*Induction Drugs (Etomidate & Ketamine) (Exam II) Flashcards

(77 cards)

1
Q

In general, thiobarbiturates are much more _____ soluble and have a greater _______ than oxybarbiturates.

What atom do thiobarbiturates have in lieu of an oxygen in the second position (like oxybarbiturates)?

A
  • Lipid; potency
  • Sulfur
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2
Q

What is unique about Etomidate’s organic chemical structure?

A

It is the only carboxylated imidazole containing compound.

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3
Q

When is etomidate water-soluble vs lipid-soluble?

A
  • H₂O-soluble at acidic pH.
  • Lipid-soluble at physiologic pH.
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4
Q

What percentage of etomidate is propylene glycol?
What is the result of this?

A
  • 35% propylene glycol
  • resulting in pain on injection and venous irritation.
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5
Q

Which induction agent can be given without an IV?
How is this?

A

Etomidate - can be given sub-lingual.

Only drug with direct systemic absorption in oral mucosa that bypasses hepatic metabolism

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6
Q

Why does etomidate have a low incidence of myoclonus?

A
  • Trick Question. Etomidate has a high incidence of myoclonus, just like all other induction agents.
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7
Q

What is the onset of Etomidate?

A

1 minute

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8
Q

How much of Etomidate is protein bound?
What protein does it bind to?

A

76% albumin bound

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9
Q

What is etomidate’s Vd?
How does clearance compare to thiopental?
What is the result of this clearance?

A
  • Large Vd
  • 5x faster clearance than thiopental resulting in a prompt awakening.
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10
Q

What metabolizes Etomidate?

A

Hydrolysis by hepatic microsomal enzymes and plasma esterases.

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11
Q

What is the Elimination Half-time and profile of Etomidate?

A

Elimination 1/2 time: 2-5 hours

Elimination:
* 85% in urine
* 10% - 13% in bile

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12
Q

What is the induction dosage range for Etomidate?

A

0.3 mg/kg IV

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13
Q

What is Etomidate an alternative for IV induction?

A

Propofol or Barbituates

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14
Q

Drug effects that Etomidate does not have?

A

No hangover or cumulative drug effect

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15
Q

What is the best use for Etomidate?

A
  • Induction for unstable cardiac patients.

Especially with little or no cardiac reserve

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16
Q

What needs to be used concurrently with etomidate when performing a laryngoscopy/tracheal intubation?
Why?

A
  • use with Opioids
  • etomidate has no analgesic effects.
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17
Q

What is Etomidate’s most common side effect?
How often does this occur?

A
  • Involuntary Myoclonic Movements
  • that occurs with 50 - 80 % of administrations.
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18
Q

What should be administered with Etomidate to prevent involuntary myoclonic movements?

A

Fentanyl 1-2 μg/kg IV

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19
Q

Etomidate has a dose dependent inhibition of the conversion of cholesterol to _________________.

What does this mean clinically?

A
  • Cortisol
  • Etomidate decreases SNS capability to respond to stress (longer vent times, hypotension, etc.)
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20
Q

How long does adrenocortical suppression with etomidate last?

A
  • 4-8 hours.
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21
Q

What two pathologies would cause you to hesitate before giving Etomidate?

A

Caution with sepsis and hemorrhage

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22
Q

Compared to Thiopental, Etomidate will lower plasma concentrations of what substance?

A

Cortisol

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23
Q

What are etomidate’s effects on CBF & CMRO₂ ?
Why is this and what does it do?

A

↓CBF & ↓CMRO₂ 35%-45% due to being
a potent direct cerebral vasoconstrictor.

  • Will also ↓ICP.
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24
Q

CMRO₂ is couple with both CBF and _______.

