Incident Management Flashcards
1
Q
Any call that involves three or more patients, any situation that places such a great demand on available equipment or personnel that the system would require a mutual aid response, or any incident that has the potential to create one of the previously mentioned situations
A
Mass-casualty incident
2
Q
An agreement between neighboring EMS systems to respond when local resources are insufficient to handle the response
A
Mutual aid response
3
Q
Two important underlying principles of the NIMS
A
- Flexibility
- Standardization
4
Q
Allows various agencies to achieve common objectives by supporting each other while maintaining individual authorities
A
Unity of effort
5
Q
The ability of agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other
A
Interoperability
6
Q
Three major NIMS components
A
- Communication and information management
- Resource management
- Command and coordination
7
Q
NIMS standard incident command structures are based on three key constructs:
A
- ICS
- Multiagency coordination systems
- Public information systems
8
Q
Purpose of ICS
A
Ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the efficient use of resources
9
Q
Individual units or different organizations make independent and often inefficient decisions about the next appropriate action
A
Freelancing
10
Q
Span of control ideal ratio
A
1 supervisor for 5 subordinates
11
Q
Responsible for a major functional area such as finance/administration, logistics, planning, or operations
A
Sections
12
Q
In charge of activity directly related to the section
A
Branches
13
Q
Branches are managed by the ___
A
Branch director
14
Q
Branches may be ___
A
Functional or geographic
15
Q
Branches tend to be established when ___
A
Span of control is a problem
16
Q
Serve to align resources and/or crews under one supervisor
A
Divisions or groups
17
Q
___ usually refer to crews working in the same geographic area
A
Divisions
18
Q
___ usually refer to crews working in the same functional area
A
Groups
19
Q
ICS General staff
A
- Command
- Finance/administration
- Logistics
- Operations
- Planning
20
Q
Command staff include ___
A
Public information officer, safety officer, and liaison officer
21
Q
Person in charge of the overall incident
A
Incident commander (IC)
22
Q
Assesses the incident, establishes the strategic objectives and priorities, and develop a plan to manage the incident
A
Incident commander
23
Q
A command system used in larger incidents in which there is a multiagency response or multiple jurisdictions are involved
A
Unified command system
24
Q
A command system in which one person is in charge; generally used with small incidents that involve only one responding agency or jurisdiction
A
Single command system
25
___ is particularly important if a transfer of command takes place
Communication
26
Responsible for documenting all expenditures at an incident for reimbursement
Finance/administration section chief
27
Functions within the finance/administration section
1. Time unit
2. Procurement unit
3. Compensation and claims unit
4. Cost unit
28
Responsible for ensuring the daily recording of personnel time and equipment use
Time unit
29
Deals with all matters concerning vendor contracts
Procurement unit
30
Deals with claims as a result of the incident, and injury compensation
Compensation and claims unit
31
Responsible for collecting, analyzing, and reporting the costs related to an incident
Cost unit
32
Responsible for communications equipment, facilities, food and water, fuel, lighting, and medical equipment and supplies for patients and emergency responders
Logistics section
33
Responsible for managing the tactical operations usually handled by the IC on routine EMS calls
Operations section chief
34
Solves problems as they arise during the incident
Planning section
35
The central tool for planning during a response to a disaster emergency
Incident action plan
36
Three important positions that help the general staff and the IC
1. Safety officer
2. PIO
3. Liaison officer
37
Monitors the scene for conditions or operations that may present a hazard to responders and patients
Safery officer
38
The safety officer has the authority to ___ whenever a rescuer is in danger
Stop an emergency operation
39
Provides the public and media with clear and understandable information
PIO
40
The designated PIO may cooperate with PIOs from other agencies in a ___
Joint information center (JIC)
41
Relays information and concerns among command, the general staff, and other agencies
Liaison officer
42
Size-up will be driven by three basic questions
1. What do I have?
2. What resources do I need?
3. What do I need to do?
43
Incident that is not yet contained
Open incident
44
Incident that is contained and all casualties are accounted for
Closed incident
45
Priorities to keep in mind during size-up
1. Safety
2. Incident stabilization
3. Preservation of property and the environment
46
Preferred communication method at an MCI
Face-to-face
47
Chief of the medical branch reports to the ___
Operations section
48
Primary roles of the medical branch
Triage, treatment, and transport of injured people
49
Ultimately in charge of counting and prioritizing patients
Triage supervisor
50
Will locate and set up the treatment area with a tier for each priority of patient
Treatment supervisor
51
Assists with moving patients to the transportation area
Treatment supervisor
52
Coordinates the transportation and distribution of patients to appropriate receiving hospitals and helps to ensure that hospitals do not become overwhelmed by a patient surge
Transportation supervisor
53
Assigned when an MCI or disaster requires a multivehicle or multiagency response
Staging supervisor
54
Establishes an area that provides protection for responders from the elements and the situation
Rehabilitation supervisor
55
Where should the rehabilitation area be located?
