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immuno1.21.24 Flashcards

1
Q

Person makes ab, immunized/infection, memoryie. rubella immunization

A

active immunity

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2
Q

ab transferred to, no memoryie. neonatal syphilitic IgG ab titer

A

passive immunity

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3
Q

1st line, immediatenonspecific, no memoryskin,acid,PMNs, NK

A

Natural, innate

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4
Q

Takes timespecific, memoryT/B cells (cytokines,ab)

A

Adaptive, acquired,anamnastic

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5
Q

Two parts to adaptive, acquired immunity

A

cellular, humoral

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6
Q

Kind of immunity…viral,fungal, intracellulartcell/lymphokinestype 4 delayed

A

cellular

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7
Q

type of immunitybacteria,phagocytosis,extracellulartype 1(immediate)type 2(ADCC,complement)type 3 immune complex

A

humoral

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8
Q

4 things that make antigens more immunogenic

A

largecomplexprotein/polysaccharideforeign

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9
Q

4 subclasses of IgG

A

IgG 1,2,3,4

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10
Q

Immunoglobulin with highest concentration

A

IgG

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11
Q

Concen immunoglobulins high to low

A

G>A>M>D>E

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12
Q

Largest antibody

A

IgM

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13
Q

Pentamer, Jchain, fixes complement the best,1st to appear in neonates

A

igM

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14
Q

Immunoglobulin on mature cells

A

IgD

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15
Q

Immunoglobulin type 1 hypersensitivity, histamines

A

IgE

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16
Q

Monoclonal ab made by

A

immunizing mousecombining spleen cells w/myeloma cells

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17
Q

Hybridoma

A

plasma cell fused w/myeloma cells,make monoclonal abs

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18
Q

Most circulating lymphoid cells are… and are…%

A

Tcells, 80%

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19
Q

5 T cell surface markers

A

CD…2,3,4, 8,25

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20
Q

CD4 surface markers are… and release…

A

T helper, cytokines

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21
Q

CD3 surface markers are

A

associated w/TCR

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22
Q

CD2 surface markers

A

rosette w/SRBCs

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23
Q

2 Tcell surface markers that are regulatory cells that suppress immune response

A

CD4,25

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24
Q

CD8 is

A

cytotoxic

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25
Q

3 surface markers on B cells

A

CD 19,20,21

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26
Q

2 markers for NK cells

A

CD 16,56

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27
Q

cells that nonspecifically kill virus infected and tumor cells

A

NK

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28
Q

Normal T:B cell ratio

A

8:1

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29
Q

Normal T helper:Tcyto ratio

A

2:1

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30
Q

AIDs T helper:Tcyto

A

1:2

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31
Q

which pathway initiated by immune complexes (IgG/IgM)

A

classical

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32
Q

What consists of 21 proteins that controls inflammation, activates phagocytosis, opsonizesEnhances ability of antibody, phagocytic cells to clear microbes/damaged cells, promotes inflammation and attack pathogen cell membrane

A

complement

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33
Q

In complement what is the major chemotatic agent

A

C5a

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34
Q

classical complement proteins and order of binding

A

C: 1,4,2,3

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35
Q

Most abundant complement protein in both pathways

A

C3

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36
Q

Alternative complement is activated by

A

lipopolysaccharides, polysaccharidesPathogen surface

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37
Q

Proteins involved in alternative pathway

A

C3Factors B/D, H/IProperdin

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38
Q

complement proteins of MAC

A

C56789

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39
Q

Name of soluble ag+ab forms lattice and visibe precipitate forms

A

precipitation

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40
Q

Double diffusion(ouchterlony),Single diffusion (radial),Immunoelectrophoresis,Immunofixation All are what kinds of rxns

A

precipitation

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41
Q

antigen excess is called

A

postzone

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42
Q

antibody excess is called

A

prozone

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43
Q

IgE mediated, histamine, mast cell activation (Bee sting,hay fever,asthma) all are what type of hypersensitivity rxns

A

Type 1, anaphylatic, immediate

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44
Q

Complement mediated cytolysis initiated by ag-abTransfusion rxn,AIHA, Hashimoto, Goodpasture all are what type of hypersensitivity rxn

A

Type 2, ab-dependent cytotoxicity

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45
Q

IgG at soluble ag, immune complexes damage tissueRA, SLE, serum sickness all are what type hypersensitivity

A

Type 3 immunie complex

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46
Q

Type 2 is

A

antibody dependent

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47
Q

Type 1 is

A

anaphylatic, immediate

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48
Q

Type 3 is

A

immune complex

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49
Q

Type 4 is

A

delayed

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50
Q

Ag specific Tcell:TB skin tests, contact dermatitis, poison ivy, GVHD all are what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type 4 delayed

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51
Q

Two skin tests for allergy

A

RIST,RAST

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52
Q

What test for IgE

A

ELISA

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53
Q

Eos/IgE in what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type 1, anaphylatic, immediate

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54
Q

natural active immunity seen in

A

infection

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55
Q

natural passive immunity seen in

A

maternal ab

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56
Q

2 primary lymphoid organs

A

thymusbone marrow

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57
Q

What type of immunity with skin,mucous,BF

A

natural

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58
Q

what kind of immunity with vaccines

A

specific immunityartificial active

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59
Q

adaptive immunity w/ab is called

A

humoral immunity

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60
Q

immunity inside infected cells

A

cell mediated

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61
Q

Plasma protein that activates complement system of innate

A

properdin

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62
Q

enzyme that catalyzes destruction of cell walls of bacteria

A

lysozyme

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63
Q

signal protein release by cells due to virus

A

interferon

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64
Q

Subtance that stimulates cell locomotion/migration

A

chemotactic factor

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65
Q

Cell that kills tumor cells nonspecifically

A

NK

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66
Q

Have receptors that are specific for a tumor/microbe

A

cytotoxic cells

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67
Q

Combines to larger carriers to elicit immune response but doesn’t elicit on its own

A

hapten

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68
Q

Enhances immune response

A

adjuvant

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69
Q

molecule that can elicit an immune response

A

immunogen

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70
Q

3 secondary lymphoid organs

A

spleen,tonsils,lymph nodes

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71
Q

Which 2nd lymph organs respond to antigens by making lymphocytes and plasma cells

A

lymph nodes contain WBCSspleen makes WBCs,ab

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72
Q

cell that specifically kills tumor cells/virally infectedneeds exposure

A

T cytotoxic

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73
Q

cell nonspecifically kills tumorinnate/no need exposure

A

NK

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74
Q

Phagocytosis is main function of what cell

A

PMNs

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75
Q

Genes that control expresson of HLA antigens are called

A

MHCmajor histocompatibility complex

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76
Q

3 Class I gene products

A

HLAA,B,C

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77
Q

5 Class II gene productspresent antigen outside of the cell of T lymphs

A

HLAD-M,O,P,Q,R

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78
Q

Ab increases during convalescence phase(symptoms disappear, return to normal)

A

IgG

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79
Q

Ig…best precipitinsoluble ag/specific ab

A

IgG

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80
Q

Ig..best agglutinin

A

IgM

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81
Q

has 4 subclasses

A

IgG

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82
Q

Ig…dimer

A

IgA

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83
Q

2 Ig…monomer

A

IgG, E

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84
Q

Ig…pentamer

A

IgM

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85
Q

2 Ig have Jchain

A

IgM, A

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86
Q

complement are heat…

A

labile

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87
Q

complement acts as an…and end result of complement is…

A

opsonincell lysis

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88
Q

Which ab bind complement

A

IgG/M

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89
Q

First component to bind to immunoglobulin in recognition phase of complementcan bind bacteria,ab,CRP

A

C1q

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90
Q

Proteases of complement that don’t bind/aren’t active

A

Clr/s

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91
Q

Complement component that is chemotactic and anaphylatoxicMediator of inflammation andis released to recruit phagocytes

A

C5a

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92
Q

Factor B,D and properdin is in what pathway

A

alternate

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93
Q

IgG ab binds to rbc and is reversible is called

A

sensitization

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94
Q

clumping ag w/ab after sensitization is called

A

agglutination (IgM best)

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95
Q

Antigen in agglutination inhibition is…which is bound to

A

Pt serumab reagent

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96
Q

Positive test for aggulutination inhibition

A

no aggglutionationPT has antigen(in serum) and reagent ab is bound to serum/antigen so it can’t react with indicator

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97
Q

Negative test for agglutination inhibition

A

agglutinationPT doesn’t have antigen in serum, and reagent ab isn’t bound thus reacting w/indicator

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98
Q

Two examples of agglutionation inhibition tests

A

hemaggutination inhibition (rubella)latex agglutination inhibition (viruses)

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99
Q

complement fixation positive test is

A

no hemolysisno C available, complement is fixed, not available to combine w/indicator (SRBC coated w/antiSRBC)

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100
Q

complement fixation

A

when complement finds/attaches to antibody-antigen complex

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101
Q

complement fixation negative test

A

hemolysis:no antibody in serum and complement not bound, attaches to indicator/SRBC+antiSRBC and lyse

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102
Q

What type of rxn/test is ab-ag combined in presence of complement to see if hemolysis occursdetects IgM ab w/sheep RBC/antiSRBC/hemolysin

A

complement fixation (CF)

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103
Q

…quantitatively determines the level of an antigen. Antibody is incorporated into liquefied agar and allowed to gel. The antigen is added to small wells and radiates throughout the antibody-containing medium, leaving a precipitate throughout the gel. The amount of diffusion is quantified.

A

radial immunodiffusion (RID)ORsingle immunodiffusion

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104
Q

single immunodiffusion also called

A

radial immunodiffusion (RID)

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105
Q

Rxn where diffusion occurs and a ring of precipitate forms on an agar plate with ab where serum/standards are added

A

Radial immunodiffusion(RID)Single immunodiffusion

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106
Q

Fahey(kinetic) and Mancini(end pt) are what kind of tests

A

RID/immunodiffusion/precipitaition

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107
Q

… … is an agar gel immunodiffusion.It is a special precipitation reaction on gels where antibodies react with specific antigens forming large antigen-antibody complexes which can be observed as a line of the precipitate.In…both the antibody and antigen are allowed to diffuse into the gel.After application of the reactants in their respective compartments, the antigen and the antibody diffuse toward each other in the common gel and a precipitate is formed at the place of equivalence.

A

Double Immuno-diffusion

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108
Q

Another name for double diffusion

A

Ouchterlony

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109
Q

Test used to determine relationship between ag-ab Ab is added around ab well and diffussion occurs with precipitation bandsConcentration and rate of diffusion dictates location of bandsUsed to id ab w/autoimmune disorders

A

double diffusion/ouchterlony

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110
Q

Double diffusion pattern that fuse together is

A

identity

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111
Q

double diffusion pattern that intersect are

A

nonidentity

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112
Q

double diffusion patterns that parially intersect are

A

partial identity

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113
Q

Test where ab-ag diffuse thru agar after serum proteins are electrophoresed on agar

A

immuno-electrophoresis (IEP)

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114
Q

Serum IEP can detect

A

monoclonal gammopathies

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115
Q

urine IEP can dectect

A

Bence Jones protein or free light chains

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116
Q

In this method the sample goes through a complex process called electrophoresis. This process singles out the different proteins in your blood. A dye is used to bind to the proteins and stain them.This method “fixes” certain proteins into place with antibodies and then washes away the others before staining them. On a computer screen, these proteins form a pattern of bands. Peaks and valleys in the bands may mean that you may be making too many or too few of certain proteins. The band pattern is specific for certain diseases.

A

Immunofixation

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117
Q

protein electrophoresis plus immuno-precipitation is called

A

immunofixation

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118
Q

Immunofixation is used to classify

A

monoclonal gammoopathies/determine heavy and light chains

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119
Q

name of test where ab-ag migrate toward each other and forms precipitate

A

countercurrent immunoelectrophoresisCIE

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120
Q

Two examples of RIA, radioimmunoassay

A

RIST, RAST

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121
Q

Which RIA measures total IgE

A

RISTradio-immunosorbent test

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122
Q

which RIA measures IgE to specific allergens

A

RASTradio-allergosorbent test

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123
Q

Which test is a sanwhich tecnique with ab on solidPT serum addedenzyme labeled abenzyme substrate

A

EIA/ELISA enzyme immunoassay

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124
Q

HIV/Serum HcG/hepatitis mreausred by

A

EIA/ELISA

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125
Q

EMIT measuresenzyme multiplied immunoassay

A

small molecules like drugs, hormonesThe enzyme multiplied immunoassay technique (EMIT) is one of the more common drug screening platforms.

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126
Q

Positive EMIT is

A

colorA change in absorbance is measured at 340 nm by a spectrometer In this enzyme immunoassay (EIA), NAD is reduced to NADH when it reacts with the enzyme G6PD.

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127
Q

Negative EMIT is

A

no color

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128
Q

Test where insoluble complexes reflects scattered light

A

nephleometry

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129
Q

FTA-ABS STANDS FOR…TETS FOR…TO…

A

FTA-ABSFluorescent Treponemal Antibody ABS: absorptionpresence of antibodies to Treponema pallidum

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130
Q

Type of immunohistochemistry technique that utilizes fluorophores to visualize various cellular antigens such as proteins.

A

Immunofluorescence (IF)

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131
Q

ANA and FTA-Abs can be tested with

A

immuno-fluorescencefluorescein labeled ab

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132
Q

Positive FPIA

A

reduction of polarized light

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133
Q

negative FPIA

A

increased polarized light

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134
Q

FPIA stands for

A

Fluorescence polarization immunoassay

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135
Q

Time frame to test for infectious disease

A

acute and convalescent specimens 2weeks apart

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136
Q

Clinically sig titer for infectious disease is

A

4-fold or 2 tube rise

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137
Q

Ability of test to detect very small amount of a substancwe

A

sensitivity

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138
Q

ability of test to give positive result if PT has the disease-less false neg

A

sensitivity

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139
Q

ability of test to detect substance without interference from cross reacting substances

A

specificity

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140
Q

ability of test to give neg result if PT does not have disease-less false pos

A

speficity

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141
Q

Name of principle where if person has ab to virus, the virus on the RBCs added will be neutralized and inhibit agglutination

A

hemaaglutination inhibitionAg are on rbcs

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142
Q

a substance in the blood of persons with syphilis responsible for positive serological reactions for syphilis an antibody (such as IgE in humans) that mediates hypersensitive allergic reactions of rapid onset

A

reagin

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143
Q

fusing B lymphs w/a plasma myeloma cell is how you make

A

monoclonal ab

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144
Q

binding strength of single sitesingle antigenic determinent + individual ab

A

affinity

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145
Q

total binding strength, multivalent ag-b

A

avidity

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146
Q

reproducible technique for quantitation of a single protein, and is also applicable in a protein mixture. The quantitation is based on measuring the height of the precipitate peak.

A

one dimensional single electroimmuno-diffusion

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147
Q

one dimensional single electroimmunodiffusion also called

A

rocket electrophoresisLAURELIn rocket immunoelectrophoresis, antigen migrates in an electric field in a layer of agarose containing an appropriate antibody.

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148
Q

fluorochrome that gives minimal false reading and is green

A

fuorescein(isothiocyanate)

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149
Q

fluorochrome gives off red at 580nm

A

tetra-methyl-rhodamine isothicyanate

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150
Q

…tests are an indirect method in that they detect biomarkers that are released during cellular damage that occurs from the syphilis spirochete. …are screening tests, very rapid and relatively simple, but need to be confirmed with…

A

Nontreponemalconfirm with treponemal tests

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151
Q

….tests look for antibodies that are a direct result of the infection thus, IgG, IgM and to a lesser degree IgA.

A

Treponemal

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152
Q

The nontreponemal antigens in syphilis are

A

cardiolipin and lecithin

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153
Q

The VDRL antigens are

A

cardiolipin and lecithin

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154
Q

Nontreponemal antibody

A

reagin

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155
Q

…is a fundamental process utilized to facilitate the aggregation of small particles in a liquid or solution to form larger clusters, known as flocs.

A

Flocculation

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156
Q

VDRL

A

venereal disease research laboratory

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157
Q

Ab-ag rxn in VDRL test is what type

A

flocculationThe VDRL test doesn’t look for the bacteria that cause syphilis. Instead, it checks for the antibodies (reagins) your body makes in response to antigens produced by cells damaged by the bacteria.

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158
Q

Which requires heat inactivation, VDRL or RPR

A

VDRL

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159
Q

In VDRL, each serum sample must be heat-inactivated for…minutes at …prior to testing. If heat-inactivation occurs more than four (4) hours prior to testing, reheat the serum for an additional …minutes at…

A

Heat inactivate for 30 min at 56CIf >4hrs, reheat 10min at 56C

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160
Q

antigens for RPR

A

cardiolipin + charcoalThe rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test uses the same antigen as VDRL, but the antigen is bound to a carbon particle to allow visualization of the reaction without a microscope.

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161
Q

reactive RPR forms

A

black clumps

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162
Q

two nontreponemal tests/reagin tests

A

VDRL/RPR

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163
Q

Reiter strain serves as a …. in FTA-ABSFluorescent Treponemal Antibody ABS: absorption

A

absorbent, removes nonspecific ab

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164
Q

In FTA-ABS, what strain is used with serum after absorbed off

A

NicholsFTA-ABS test system employs nonviable T. pallidum (Nichols strain) cells as a substrate (antigen).

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165
Q

Name of test1.)Absorb ab, Reiter2.)Add Nichols, serum3.)label, fluorescein

A

FTAfluorescent treponemal ab absorption

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166
Q

most sensitive tests for syphillis

A

FTS-ABS and EIisa

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167
Q

MHA-TP

A

Microhemagglutination-Treponema pallidumdetects antibodies

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168
Q

Less likely to be reactive in primary,secondary syphillis in which test

A

MHA-TPMicro agglutination

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169
Q

Test name that detects treponemal abremove nonspecific ab w/sorbent, react serum w/Nichols strain of pallidium, add fluorecein label

A

FTA-ABsfluorescent treponemal ab absorptoin test

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170
Q

Test you add live treponemes to PT serum

A

TPItreponema pallidium immobilization testp

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171
Q

positive TPI

A

treponemes immobilized

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172
Q

MHA-TP used to detect

A

ab to T.pallidium

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173
Q

in MHA TP what is PT serum added to

A

SRBCs sensitized w/T.pallidum

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174
Q

positive MHA TP

A

agglutination, ab

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175
Q

TP-PA uses what kind of particles

A

gellatin

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176
Q

Which microflocculation test is screen for CSF syphillis

A

VDRL

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177
Q

Whici microflocculation test for syphillis does not require heat

A

RPR

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178
Q

Virus that causes infectious mononucleosis

A

EBVepstein barr virus

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179
Q

What does the screen for EBV test for

A

heterophile ab

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180
Q

What is a positive rxn for EBV using the screening rapid diff slide test

A

greater agg in kidney absorbed cells

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181
Q

What are the indicator cells for the EBV screen rapid diff slide test

A

Sheep, RBCs

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182
Q

What is the confirmation test for EBV

A

Tests for ab such as ELISA, CLIA

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183
Q

In CLIA test to confirm EBV, what stage of infection is it when there is a presesnce of IgG/IgM + anti-VCA in absense of anti-EBNA

A

current or recent

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184
Q

anti-VCA IgM/IgGanti-EAanti-EBNA all are antibodies to what virus

A

EBV

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185
Q

Anti-EBNA and IgG anti-VCA w/out IgM anti-VCA indicate what stage of infection of EBV

A

past

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186
Q

Name 5 streptococal ag

A

streptolysin, streptokinaseDNase: deoxyribonuclease BNADaseHyaluronidase

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187
Q

Streptozyme test:Kind of rxn, what it tests for, reagent used

A

hemagglutionationtests for abSRBC

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188
Q

Name of specific neutralizaton test for antibody made in group A strep infection

A

Anti-DNase B test

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189
Q

What is a positve rxn in the anti-DNase B test

A

green color

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190
Q

Test name where strep abs prevent the lysing of group O rbcs by neutralizing

A

Anti-streptolysin O neutralization test

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191
Q

What indicates presence neutralizing ab in the anti-strepolysin O neutralizing test

A

Dilution of last tube shows no hemolysis

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192
Q

Name of reciprocal of dilution of last tube in anti-streptolysin O neutralization test

A

Todd units

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193
Q

Two tests for strep A antigens

A

LFA Molecular testing for DNA

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194
Q

What is used to screen for HIV-1 ab

A

ELISA

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195
Q

2 ways to Confirmation for HIV

A

Western blotNucleic acid testing

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196
Q

Name of retrovirus that attackes CD4 cells

A

HIV-1

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197
Q

Cause of CMV

A

herpes virus

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198
Q

Testing for CMV

A

ELISA

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199
Q

HepB serology involved in acute phase

A

HBsAg, HBeAg

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200
Q

Hep B serology involved in early recovery

A

anti-HBc IgM

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201
Q

Hep B serology involved in recovery, immunity

A

anti-HBc totalanti-HBsanti-HBe

202
Q

Hep A serology recent infection

A

anti-HAV IgM

203
Q

Order of Hepatitis B ag/ab

A

HBsAg, HBeAgantiHBc, antiHBe, antiHBs

204
Q

Paul Bunnell heterophil ab test uses what type of rbc

A

sheep

205
Q

Paul Bunnell heterophil ab used to detect

A

ab from IM

206
Q

Forssman ab are absorbed by what kind of kidney antigen

A

guinea pig

207
Q

Davidsohn diff test uses what kind of rbc

A

sheep and horse

208
Q

Which antigen is the somatic antigen used to determine antigenic grouping of enteric bacteria

A

O

209
Q

which antigen is the flagellar antigen

A

H

210
Q

Widal test tests for what

A

Salmonella typhi

211
Q

An elevated O titer in the Widal test indicates

A

increase in agglutinins to S.typhi

212
Q

Weil-Felix test detects ab to

A

Rickettsia

213
Q

Proteus,OX19-2, agglutination all have to do with what organism

A

rickettsia

214
Q

What kinds of strains are OX19 and OX2 antigens

A

strains of Proteus vulgaris

215
Q

Widal(typhoid) and Weil-Felix (Rikettsial) detect

A

febrile agglutinins

216
Q

Francisella tularensis will cross react with

A

Brucella abortusF.t./B.a.

217
Q

To diagnose aspergillosis, titer must be

A

1:512

218
Q

India Ink is replacing what test…

A

cryptococcal antigen test

219
Q

What inferes w/crytococcal antigen latex agg test

A

RF

220
Q

autoimmune disease where IgM/IgG ab are directed against Fc portion of IgG

A

RA

221
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is RA, what is formed

A

Type 3 immune complexes

222
Q

what does screening test, RF assay for RA detect

A

serum IgM

223
Q

Confirmatory test for RA

A

anti-CCPcyclic citrullinated peptide

224
Q

Screen test for autoimmune dieases

A

ELISA

225
Q

Two tests for ANA are

A

ELISAIIFindirect immunofluorescence

226
Q

Antinuclear antibodies are seen in what conditions

A

SLESjogrensSclerodermaRAMCTD

227
Q

In IIF for ANA what cells are fixed to a slide

A

HEp2 cells

228
Q

Disease where autoab to myelin sheath of nerves/myelin basic protein

A

MS

229
Q

In MS, what kind of bands are in CSF but not in serum

A

oligoclonal IgG

230
Q

Disease name in hyperthyroidism

A

Graves Disease

231
Q

Disease where autoab are directed against TSH receptors (TSH-R)

A

Graves, hyperthyroidismLess TSH means thyroid makes more T3/T4

232
Q

In Graves disease what are TSHs and T3/T4 levels

A

Low TSHIncreased T3/T4

233
Q

TPO…High levels indicate both…

A

TPO: Thyroid peroxidase antibodies (TPOAb)High levels of these antibodies are seen in both Graves and Hashimoto’s

234
Q

TRAb…Sign of…

A

TRAb:Thyrotropin receptor antibodies (TRAb). These antibodies can be a sign of Graves’ disease.

235
Q

TSI…Seen in…

A

The TSI test measures the level of thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI) in your blood. High levels of TSI in the blood can indicate the presence of Graves’ disease

236
Q

TSHR ab…Seen in…

A

Autoantibodies (Ab) against the thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor (TSHR) are frequently found in Graves

237
Q

3 ab elevated in Graves

A

TSHR-ab/TR-AbTSITPO

238
Q

Graves disease symptoms

A

anxiousweight loss goiter

239
Q

Name of disease with hypothyroidism

A

Hashimotos thyroiditis

240
Q

Tg/Tg-Ab…Sign of…

A

Thyroglobulin antibodies (TgAb)Hashimotos thyroiditis

241
Q

Autoab made against thyroglobulinThyroglobulin antibodies (TgAb). High levels of these antibodies are a sign of this disease.thyroglobulin helps make T3/T4, decreased equals less T3/T4

A

Hashimotos thyroiditis

242
Q

In Hashimotos, what are the TSH levels

A

increased TSH

243
Q

In Hashimotos, what ab are present

A

TPOTg/Tg-Ab

244
Q

Symptoms of Hashimotos

A

TiredWeight gainintolerance to cold

245
Q

A type of cancer that develops in the lymph system and has Reed-Sternberg cells

A

Hodgkin lymphoma, also called Hodgkin disease

246
Q

IMBurkitts, Hodgkin’sCarcinomaLymproloferative all associated with

A

EBV

247
Q

is an aggressive non-Hodgkin B-cell lymphoma, worse prognosis than Hodgkins

A

Burkitt lymphoma (BL)

248
Q

Lab finding in IM

A

Lymphocytosis>50%20% atypicalHetetophile abAb EBV ag

249
Q

Name of ab formed against Forssman ag (discovered in guinea pig tissue)

A

Forssman hetetophile ab

250
Q

IM hetetophile ab are usually Ig…Can react to which 3 rbcs…Absorbed by…Not absorbed by…

A

IgMHorse, sheep, ox rbcsAdsorbed by beef rbcNot adsorbed by guinea pig kidney cells

251
Q

Name of test screens for hetetophile ab using titer of abIncubated with sheep RBCHighest dilution of agglutination

A

Paul Bunnell test

252
Q

Paul Bunnell test titer needs to be

A

> 56

253
Q

Performed when Paul Bunnell is >56

A

Davidsohn diff test

254
Q

True false, Paul Bunnell diff between hetetophile ab

A

False

255
Q

Test that diff hetetophile ab, uses sheep RBC

A

Davidsohn diff test

256
Q

Sig titer in Davidsohn

A

> 224

257
Q

Which cells are used in Davidsohn diff test…

A

Guinea pig kidney cellsBeef rbc

258
Q

Which cells removes Forssman and serum sickness ab..Which cells are agglutinated by them…

A

Removed by Guinea pig kidney cellsAgglutination by beef

259
Q

Which cells remove serum sickness and IM ab…Which cells agglutinate them

A

Beef rbcs remove IM abGuinea agglutinate IM ab

260
Q

Ab adsorbed by only guinea kidney cells not beef rbc

A

Forssman abThus not able to agg the guinea kidney

261
Q

Ab adsorbed by both guinea and beef

A

Serum sickness, thus not able to agg either

262
Q

Ab adsorbed by only beef not guinea

A

IM, thus not able to agg beef

263
Q

Adsorption Fossman, Serum, IM

A

Adsorbed on…Fossman: guinea pig kidneyIM: beef rbcSerum sickness: both

264
Q

Agglutination: Fossman, Serum, IM

A

Agglutination Fossman: beef rbcIM: guinea pigSerum sickness: none

265
Q

2 EBV antigens in early acute phase

A

EAR, EAD (restricted,nuclear)(diffuse, nucleus, cytoplasm)

266
Q

2 EBV late phase antigens

A

VCA (viral capsid)MA (membrane)

267
Q

2 latent phase antigens EBV

A

EBNALMP

268
Q

PT sero neg, lacks ab to VCA they are

A

Susceptible to EBV

269
Q

Has IgM to VCA, EBNA absentHigh IgG VCA is what stage of infection

A

Primary infection

270
Q

Ab to EBNA, increased EA ab what stage of EBV

A

Reactivation

271
Q

Ab to VCA and EBNA what stage

A

Past infection

272
Q

E-rosette test used to enermurate

A

T lymphs

273
Q

Disease that is hypersensitive to gliadin/gluten

A

Celiac disease/sprue

274
Q

4 ab to test for celieac

A

tTG IgA,GEMA-IgAAGA-IgG

275
Q

2 HLA markers in all celiac

A

HLA-DQ 2, 8

276
Q

Disease where autoab directed against TSH receptors

A

Graves

277
Q

Disease where autoab directed against basement mebrane of kidney and lungs

A

Goodpastures

278
Q

Disease where autoab directed against thyroglobulin

A

Hashimotos

279
Q

Disease where autoab directed against myeline sheath of nerves or myelin basic protein

A

MS

280
Q

Disease where autoab directed against acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular joints

A

MGmyasthenia gravis

281
Q

Disease where IgM autoab directed against Fc portion of IgG

A

RA

282
Q

Disease where autoab directed against salivary duct,tear duct

A

SJogrens syndrome

283
Q

ANA centromere pattern associated with

A

CREST

284
Q

Nucleolar ANA pattern associated with these two diseases

A

SclerodermaCTD connective tissue

285
Q

SLE ANA patterns

A

Peripheral(rim)Homogenous(diffuse)

286
Q

What is used in diagnosing, determining progression, choosing drugs, monitoring diseases

A

tumor markers

287
Q

Tumor markers tested using

A

ELISA

288
Q

AFP, Alpha Fetoprotein associated with these 3 cancers/organs

A

liverovary, testes

289
Q

CEA, carcinoembryonic ag associated with these three cancer/organs

A

colonbreastlung

290
Q

CA 15-3 associated with this cancer/organ

A

breast

291
Q

4 Breast tumor markers

A

CA-15-3BR 27-29CEAEstsrogen/Progesterone receptors

292
Q

2 ovary tumor markers

A

CA 125AFP

293
Q

CA 125 what organ/tumor marker

A

ovary

294
Q

CA 19-9 what organ/tumor marker

A

pancreas

295
Q

2 testes/testicular markers1 prostate

A

HCGAFPPSA

296
Q

Beta-2 microglobulin marker for

A

MM, CLL

297
Q

Disease with ineffective phagocytosis, defect in neutrophils thus recurrent bacterial infections

A

CGDchronic granulomatous

298
Q

Disease with impaired neutrophil function

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

299
Q

T cell deficiency disease, no thymus

A

DiGeorge’s syndrome

300
Q

DiGeorge has no thymus

A

…

301
Q

Decreased TH, TH/TS ratio/Tcell proliferation

A

HIV

302
Q

Partial combined immunodef, thrombocytopenia at birth

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

303
Q

Complete or marked def of T and B

A

SCIDsevere combined immunodef

304
Q

Name of test where dilute serum is added to latex coated AHG to detect ag against IgG

A

RF latex slide test

305
Q

Which test…detects IgM, positive doesn’t agg, is a screen, and synovial fluid can be a source

A

RF factor latex

306
Q

Anti-RNP indicates

A

Mixed connective tissue disease

307
Q

Ab to proteins in centromere of chromosome indicates…

A

CREST

308
Q

anti-dsDNA or anti-histone indicates these two diseases…ANA pattern of…

A

SLEdrug induced lupusHomogenous/diffuse

309
Q

anti-ds DNA highly suggestive of…has a ANA pattern of…

A

SLEPeripheral/rim

310
Q

Anti-RNA, anti-ENA has what ANA pattern…Associated w/most but not…

A

speckelednot CREST

311
Q

2 Scleroderma ANA patterns

A

Nucleolarspeckled

312
Q

connective tissue ANA pattern

A

nucleoloar

313
Q

RA ANA pattern

A

speckled

314
Q

2 SLE pattern

A

peripheral/rim, homogenous/diffuse

315
Q

Anti-I ab seen in present infections with what ogranism

A

Mycoplasma penumoniae

316
Q

After infection with Myco pneumo, what forms

A

cold agglutinins

317
Q

Acute/chronic infection HB ag

A

HBsAg, HBeAg

318
Q

Vaccinated HB ab

A

anti-HBs

319
Q

early recovery HB…recovery HB…

A

early: antiHBcIgMrecovered: antiHBc,HBs,HBe

320
Q

HSV that can cause urogenital infections/genital herpes…which one more common in genital herpes

A

HSV 1,2HSV 2 is 90% of genital herpes

321
Q

HSV more related to sex, mom passing on, genital

A

HSV 2

322
Q

HSV more related to oral, break in skin

A

HSV 1

323
Q

HSV 3 is which virus

A

varicella zoster virus

324
Q

How to type HSV with high specificity

A

ELIAA

325
Q

Serotype HSV with

A

DFAdirect fluoresecent ab

326
Q

Cause of chicken pox, spread thru respiratory, spreads to blood, skin and lays dormant in nerves

A

Varicella zoster virus

327
Q

Latent varicella zoster turns into

A

Herpes Zoster, shingles

328
Q

Serological test for VZV

A

ELIAA

329
Q

CMV is diagnosed serologically by detecting

A

IgM and IgG ab

330
Q

IgM ab with 4 fold increased in IgG indicates what stage of CMV

A

active

331
Q

IgG, no IgM ab indicates what stage of disease in CMV

A

inactive

332
Q

Which virus attacks monos/grans/lymphs/episis spread by STI, tranplant tissue, thru placenta

A

CMV

333
Q

Why is indirect immunofluorescence not a great test for CMV

A

Has false positives

334
Q

Screening test for immunity to rubella

A

IgG ab

335
Q

Serological test for rubella, VZV, HSV, and T.gondii

A

ELIAAenzyme linked immunosorbent assay

336
Q

Serological test for T.gondii is called

A

ELIAAIgG, IgE

337
Q

Mantoux skin/TB test type of hypersensitivity

A

Type 4 delayed

338
Q

Type III rxn due to

A

immune complexes

339
Q

Type II due to

A

antibody, transfusion, AIHA

340
Q

Type I due to

A

anaphylactic

341
Q

Ataxia telangiectasia

A

Louis bargenetic, nervous, immuneataxia

342
Q

Brutons aggamaglobulinemia

A

sex linked immunodef, absense of plasma cells thus lack of ab made

343
Q

Tcell subset enumeration by flow cytometry can be used in what syndrome

A

DiGeorgethey have no thymus, tcell def

344
Q

West nile caused by

A

arbovirus, bite from mosquito (female culex) that feed on birds

345
Q

Virus that Can attach immune cells, can make BBB more impermeable

A

WNV

346
Q

Serologic method for WNV

A

IgM ab

347
Q

Giardia common in

A

water, water parks, vegetables

348
Q

Diagnositc forms of Giardia

A

in fecesinfective is cysttroph

349
Q

Diagnosis Giardia thru 3 ways

A

fecal ag test, EIA/direct IFAexamine stool cyst/trophbiopsy troph

350
Q

Lyme diease caused by vector/organism

A

ticks, Borrelia

351
Q

2 step testing Serological testing for Lyme

A

1.)EIA2.)Western blot

352
Q

Tick that spreads B.Burgdorferi

A

Ixodes tick, deer

353
Q

Which Borrelia is in US and causes lyme disease

A

B.Burgdorferi

354
Q

Serological diagnosis of Lyme

A

ELISA

355
Q

Crytosporidium parvum infectious stage

A

sporulated oocyst

356
Q

How is C.parvum transmitted

A

oocyst is ingested from fecal contam food etcdiarrhea, AIDs

357
Q

Testing for C.parvum

A

PCR, Antigen, NAATStool not so sensitive, acid fast stain

358
Q

Cryptococus

A

soil, pidgeon droppingsinhalationnarrow based buddingindia ink, halos formlatex agg test for ag PCAAIDs,lung infections, meningitis

359
Q

Process tags foreign pathogens to be eliminated by phagocytosis

A

opsonization

360
Q

process that cells takes in fluid along with dissolved small molecules

A

pinocytosis

361
Q

process where person becomes protected against a disease thru vaccination

A

immunization

362
Q

plasma glycoprotein that activates the complement system of the innate immune system

A

properdin

363
Q

enzyme that catalyzes the destruction of cell walls of certain bacteria

A

lysozymes

364
Q

signaling protein made and released by host cells in response to presence of several viruss

A

interferon

365
Q

substances that stimulate cellular locomotion/migration

A

chemotactic factors

366
Q

3 types of phagocytes in innate immunity that ingest/destroy damaged cells/bacteria in antigen independent fashion and all are from myeloid

A

macrophages (tissue monos)Neutrophils/PMNsDendritic cells (DCs): are antigen-presenting cells that capture, process, and present antigens to lymphocytes to initiate and regulate the adaptive immune response.

367
Q

complement and acute phase reactants are part of the

A

innate immune system

368
Q

In adaptive immunity, dendritic cells act as

A

APCengulf and present to B/T cells

369
Q

Which 3 classes of hypersensitivity are involved in humoral immunity of adaptive system

A

IIIIII

370
Q

Immediate, IgE hypersensitivity

A

I

371
Q

Immune complex hypersensitivity

A

III

372
Q

ADCC, complement hypersensitivity

A

II

373
Q

An antigen that ellicit a response from an organisms adaptive immune system

A

immunogen

374
Q

ability of agent to elicit a immune response

A

immunogenicity

375
Q

enhances immune response

A

adjuvant

376
Q

this is recognized by the immune system

A

epitope

377
Q

can combine to larger carrier to elicit immune/doen’t elicit on its own; smaller molecules that are antigenic but can’t be immunogenic unless bound to larger molecule such as a protein

A

hapten

378
Q

vaccination is a type of

A

artifical active immunity

379
Q

two organs that respond to circulating antigens by filtering/producing lymphs and plasma cells

A

lymph nodes and spleen

380
Q

T cells differentiate/are dependent in the…B cells differentiate in the…

A

T cells…thymusB cells..bone marrow

381
Q

Main function of Thelper…Two other functions..

A

-activate Bcells to secrete antibody-help macrophages destroy/ingest-activate cytotoxic Tcells

382
Q

Ab production turned off by

A

Suppressor T cells

383
Q

Small polypeptides given off by Tcells that regulate function of phagocytic cells

A

lymphokines

384
Q

T cell that specificially kills tumor/virally infected cells

A

cytotoxic T cells, CD8

385
Q

effector lymphs that nonspecifically destroy infected cells/cancer that don’t need previous exposure, part of innate

A

NK

386
Q

Two types of T helper cells

A

TH1TH2

387
Q

which T helper activates macrophages

A

TH1

388
Q

which T helper activates B to make antibodies

A

TH2

389
Q

Which T cell marker recognizes MHC 1 which is on most cells

A

CD8

390
Q

Which T cell marker recognizes MHC 2 which are APC

A

CD4

391
Q

Cells of innate that are antigen presenting

A

dendritic

392
Q

Foreign body or molecule that will bind to specific antibody or T cells

A

antigen

393
Q

The principal function of the… is to present antigen to T cells to discriminate between self (our cells and tissues) and nonself (the invaders or modified self).

A

MHC

394
Q

Another name for epitope

A

determinant

395
Q

reactive sites of an antigen

A

epitope/determinant

396
Q

antibody whose production did not induce

A

heterologous antigen

397
Q

Most potent antigen

A

protein

398
Q

The 5 types of immunoglobulins are distinguished by their…And is called … …which determines their antibody class

A

constant region of heavy chainantigenic variation

399
Q

Term when soluble antigen and soluble antibody form insoluble

A

precipitin

400
Q

Best precipitin immunoglobulin

A

IgG

401
Q

Term where one antibody binds many antigens

A

agglutinin

402
Q

Best agglutinin immunoglobulin

A

IgM

403
Q

When symptoms start to disappear and return to normal its called

A

covalescence

404
Q

Immunoglobulin in convalescence phase

A

IgG

405
Q

IgG has how many subclasses

A

4

406
Q

Ig M and A have how many subclasses

A

2

407
Q

Two immunoglobulins with J chains

A

IgM,IgA

408
Q

Immunglobulin thought to function as antigentic receptor site on B cell surface

A

IgMIgM is the first class of immunoglobulin made by B cells as they mature, and it is the form most commonly present as the antigen receptor on the B-cell surface.

409
Q

Immunoglobulins in order of decreasing concentration

A

G>A>M>D>E

410
Q

Immunoglobulin has …light chains and …heavy chains

A

2,2

411
Q

Which part of immunoglobulin binds to antigen

A

variable region

412
Q

Which part has the disulfide bridge

A

constant region

413
Q

proteolytic enzyme that fragments IgG into 3 fragments

A

papain

414
Q

Fragment termed the antigen binding fragment after cleaved by papain

A

Fab

415
Q

F(ab)2 is cleaved by

A

pepsin

416
Q

Fc is which fragment of the ab molecule

A

crystallizable

417
Q

Hinge region is between

A

CH1 and CH2

418
Q

3 functions of complement

A

inflammationmediates ag/ab reactionsdefends against bacteria viruses

419
Q

small peptide that is formed during complement activation causing increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle, release of histamine from mast cells

A

anaphylatoxin

420
Q

Plasma proteins normally in circulation that are heat labile and designated by letters and numbers

A

complement

421
Q

Complement component in highest concentration in serum in both classical and alternative pathways

A

C3

422
Q

All 3 pathways generate protease C3 convertase which binds to pathogen and generates……is the middle man, binds to C3 convertase to form C5 convertase; activates MAC

A

C3b

423
Q

Ultimate goal of MAC/complement activation

A

cell lysis

424
Q

3 things that affect ag-ab binding1 that doens’t affect

A

ph, temp, incubation timeenzyme concentration not part of it

425
Q

Pathway that binds to pathogen surface, C3/B/D/properdin, MAC and cell lysis

A

alternate

426
Q

Pathway that binds mannose on pathogen, immune complexes, opsonizes

A

MB-Lectin

427
Q

Pathway that is ag-ab, starts with C1q then goes to 4,2,3; involves C5a; inflammation, chemotaxis, anaphlatoxin

A

classical

428
Q

Place where optimal precipitation occures, forms lattice;most ab is precipitated by the least of amt of ag

A

zone of equivalence

429
Q

Precipitation can be converted to agglutination by increasing the size of the antigen (may be by adding beads etc and getting it to visibly agglutinate)

A

indirect agglutinationas opposed to direct where the antigen can agglutinate without adding anything

430
Q

Movement of ag or ab to make ag-ab complexes in semi solid media

A

immuno-diffusiondiffusion=movement

431
Q

Ag and ab BOTH free to move toward each other to form a precipitate

A

2 D diffusion

432
Q

Ab added to center well, PT sera/stds in weels around center and diffusion results in bands of precipitation.Identity of ab associated with autoimmune disorders

A

double diffusion/ouchterlony

433
Q

Gull wing formation occurs when an abnormal protein is electrophoretically displaced from the normal position in what method

A

CIEcountercurrent immunoelectrophoresis

434
Q

Heavy and light chains in gammopathies and Bence Jones protein in urine in this method

A

immuno-electrophoresis

435
Q

Immunoassay type requires step to separate bound from free label/wash

A

heterogenous

436
Q

Immunoassay that doesn’t require a wash step

A

homogenous

437
Q

Electrophoresis+immunoprecipitation:After electrophoresis, this method applies antiserum directly to a plate w/strips of agar; antisera added, ag-ab precipitate, wash, stainused for monoclonal gammopathies

A

immuno-fixation

438
Q

EMIT is used for urine drugs of abuse where free drug binds to antibody blocking active site; enzyme activity=amt free drug; type of immunoassay is

A

homogenous

439
Q

Type of assay where it’s noncompetitive, heterogenous;solid phase wells/ELISA plates/beads;activity/absorbance of detection molecule directly proportional to amount of antigen

A

sandwich immunoassay

440
Q

Energy source for fluorescence microscopes

A

mercury vapor lamp

441
Q

Fluorochrome used to stain tissue/culture and id microbes with exceedingly bright fluorescence

A

biotin-avidin

442
Q

In ELISA, what is attached to the solid phase…ab/ag of unknown sample is added, ab specific for ag w/label is added and then washed

A

ab or ag

443
Q

In ELISA AHG is conjugated with…

A

horseradish peroxidase

444
Q

Two systems in complement fixation

A

Test: antibody in serumIndicator: SRBC/antiSheep hemolysin

445
Q

Indicator in complement fixation

A

SRBC which are sensitized by anti sheep hemolysin

446
Q

When checking for anticomplementary factors when using controls for complement fixation there will be…

A

hemolysis=neg test

447
Q

Positive control in complement fixation will show..

A

no hemolysis

448
Q

Sydrome with tear/salivary glands affected, lymphocytic infiltration; can get bcell lymphoma

A

Sjogrens

449
Q

autoantibodies SSA,SSB seen in

A

sjogrens synydrome(SS)

450
Q

Condition that can turn into B cell lymphoma

A

Sjogrens syndrome

451
Q

Progressive systemic sclerosis also called

A

scleroderma

452
Q

SCL-70 antibodies seen in

A

SCLeroderma

453
Q

mulitisystem disease, rashes, renal; malar rash (butterfly)

A

SLEsystemic lupus erthyematosis

454
Q

SLE has ….and a ….ana pattern.

A

dsDNA, homogenous

455
Q

CREST symtoms seen in

A

limited sclerosis

456
Q

centromere ANA seen in

A

limited CREST

457
Q

ab to RNP only seen in

A

mixed connective tissue

458
Q

In Rhematoid arthritis, the antibody is Ig… against the Fc portion of Ig…

A

IgM against Fc of IgG

459
Q

anti-CCP

A

cyclic citrullinated peptide

460
Q

anti CCP seen in

A

RA

461
Q

Screen for ANA..follow up…

A

ELISAIFA (indirect immunofluorescence)

462
Q

In IFA, what cells are used in the interphase

A

Hep2 cells

463
Q

ANA pattern with even staining of dsDNA…indicative of…

A

homogenous, SLE/lupus

464
Q

ANA pattern with nucleoli staining, RNA

A

Nucleolar

465
Q

ANA pattern with SSA, SSB

A

speckled

466
Q

ANA pattern with dots, CREST

A

centromere

467
Q

Thyroid disease with autoantibodies against thyroid

A

Hashimotos

468
Q

autoantibody in hashimoto

A

Tg-ab thyroglobulin

469
Q

Thyroid disease with stimulating and blocking ab against TSH receptor

A

Graves

470
Q

3 Antibodies against TSH-R

A

TSI, TRab, TSH-R ab

471
Q

Distinguish Brutons agammaglobuneia versus transient hypoagammaglobunemia

A

absense of mature CD19B cells

472
Q

Xlinked, males immunodef dealing with CD19 B cells

A

brutons agammaglobulinemia

473
Q

Leukemia versus lymphoma

A

leukemia blood, lymphoma tissue

474
Q

Two conditions from sequalea of S.pyogens infection

A

rheutmatic feveracute glomerlonephretitis

475
Q

syphillis Stage with lesion/chancre

A

primary

476
Q

syphillis stage thats contagious

A

secondary

477
Q

syphillis stage thats noninfectious

A

latent

478
Q

syphillis stage with scarring, CNS invovlement

A

late

479
Q

Nontreponemal tests for…Treponemal tests for…

A

cardilipinsproteins of T.pallidum

480
Q

In EBV, presence of antiVCA and EA indicate

A

recent infection

481
Q

In EBV, presence of only EBNA indicates

A

past infection

482
Q

Two parasites water borne, diarhea

A

cryptosporidium, Giardia

483
Q

Syphillis nontreponemal antigen and antibody produced to it

A

cardiolipin=agreagin=ab

484
Q

cardiolipin and lecithin used in what test

A

VDRL

485
Q

How often are the needles used to deliver VDRL antigen checked and the stability of the VDRL antigen suspension checked…how many drops for antigen needle qualitative VDRL…how many drops for saline needle quantitative VDRL…

A

dailyantigen qualitative 60drops/mLsaline quantitative 100drops/mL

486
Q

Nontreponemal:cardiolipin,lethicinheat inactivation (to destroy complement)CSF

A

VDRL

487
Q

Nontreponemalcardiolipin,Plastic coated cards

A

RPR

488
Q

Initial time/temp to heat inactivate VDRL…Reheat time/temp to heat inactivate VDRL…

A

initial 30min @56Creheat 10min @56C

489
Q

VDRL:serum:antigen…small clumps, many free particle interp…titer reactive/weak reactive perform…report quant as…

A

3:1 more serum-small clumps/many free: weakly reactive-titer reactive/weak perform quantitative-quantitation titer is highest dilution giving reactive result

490
Q

RPR antigen needle drops…RPR rotated at…for…

A

60 drops/mL100rpm for 8 mins

491
Q

Falso pos not caused by syphilis seen in

A

nontreponemal testing

492
Q

antistreptolysin O (ASO) measures

A

ab to streptolysin O

493
Q

antistreptolysin O slide test uses/postive is..antistreoptolysin O tube test uses/pos is…

A

slide: agglutinationtube: no hemolysis

494
Q

in antistreptolysin O tube test, a positive test is…measured in…

A

positive is no hemolysislast tube with no hemolysis in Todd units=neutralizing ab present

495
Q

classic antistreptolysin O test the reagent is destroyed by…

A

destroyed by oxygen

496
Q

Streptoccocal extracellular product that dissolves fibrin clots

A

streptokinase

497
Q

Heterophil ab test screens for…Reported as…

A

EBV,IMhighest dilution w/agglutination

498
Q

Paul Bunnell heterophil ab test uses

A

SRBCsthat agglutinate with heterohile ab from IM

499
Q

Heterogenic antigen on tissue/organs(kidney) of guinea pig

A

Forssman antigen

500
Q

What are absorbed by guinea pig kidney antigen

A

Forssman antibodies

Back up cards AAB (19 decks)

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