A

CMRG (cerebral metabolic requirement of glucose)

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25
What is the EEG profile of etomidate?
- More excitatory than thiopental - May activate seizure foci - Augments SSEP amplitude.
26
positive side effects of Etomidate
* CV stable * minimal changes in HR, SV, CO, and contractility * No intra-arterial damage
27
Etomidate results in significant *hypotension* if _________not treated prior to induction?
- Hypovolemia esp. high 0.45 mg/kg IV
28
Histamine release via etomidate is mediated through what?
- Trick question. **Etomidate does not release histamine**.
29
What is the pulmonary profile of etomidate?
- **No change in minute ventilation**. d/t increase in respiratory rate compensate decrease in tidal volume - ***Less respiratory depression*** than barbiturates - Rapid IV produces ***apnea*** -***Stimulates CO**₂* medullary centers
30
What type of drug is ketamine?
- Phenycyclidine derivative; NMDA receptor antagonist (PCP; "angel dust")
31
What type of anesthesia does Ketamine produce?
Dissociative anesthesia
32
What two properties does Ketamine possess?
Amnestic & intense analgesia
33
What signs and symptoms does dissociative anesthesia (ketamine) produce?
**"Zonked" state** - Non-communicative but awake - Hyptonus & purposeful movements - *Cataleptic stat*e: eyes open with a slow nystagmic gaze ("no one's home")
34
What are Ketamine's two greatest advantages over Propofol or Etomidate?
- No pain at injection (no propylene glycol) - Profound analgesia at sub-anesthetic doses.
35
What are the two greatest disadvantages of ketamine?
- Emergence delirium - Abuse potential
36
What is Benzethonium Chloride?
Ketamine preservative that inhibits ACh receptors
37
Differentiate **S(+)Ketamine** vs **R(-)Ketamine**.
S-Ketamine (left-handed isomer) is essentially better. - More intense analgesia - ↑ metabolism & recovery - Less salivation - Lower emergence delirium
38
What benefits does a racemic ketamine mixture offer?
- Less fatigue & cognitive impairment - Inhibits catecholamine reuptake at nerve endings (like cocaine).
39
What is Ketamine's main mechanism of action?
- Non-competitive **inhibition of NMDA** (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors by inhibiting pre-synaptic release of **glutamate.** Glutamate is most abundant excitatory NT in CNS
40
What are Ketamine's secondary receptor sites?
- Weak GABA-A effects. - Opioid (μ, δ, and κ)
41
What is Ketamine's *time of onse*t? (IV & IM) When would this drug be utilized IM?
- IV: **1 min** - IM: **5 min** (mostly for ***pediatric patients***)
42
What is Ketamine's duration of action?
10-20 min
43
What is Ketamine's lipid solubility? What is the result of this?
- **Highly lipid soluble** (5-10x greater than thiopental). - Results: **Brain** →** non plasma bound** → **peripheral tissue**.
44
What is the Vd of ketamine?
3L/kg (large) ## Footnote S20
45
What is the Elimination 1/2 time of Ketamine?
2-3 hours
46
Name the pharmacokinetic profile of ketamine: - Clearance: - Metabolism: - Excretion:
- Clearance: **high hepatic clearance** (1L/min) - Metabolism: **CYP450's** - Excretion: **kidneys** ## Footnote S21
47
What is the primary metabolite of ketamine and what its its significance?
**Norketamine** is metabolite (⅓ potency and prolongs analgesia). ## Footnote S21
48
In what patient population is ketamine tolerance most often seen?
Burn patients ## Footnote S21
49
What is the *induction dose* of ketamine IV? What if it is given intramuscularly?
- 0.5 - 1.5 mg/kg **IV** - 4 - 8 mg/kg **IM** ## Footnote S22
50
What is the *maintenance dosing* of ketamine?
- 0.2 - 0.5 mg/kg **IV** - 4 - 8 mg/kg **IM** ## Footnote S22
51
What is the s*ubanesthetic/analgesic dose* of ketamine?
0.2 - 0.5 mg/kg IV ## Footnote S22
52
What is the *post-operative sedation and analgesia dosing* for ketamine in pediatric cardiac surgery cases?
1-2 mg/kg/**hour** ## Footnote S22
53
What is the *neuraxial epidural analgesia dosing* of ketamine? What about intrathecal route?
- 30mg **epidural** - 5 - 50 mg via **intrathecal/spinal/subarachnoid** ## Footnote S22
54
Ketamine is a potent sialagogue. What does this mean for your clinical practice?
