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Flashcards in Module 10 Study Guide Deck (116):
1

According to CLIA regulations, which of the following is NOT considered a category regarding the level of complexity?
A. Low complexity
B. Waived
C. Moderate complexity
D. High complexity

Low complexity

2

Which of the following agencies requires employers to ensure employee safety concerning occupational exposure to potentially harmful substances?
A. Centeres for Medicare and Medicaid Substances
B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
C. United States Department of Labor
D. Center for Disease Control

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

3

When referencing to the National Fire Protection Association color and number method, what number has the lowest potential for hazard?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 0
D. 1

0

4

Which category of tests is simple, unvarying, and require a minimum of judgment and interpretation?
A. Low complexity
B. Waived
C. Moderate complexity
D. High complexity

Waived

5

Which of the following is NOT a content of the law in regard to CLIA regulations?
A. All labs must register
B. Regulations apply to all labs
C. Quality assurance measures are used
D. Brand name products are used in testing

Brand name products are used in testing

6

Which of the following organizations is responsible for test categorization and CLIA studies?
A. CDC
B. OSHA
C. United States Department of Labor
D. Medicaid

CDC

7

Which of the following is NOT performed in the quality-control protocol for automated hematology instruments?
A. Control samples
B. Calibration
C. Proficiency testing
D. PPMP

PPMP

8

Which of the following best describes how a laboratory manager can keep a current and updated list on the waived tests?
A. Check the FDA website
B. Check the OSHA website
C. Read the Medicaid manuals
D. Read the Federal Register only

Check the FDA website

9

Which of the following is NOT an approved provider for performing microscopy procedures?
A. Physician
B. Midlevel practitioner
C. Dentist
D. Medical assistant

Medical assistant

10

For which of the following does the law mandate quality assurance and quality control by CLIA regulations?
A. All tests
B. Non-waived tests
C. Waived tests

Non-waived tests

11

Which of the following is included in personnel standards under the CLIA regulations regarding individuals who perform non-waived tests?
A. All personnel possess a college degree
B. Technologists perform all tests
C. All personnel must be registered
D. All personnel are able to calibrate and standardize instruments

All personnel are able to calibrate and standardize instruments

12

What is the purpose of CLIA?
A. Ensures you have insurance to cover any errors
B. Ensures all equipment is put away safely
C. Safeguards the public by regulating all testing
D. Promotes a healthy and safe work environment

Safeguards the public by regulating all testing

13

Which of the following is responsible for compliance with OSHA regulations?
A. Employee
B. Employer
C. Safety officer
D. Department of labor

Employer

14

Which of the following is an example of a workplace that does not have to comply with a chemical hygiene plan?
A. One that performs only dipstick tests
B. One that performs only CLIA-waived tests
C. One that tests only human excretions
D. One that makes only nasal smears

One that performs only dipstick tests

15

Which of the following is NOT a goal that must be accomplished in order to comply with OSHA standards for the chemical hygiene plan?
A. Inventory of all hazardous chemicals
B. Assembling a materials safety data sheet (MSDS)
C. Providing education before an employee handles any hazardous chemicals
D. Providing education within 90 days of employment

Providing education within 90 days of employment

16

Which of the following is the major purpose of a material safety data sheet?
A. Provides information on expiration dates
B. Provides information to protect patients
C. Completes all OSHA regulations
D. Identifies hazardous ingredients, first aid procedures, and spill and leak procedures

Identifies hazardous ingredients, first aid procedures, and spill and leak procedures

17

The employer must provide a hazard communication educational program within how many days of employment?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30

30

18

Which of the following is one of the means of exposure to hazardous chemicals for the medical assistant?
A. Skin contact
B. Inhalation
C. Injection
D. All of the above

All of the above

19

Which of the following is the most important for students to remember in the clinical classroom?
A. Hazardous chemicals are not used
B. Follow all safety procedures as outlined by OSHA
C. MSDS are not needed
D. Fume hoods are not required in the presence of toxic gases

Follow all safety procedures as outlined by OSHA

20

The only health care professionals trained specifically for the ambulatory setting, including the POL procedure, would be which of the following?
A. Physicians
B. Medical Assistants
C. Registered nurses
D. Dentists

Medical assistants

21

Which of the following is NOT a way to minimize cumulative trauma disorders?
A. Repetitive work actions
B. Staff training
C. Proper work site design
D. Job rotation

Repetitive work actions

22

Which of the following laboratory specialties performs testing for blood typing, cross matching, and the separation of blood components?
A. Chemistry
B. Immunohematology
C. Microbiology
D. Hematology

Immunohematology

23

Which of the following laboratory specialties performs testing for identification of bacteria and fungi?
A. Chemistry
B. Immunohematology
C. Microbiology
D. Hematology

Microbiology

24

Which of the following describes a panel of tests for carbon dioxide, potassium, chloride, and sodium?
A. Basic metabolic
B. General health
C. Electrolyte
D. Hepatic function

Electrolyte

25

Which of the following describes a panel of tests for albumin, alkaline phosphatase, bilirubin, protein, SGOT and SGPT?
A. Basic metabolic
B. General health
C. Electrolyte
D. Hepatic function

Hepatic function

26

Which of the following best describes how the quality of test results can be ensured?
A. Check the calibration of instruments and machines consistently
B. perform preventive maintenance on all equipment annually
C. Perform testing only when there is time
D. Refrigerate all specimens

Check the calibration of instruments and machines consistently

27

Which of the following laboratory types is used by hospitals and physicians for complex, expensive, or specialized tests?
A. Hospital-based
B. Procurement stations
C. Reference labs
D. Satellite labs

Reference labs

28

Which of the following laboratory specialties performs testing for the detection of disease-producing eggs present in specimens taken from the body?
A. Chemistry
B. Serology
C. Parasitology
D. Hematology

Parasitology

29

Which of the following laboratory specialties performs testing and microscopic examinations of cells to detect early signs of cancer and other diseases?
A. Hematology
B. Serology
C. Chemistry
D. Cytology

Cytology

30

Which of the following laboratory specialties analyzes the composition of blood and joint fluid?
A. Hematology
B. Serology
C. Chemistry
D. Cytology

Chemistry

31

Which of the following is a range of values considered normal because they include 95% of test results for a normal healthy population?
A. Test results
B. Reference values
C. Diagnosis
D. Panic values

Reference values

32

What is a patient who has no complaints or symptoms of an illness known as?
A. Clinical diagnosis
B. Asymptomatic
C. Diagnosis
D. Symptomatic

Asymptomatic

33

To further ensure that test results are accurate, what test must be done along with the patient sample?
A. Proficiency test
B. Daily check
C. Calibration
D. Control test

Control test

34

In TDM (Therapeutic Drug Monitoring), measuring the highest level of medication in the patient's blood is referred to as which of the following?
A. Trough
B. Peak
C. Diagnosis
D. HRT

Peak

35

Which of the following departments studies tissue sample biopsies?
A. Histology
B. Cytology
C. Virology
D. Mycology

Histology

36

Which of the following departments monitors any drug usage and the therapeutic levels of medication prescribed to patients?
A. Toxicology
B. DNA
C. Serology
D. Clinical chemistry

Toxicology

37

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when using a microscope?
A. Lower the oculars toward the slide when looking through the oculars
B. View the field first using low power
C. Focus first using 40x
D. Adjust the fine adjustment before adjusting the coarse adjustment

View the field first using low power

38

Which of the following is a true statement about caring for a microscope?
A. Carry the microscope by the oculars
B. Keep the microscope uncovered when not in use to avoid turning the knobs
C. Clean the lens with standard tissue
D. Use oil only with oil-emersion lens

Use oil only with oil-emersion lens

39

Which of the following best describes the purpose of using oil immersion?
A. Decrease magnification
B. Scatter light rays throughout the field
C. Multiply ocular lens magnification
D. Visualize all objects in the field

Multiply ocular lens magnification

40

Which of the following is true about an electron microscope?
A. Can be used for visualization of viruses
B. Most often found in small clinics
C. Requires no special training
D. None of the above

Can be used for visualization of viruses

41

When using the microscope, how is the focus adjusted?
A. Use coarse adjustment with high power
B. Visualize objects first with the coarse adjustment
C. Use low power before high power
D. Focus object initially with fine adjustment

Visualize objects first with the coarse adjustment

42

How is the light intensity adjusted?
A. Use high power
B. Use oil immersion
C. Use condenser
D. Use the fine adjustment

Use condenser

43

Which of the following tests would NOT be covered by insurance if the patient's diagnosis was "Urinary Tract Infection"?
A. Urine dipstick
B. Urine culture
C. Glucose tolerance
D. None of the above

Glucose tolerance test

44

Which of the following is NOT a method used to send a laboratory report to the provider?
A. Fax
B. E-mail
C. Electronically (using EHR software)
D. Manually delivered

E-mail

45

Many clinics have policies in place that require the providers to read and sign lab reports within which of the following time frames?
A. 12-24 hrs
B. 24-36 hrs
C. 36-48 hrs
D. 48-72 hrs

36-48 hrs

46

Which of the following is NOT the medical assistant's role in phlebotomy?
A. Collect blood as efficiently as possible
B. Provide high-quality care to patients
C. Perform blood testing using automated equipment only
D. Performs tasks that are critical to patient's diagnosis

Perform blood testing using automated equipment only

47

Which of the following is the primary factory for the production of blood cells?
A. Lymph nodes
B. Thymus
C. Bone marrow
D. Spleen

Bone marrow

48

Which of the following is NOT a function of the blood?
A. Assist in food metabolism
B. Transport oxygen to tissues
C. Transport waste products to organs for elimination
D. Transport nutrients to all parts of body

Assist in food metabolism

49

How many liters of blood does the body contain?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10

6

50

What happens during the clotting process of blood?
A. Buffy coat is formed
B. Formation of plasma
C. Converts fibrinogen to fibrin
D. Plasma degradation

Converts fibrinogen to fibrin

51

Which of the following blood cells is responsible for the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide?
A. Erythrocytes
B. Leukocytes
C. Thrombocytes
D. Lymphocytes

Erythrocytes

52

The plasma and red blood cells are separated by what when using anti coagulated tubes?
A. Serum
B. Fibrinogen
C. Buffy coat
D. Platelets

Buffy coat

53

Which of the following best describes why OSHA requires safety needles be made available to employees?
A. Eliminates the need for biohazard waste containers
B. Can only be used with specific guidelines
C. Prevents on-the-job needle stick injuries
D. Protects patients completely from accidental sticks

Prevents on-the-job needle stick injuries

54

When a blood sample cannot be contained, which of the following should be done?
A. Advance the needle slightly
B. Withdraw the needle slightly
C. Try another tube
D. All of the above

All of the above

55

Which of the following is the appropriate action when palpating for a vein in the upper arm?
A. Place the patient's arm in an upward position
B. Always select a rolling vein
C. Palpate the vein with your thumb
D. Palpate the vein with the tip of your index finger

Palpate the vein with the tip of your index finger

56

Which of the following best describes the purpose of additives?
A. Anticoagulant to prevent clotting
B. Chemical to help preserve blood
C. Substance to accelerate the clotting process
D. All of the above

All of the above

57

Which of the following best describes how a tube with anticoagulants is identified?
A. Size of the time
B. Tube stopper color
C. Test name on label
D. Laboratory use

Tube stopper color

58

Which of the following best describes an advantage of a soft rubber tourniquet?
A. Inexpensive enough to replace often
B. Hard and plastic
C. Cannot be cleaned easily
D. Expensive but long lasting

Inexpensive enough to replace often

59

When a blood pressure cuff is used as a tourniquet, the cuff should be maintained at what pressure?
A. Slightly below the systolic pressure
B. Slightly above the systolic pressure
C. Slightly above the diastolic pressure
D. Slightly below the diastolic pressure

Slightly below the diastolic pressure

60

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when using a phlebotomy tray?
A. Use to transport blood specimens only
B. Label with an approved biohazard symbol
C. Keep covered with a sterile cover
D. Keep away from patient examination rooms

Label with an approved biohazard symbol

61

Which of the following is the first step in performing a successful venipuncture?
A. Position the patient in a sitting position
B. Use non-sterile disposable gloves
C. Clean the site with an alcohol prep pad
D. Put the patient at ease

Put the patient at ease

62

Which of the following is NOT included in the necessary information written on the specimen tube label?
A. Complete name of patient
B. Address
C. Date and time specimen drawn
D. Patient identification number

Address

63

Which of the following best describes the correct application of a tourniquet?
A. Apply 3-4 inches below the puncture site
B. Leave on the arm no longer than 3 minutes
C. Apply 3-4 inches above the puncture site
D. Apply to the upper arm at the level of the deltoid

Apply 3-4 inches above the puncture site

64

What is the gauge of needles most commonly used in venipuncture?
A. 20, 21, 16
B. 18, 20, 21
C. 20, 21, 22
D. 21, 22, 23

20, 21, 22

65

Which of the following best describes when a syringe is most often used for venipuncture?
A. When large blood samples are needed
B. When collecting small amounts of blood from fragile veins
C. When a patient has a god vein in the antecubital area
D. When multiple tubes are needed

When collecting small amounts of blood from fragile veins

66

Which of the following is a combination system that can be used with the syringe or the vacuum tube?
A. Capillary puncture system
B. Butterfly collection system
C. Hematology system
D. Blood culture system

Butterfly collection system

67

When using the safer plastic vacuum tubes, which of the following is the correct order to draw?
A. Cultures, blue top (citrate), red top and/or SST
B. Blue top (citrate), red top and/or SST, cultures
C. Cultures, red top and/or SST, blue top (citrate)

Cultures, blue top (citrate), red top and/or SST

68

Which of the following is NOT a quality assurance control?
A. Each specimen must have its own label attached to the specimen's primary container
B. Specimen must be in correct anticoagulant
C. Patient label must have complete information
D. Specimens are in syringes with a needle still attached

Specimens are in syringes with a needle still attached

69

Which of the following is NOT a factor that can affect laboratory values?
A. Fasting
B. Heparin
C. Tourniquet on 1 minute or less
D. Exercise

Tourniquet on 1 minute or less

70

Which of the following is in a mixture of blood obtained from capillary puncture specimens?
A. Blood from arterioles
B. Blood from venues
C. Interstitial fluid
D. All of the above

All of the above

71

Which hot the following is the usual site for capillary puncture in adults?
A. Fingertip
B. Earlobe
C. Heel
D. Toe

Fingertip

72

Which of the following is the usual site for capillary puncture in infants?
A. Fingertip
B. Earlobe
C. Heel
D. Toe

Heel

73

Which of the following best describes the cause of hemolysis?
A. Inverting evacuation tubes gently
B. Using a needle that is too short
C. Separating serum at the wrong time
D. Puncturing the skin before allowing the alcohol to dry completely

Puncturing the skin before allowing the alcohol to dry completely

74

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when collecting a capillary blood sample?
A. Avoid squeezing the fingertip
B. Use the first drop of blood
C. Use capillary tubes for collecting
D. Massage the finger gently

Use the first drop of blood

75

Pressure to the site must be held longer than 2-3 minutes after a venipuncture is performed if the patient is taking which of the following?
A. Coumadin
B. Aspirin
C. Ginko biloba
D. All of the above

All of the above

76

When performing a venipuncture, which vein is used the majority of the time?
A. Basilic
B. Median Cubital
C. Cephalic
D. Radial

Median cubital

77

Which of the following is NOT one of the arteries of the arm?
A. Radial
B. Brachial
C. Femoral
D. Ulnar

Femoral

78

Which of the following method(s) is used to perform a venipuncture
A. Syringe method
B. Vacuum tube method
C. Butterfly method
D. All of the above

All of the above

79

Pregnancy testing is based upon the detection of which hormone?
A. FSH
B. LH
C. hCG
D. TEH

hCG

80

What is the preferred urine sample for pregnancy testing?
A. Random sample
B. First-voided morning sample
C. 24-hour sample
D. Catheterized specimen

First-voided morning sample

81

When the agglutination inhibition test is used for pregnancy, which of the following is true about reading the results?
A. No agglutination indicates negative pregnancy
B. Agglutination indicates positive pregnancy
C. No agglutination indicates positive pregnancy
D. None of the above

No agglutination indicates positive pregnancy

82

How is the Epstein-Barr virus causing infectious mononucleosis primarily transmitted?
A. Saliva
B. injection
C. Aspiration
D. Vector

Saliva

83

What is the age group in which symptoms of IM are most often observed?
A. 10-15 years
B. 12-20 years
C. 15-25 years
D. 15-40 years

15-25 years

84

Which of the following is true when performing the hCG pregnancy test?
A. Use one reagent
B. Apply urine after putting reagent on the test unit
C. Use two drops of reagent
D. Use a stopwatch to time the test

Use a stopwatch to time the test

85

Which of the following is NOT included in the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis?
A. Hematology tests
B. Seratology tests
C. Patient symptoms
D. Chemistry tests

Chemistry tests

86

A small sample of which of the following specimens is required for CLIA-Waived IM test?
A. Serum
B. Capillary blood
C. Plasma
D. All of the above

All of the above

87

Which of the following does NOT refer to Prothrombin time?
A. INR
B. Protime
C. PT
D. PTT

PTT

88

What is the process of RBC agglutination called?
A. Antigen reaction
B. Antibody reaction
C. Hemagglutination
D. Blood typing

Hemagglutination

89

Which of the following is the blood type of the universal donor?
A. O
B. A
C. B
D. AB

O

90

During which week of pregnancy is the RhoGam injection administered and within 72 hours after delivery of an Rh-positive baby, miscarriage, or termination of pregnancy?
A. 24th week
B. 26th week
C. 30th week
D. 28th week

28th week

91

When is semen analysis not performed?
A. Complete PE
B. Evaluate vasectomy effectiveness
C. Determine paternity
D. Substantiate rape cases

Complete PE

92

Which of the following can affect the results of semen analysis by a decrease in the volume of semen?
A. Age
B. Intelligence
C. Marital status
D. Cigarette smoking

Cigarette smoking

93

Which of the following does NOT affect sperm function as measured by sperm analysis?
A. Cytoxan
B. Orchitis
C. Testicular atrophy
D. Alcohol

Alcohol

94

Why is a phenylalanine-restricted diet important?
A. It will cure the underlying infection
B. It will prevent the need for special dieting
C. It will prevent mental retardation
D. It is a high protein diet

It will prevent mental retardation

95

Which of the following is NOT a factor that may influence the Guthrie test?
A. Ingesting insufficient phenylalanines
B. Prematurity
C. Breastfeeding mother taking aspirin
D. Testing after 3 to 4 days of the beginning of a milk diet

Testing after 3 to 4 days of the beginning of a milk diet

96

Which of the following is an incorrect step in obtaining a blood sample for PKU testing?
A. Make a puncture approximately 2-3 deep in the lateral heel
B. Soak blood completely through paper
C. Use as many blood drops as necessary to fill each circle
D. Allow PKU test to completely dry

Use as many blood drops as necessary to fill each circle

97

Which of the following is true regarding tuberculosis?
A. Caused by mycobacterium avid
B. Is a very motile bacterium
C. Is on the decrease in the United States
D. Has a high content of lipids in the cell wall

Has a high content of lipids in the cell wall

98

Which of the following tests is NOT used in the screening for and diagnosis of tuberculosis?
A. Time
B. Mantoux
C. Chest x-ray
D. BCG

BCG

99

Which of the following is important while injecting the PPD to administer the Mantoux test?
A. Locate a site approximately 6-8 inches from the antecubital space
B. Administer the injection subcutaneously
C. Inject 0.2ml of PPD
D. Make sure a wheal forms at the injection site

Make sure a wheal forms at the injection site

100

After excess glucose is converted into glycogen, where is it stored long term?
A. Blodstream
B. Liver
C. Adipose tissues
D. Muscle cells

Adipose tissues

101

Which of the following is true regarding a 7-mm reaction to the Mantoux test?
A. Positive
B. Doubtful
C. Negative

Doubtful

102

Insulin is secreted by pancreatic cells in response to ____, and glucagon is secreted in response to ___ glucose levels
A. Increased, decreased
B. Increased, decreased
C. Decreased, increased
D. Decreased, decreased

Increased, decreased

103

Which of the following drugs willNOT affect fasting blood sugar?
A. Diuretics
B. Steroids
C. Oral contraceptives
D. Antibiotics

Antibiotics

104

What is the reference range for normal serum values for a fasting blood sugar?
A. 110-170 mg/dl
B. 70-110 mg/dl
C. 50-90 mg/dl
D. 100-150 mg/dl

70-110 mg/dl

105

Which of the following is an indication for notifying the physician and stopping the glucose tolerance test?
A. Hypoglycemia on a blood sample
B. Patient develops nausea
C. Extreme hyperglycemia on the fasting specimen
D. patient develops weakness, faintness, or perspiration

Extreme hyperglycemia on the fasting specimen

106

What does an elevated finding of glycosylated hemoglobin indicate?
A. Excessive glucose intake over the last 24 hours
B. Poor glucose control
C. Not enough oxygen in the hemoglobin
D. Oxygen overload

Poor glucose control

107

Which of the following indicates borderline blood cholesterol levels?
A. 150-199 mg/dl
B. 200-239 mg/dl
C. 225-250 mg/dl
D. 250-300 mg/dl

200-230 mg/dl

108

Which of the following raise high-density lipoprotein levels?
A. Cigarette smoking
B. Weight gain
C. