normal position in what method
CIEcountercurrent immunoelectrophoresis
434
Heavy and light chains in gammopathies and Bence Jones protein in urine in this method
immuno-electrophoresis
435
Immunoassay type requires step to separate bound from free label/wash
heterogenous
436
Immunoassay that doesn't require a wash step
homogenous
437
Electrophoresis+immunoprecipitation:After electrophoresis, this method applies antiserum directly to a plate w/strips of agar; antisera added, ag-ab precipitate, wash, stainused for monoclonal gammopathies
immuno-fixation
438
EMIT is used for urine drugs of abuse where free drug binds to antibody blocking active site; enzyme activity=amt free drug; type of immunoassay is
homogenous
439
Type of assay where it's noncompetitive, heterogenous;solid phase wells/ELISA plates/beads;activity/absorbance of detection molecule directly proportional to amount of antigen
sandwich immunoassay
440
Energy source for fluorescence microscopes
mercury vapor lamp
441
Fluorochrome used to stain tissue/culture and id microbes with exceedingly bright fluorescence
biotin-avidin
442
In ELISA, what is attached to the solid phase...ab/ag of unknown sample is added, ab specific for ag w/label is added and then washed
ab or ag
443
In ELISA AHG is conjugated with...
horseradish peroxidase
444
Two systems in complement fixation
Test: antibody in serumIndicator: SRBC/antiSheep hemolysin
445
Indicator in complement fixation
SRBC which are sensitized by anti sheep hemolysin
446
When checking for anticomplementary factors when using controls for complement fixation there will be...
hemolysis=neg test
447
Positive control in complement fixation will show..
no hemolysis
448
Sydrome with tear/salivary glands affected, lymphocytic infiltration; can get bcell lymphoma
Sjogrens
449
autoantibodies SSA,SSB seen in
sjogrens synydrome(SS)
450
Condition that can turn into B cell lymphoma
Sjogrens syndrome
451
Progressive systemic sclerosis also called
scleroderma
452
SCL-70 antibodies seen in
SCLeroderma
453
mulitisystem disease, rashes, renal; malar rash (butterfly)
SLEsystemic lupus erthyematosis
454
SLE has ....and a ....ana pattern.
dsDNA, homogenous
455
CREST symtoms seen in
limited sclerosis
456
centromere ANA seen in
limited CREST
457
ab to RNP only seen in
mixed connective tissue
458
In Rhematoid arthritis, the antibody is Ig... against the Fc portion of Ig...
IgM against Fc of IgG
459
anti-CCP
cyclic citrullinated peptide
460
anti CCP seen in
RA
461
Screen for ANA..follow up...
ELISAIFA (indirect immunofluorescence)
462
In IFA, what cells are used in the interphase
Hep2 cells
463
ANA pattern with even staining of dsDNA...indicative of...
homogenous, SLE/lupus
464
ANA pattern with nucleoli staining, RNA
Nucleolar
465
ANA pattern with SSA, SSB
speckled
466
ANA pattern with dots, CREST
centromere
467
Thyroid disease with autoantibodies against thyroid
Hashimotos
468
autoantibody in hashimoto
Tg-ab thyroglobulin
469
Thyroid disease with stimulating and blocking ab against TSH receptor
Graves
470
3 Antibodies against TSH-R
TSI, TRab, TSH-R ab
471
Distinguish Brutons agammaglobuneia versus transient hypoagammaglobunemia
absense of mature CD19B cells
472
Xlinked, males immunodef dealing with CD19 B cells
brutons agammaglobulinemia
473
Leukemia versus lymphoma
leukemia blood, lymphoma tissue
474
Two conditions from sequalea of S.pyogens infection
rheutmatic feveracute glomerlonephretitis
475
syphillis Stage with lesion/chancre
primary
476
syphillis stage thats contagious
secondary
477
syphillis stage thats noninfectious
latent
478
syphillis stage with scarring, CNS invovlement
late
479
Nontreponemal tests for...Treponemal tests for...
cardilipinsproteins of T.pallidum
480
In EBV, presence of antiVCA and EA indicate
recent infection
481
In EBV, presence of only EBNA indicates
past infection
482
Two parasites water borne, diarhea
cryptosporidium, Giardia
483
Syphillis nontreponemal antigen and antibody produced to it
cardiolipin=agreagin=ab
484
cardiolipin and lecithin used in what test
VDRL
485
How often are the needles used to deliver VDRL antigen checked and the stability of the VDRL antigen suspension checked...how many drops for antigen needle qualitative VDRL...how many drops for saline needle quantitative VDRL...
dailyantigen qualitative 60drops/mLsaline quantitative 100drops/mL
486
Nontreponemal:cardiolipin,lethicinheat inactivation (to destroy complement)CSF
VDRL
487
Nontreponemalcardiolipin,Plastic coated cards
RPR
488
Initial time/temp to heat inactivate VDRL...Reheat time/temp to heat inactivate VDRL...
initial 30min @56Creheat 10min @56C
489
VDRL:serum:antigen...small clumps, many free particle interp...titer reactive/weak reactive perform...report quant as...
3:1 more serum-small clumps/many free: weakly reactive-titer reactive/weak perform quantitative-quantitation titer is highest dilution giving reactive result
490
RPR antigen needle drops...RPR rotated at...for...
60 drops/mL100rpm for 8 mins
491
Falso pos not caused by syphilis seen in
nontreponemal testing
492
antistreptolysin O (ASO) measures
ab to streptolysin O
493
antistreptolysin O slide test uses/postive is..antistreoptolysin O tube test uses/pos is...
slide: agglutinationtube: no hemolysis
494
in antistreptolysin O tube test, a positive test is...measured in...
positive is no hemolysislast tube with no hemolysis in Todd units=neutralizing ab present
495
classic antistreptolysin O test the reagent is destroyed by...
destroyed by oxygen
496
Streptoccocal extracellular product that dissolves fibrin clots
streptokinase
497
Heterophil ab test screens for...Reported as...
EBV,IMhighest dilution w/agglutination
498
Paul Bunnell heterophil ab test uses
SRBCsthat agglutinate with heterohile ab from IM
499
Heterogenic antigen on tissue/organs(kidney) of guinea pig
Forssman antigen
500
What are absorbed by guinea pig kidney antigen
Forssman antibodies