- Manage **excessive salivary secretions** during intubation & watch for coughing/laryngospasm.
55
What *drug and dosing to treat excessive salivary secretions* from ketamine administration?
**Glycopyrrolate: 0.2mg** ## Footnote S23
56
You gave ketamine and the patient fell asleep within 30 seconds. If you gave no more doses when would you expect the patient to: - Wake up? - Be fully conscious? - Start remembering things?
*- Wake up *in **10-20 minutes** *- Full consciousness* in **60 - 90 min** - Amnestic effects should also *wear off* in **60 - 90 min.** ## Footnote S23
57
What patient populations is ketamine best used for?
- Acutely hypovolemic patients - Asthmatics - Mental health patients ## Footnote S25
58
When would you do an IM induction of a patient?
Uncooperative and difficult-to-manage mentally challenged patients. ## Footnote S25
59
Though ketamine has many indications, when should it be avoided?
- Patients with **pulmonary HTN and ↑ICP**. ## Footnote S26
60
What are Ketamine's Clinical Uses?
* Burn dressing changes * debridement * skin grafting procedures * Reversal of opioid tolerance * Improvement of psych disorders * Restless leg syndrome ## Footnote S26
61
What are Ketamine's effects on ICP? Why?
- ↑ICP via ↑CBF by 60% - **Potent cerebral vasodilator**. ## Footnote S27
62
At what dosing will the ICP increasing effects of ketamine plateau?
2mg/kg IV ## Footnote S27
63
Due to ketamine's increased excitatory EEG activity, how much does seizure potential increase with administration?
Trick question. **No increase in seizure potential with ketamine**. | Increased amplitude with SSEP is reduced by N20 ## Footnote S27
64
What does the cardiovascular profile of ketamine look like? How can this side effect profile be blunted?
- SNS stimulation ( ↑ in sBP, PAP, HR, CO, etc.) - Blunted via pre-med with benzo's, volatiles, or nitrous. ## Footnote S28
65
Say you just gave ketamine and you have an unexpected drop in systolic BP and CO. What happened? How do you treat it?
- *Depleted catecholamine stores* - **Treat with direct-acting SNS agents (ex. phenylephrine)** vs indirect (ex. ephedrine). ## Footnote S28
66
What is the Pulmonary profile of ketamine?
- No depression of ventilation - CO₂ response maintained. - ↑ salivary excretion - Intact upper airway tone & reflexes. - Bronchodilator with no histamine release. ## Footnote S30
67
What does emergence delirium present like with ketamine? | aka Psychedelic Effects
- Visual, auditory, proprioceptive illusions. Morbid & vivid dreams up to 24 hours. ## Footnote S31
68
What is the proposed physiologic mechanism of action for emergence delirium occurrence with ketamine?
Depression of inferior colliculus & medial geniculate nucleus. ## Footnote S31
69
What percentage of patients will develop ketamine induced emergence delirium? How can it be prevented?
- Psychedelic effects in **5 - 30%** of patients. - **Pre-med with midazolam & glycopyrrolate**. ## Footnote S31
70
What "other systems" effects does ketamine have?
- Non-depolarizing *NMBs enhancement*. - Succinylcholine prolongation via p*lasma cholinesterase inhibition.* - *PLT aggregation inhibition* ## Footnote S32
71
What are ketamine's most common drug interactions?
- **Volatiles**→ hypotension - **Non-depolarizing NMBs** → enhancement - **Succinylcholine** → prolongation ## Footnote S33
72
Why does ketamine prolong succinylcholine's effects?
Ketamine is a plasma cholinesterase inhibitor. ## Footnote S32
73
Which induction agent has the highest analgesic properties?
- Ketamine ## Footnote S35
74
Why would ketamine be a decent induction drug for an OSA patient? Why not?
- Preservation of upper airway reflexes & ventilatory function . - Risks: Sialagogue, Psych effects, SNS activation ## Footnote S34
75
What is Ketafol?
Ketamine and Propofol mix ## Footnote S37
76
What is combining, admixing, diluting, pooling, reconstituting, repackaging, or otherwise altering a drug or bulk drug substance to create a sterile preparation?
Sterile compounding ## Footnote S37
77
What are the rules for Pharmaceuctical Compounding?
* Immediate use: **1 hr** to 4 hr **rule** * Single dose * Aseptic process maintained ## Footnote S37