Away from exhaust fumes and crowds and out of view of the scene itself
56
Signs of stress the rehabilitation supervisor must monitor for
1. Fatigue
2. Altered thinking patterns
3. Complete collapse
57
Determine the type of equipment and resources needed for the situation
Extrication supervisor or rescue supervisor
58
Will work with area medical examiners, coroners, disaster mortuary assistance teams, and LE agencies to coordinate removal of the bodies and even, possible, body parts
Morgue supervisor
59
To sort patients based on the severity of their injuries
Triage
60
Goal of triage
Greatest good for the greatest number
61
Triage groups patients based on their ___
Acuity
62
Initial triage done in the field
Primary triage
63
Done as the patient's are brought to the treatment area
Secondary triage
64
The main info needed on the triage tag
Unique number and triage category
65
After the primary triage, the triage supervisor should report what to the medical branch director?
1. Total number of patients
2. Number of patients in each triage category
3. Recommendations for extrication and movement of patients to the treatment area
4. Resources needed to complete triage and begin movement of patients
66
Mnemonic to remember triage categories
IDME
67
IDME
Immediate (red)
Delayed (yellow)
Minor or minimal (green; hold)
Expectant (black; likely to die or dead)
68
Immediate patients usually have problems with ___
The ABCs, head trauma, or signs and symptoms of shock
69
Delayed patients usually have ___
Multiple injuries to bones or joints, including back injuries with or without spinal cord injury
70
START
Simple Triage And Rapid Treatment
71
One of the easiest methods of triage
START triage
72
START triage uses a limited assessment of the patient's ___
Respiratory status, hemodynamic status (pulse), and neurologic status
73
1st step of the START triage
Call out and direct those who can walk to a landmark (green tag)
74
Second step of the START triage
Assess respiratory status of non-ambulatory patients. If not breathing, open the airway with a simple maneuver. If they breath (red), if not (black). If breathing without opening airway over 30/min or slower than 10/min (red). If 10 - 29 /min, check bilateral pulses. Absent radial pulse (red). If present assess neurologic status. If able to understand and follow commands (yellow), if unconscious or unable to follow commands (red)
75
SALT triage system
Sort, Assess, Lifesaving interventions, and treatment and/or transport
76
JumpSTART triage system is intended for ___
Children younger than 8 or who weigh less than 100 lbs
77
JumpSTART triage process
1. Direct walking wounded and get infants and children with special needs to the treatment area
2. Assess breathing, if not breathing check pulse. No pulse (black). Pulse present, open the airway, 5 rescue breaths. Still not breathing (black).
3. Respirations less than 15/min or greater than 45/min (red)
4. Respirations 15 to 45 /min, beck distal pulse. Absent pulse (red)
5. Distal pulse present, check AVPU. Localizes or withdraws from pain (yellow), if worse (red)
78
Preferable transport for red or yellow patients
Ground or air ambulance
79
Immediate-priority patients should be transported ___ at a time until all are transported from the site
2
80
Patients in the delayed category can be transported ___ at a time
2 to 3
81
Widespread event that disrupts functions and resources of a community and threatens lives and property
Disaster
82
Two good indicators of the possible presence of a hazardous material
Location and type of building
83
Senses you can safely use to detect hazardous material
Sight and sound
84
Any vessel or receptacle that holds a material
Container
85
What about a container can provide important clues about the nature of the substance inside?
Type, size, and material of construction
86
Two categories of containers based on capacity
1. Bulk
2. Nonbulk
87
Include fixed tanks, highway cargo tanks, rail cars, totes, and intermodal tanks
Bulk storage containers
88
In general, bulk storage containers are found in ___
Buildings that rely on and need to store large quantities of a particular chemical
89
Often bulk storage containers at a manufacturing facility are surrounded by ___
A secondary containment system
90
An engineered method to control spilled or released product if the main containment vessel fails
Secondary containment
91
Large-volume horizontal tanks are also called ___
Aboveground or underground storage tanks
92
The tote is also called an ___
Intermediate bulk container
93
Most common tote sizes
275 and 330 gallons
94
Portable plastic tank surrounded by a stainless steel web
Tote
95
A tote can contain ___
Any type of chemical, including flammable liquids, corrosives, food-grade liquids, or oxidizers
96
Intermodal tank size
4000 to 6000 gallons
97
All types of containers other than bulk containers
Nonbulk storage vessels
98
Nonbulk storage vessel capacity
A few ounces to 119 gallons
99
Easily recognizable, barrellike containers
Drums
100
Commonly used to store solids and powders
Bags
101
A glass, plastic, or steel container that holds 1 to 15 gallons of product
Carboy
102
Glass carboys are often placed in ___
A protective wood, foam, fiberglass, or steel box to prevent breakage
103
Can often enable you to ID a released chemical
Presence of labels, placards, and other markings
104
Diamond-shaped indicators that are placed on all four side of highway transport vehicles, railroad tank cars, and other forms of transportation carrying hazardous materials
Placards
105
Placard size
At least 9.8" per side
106
Smaller versions of placards that are place on the four sides of individual boxes and smaller packages being transported
Labels
107
Label size
3.9" per side
108
A placard IDs ___
The broad hazard class to which the material inside belongs
109
This number on a placard IDs the specific material being shipped
Four-digit UN number
110
Offers a certain amount of guidance for responders operating at a hazmat incident
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG)
111
How often is the ERG updated?
Every 3 to 4 years
112
Common source of info about a particular chemical that is specific to that substance
Material safety data sheet
113
Shipping papers for road and highway transportation are called ___
Bills of lading or freight bills
114
Where are the bills of lading or freight bills located?
In the cab of the vehicle or on the driver's person
115
An agency that provides technical info for first responders who are called to respond to chemical incidents
Chemical Transportation Emergency Center (CHEMTREC)
116
Number for CHEMTREC
1-800-262-8200
117
How to pass chemical names to CHEMTREC
Spell them
118
___ helps reduce the number of civilians and responders who may be exposed to the released substance
Setting control zones and limiting access
119
Established at a hazmat incident based on the chemical and physical properties of the released material, the environmental factors at the time of the release, and the general layout of the scene
Control zones
120
If the incident takes place inside a structure, the best place to control access is ___
At the normal points of ingress and egress
121
Control zones at a hazmat incident
1. Exclusionary zone (hot zone)
2. Contamination reduction zone (warm zone)
3. Outer perimeter (cold zone)
122
An area immediately surrounding the release, which is also the most contaminated area
Hot zone
123
Where personnel and equipment transition into and out of the hot zone
Warm zone
124
The warm zone contains ___
Control points for access as well as the decontamination area
125
The process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of hazardous materials from equipment, patients, and rescue personnel
Decontamination
126
The water used for decontamination must be ___
Captured and delivered into special sealable containers
127
The safe zone where personnel do not need to wear any special protective clothing for safer operation
Cold zone
128
A system for the ID of hazardous materials according to health hazard or toxicity levels, fire hazard, chemical reactive hazard, and special hazards
NFPA 704
129
Measures of the health risk that a substance poses to someone who comes in contact with it
Toxicity levels
130
Toxicity levels
1 - 5
131
PPE levels
A - D
132
Level A PPE
Most hazardous, require fully encapsulated, chemical-resistant clothing that provides full-body protection, with SCBA
133
Level B PPE
Nonencapsulated clothing that is designed to protect against a particular hazard
134
Level C PPE
Like level B, requires nonpermeable clothing and eye protection. Face masks that filter all outside air must be used
135
Level D PPE
Work uniform
136
All levels of PPE require ___
Gloves, including two pairs of rubber gloves
137
Health hazard 0
Little or no hazard (no protection)
138
Health hazard 1
Slightly hazardous (SCBA level C suit)
139
Health hazard 2
Slightly hazardous (SCBA level C suit)
140
Health hazard 3
Extremely hazardous (full protection, with no exposed skin, level A or B suit)
141
Health hazard 4
Minimal exposure causes death (Special hazmat gear, level A suit)
142
Most serious injures and deaths from hazmat result from ___
Airway and breathing problems
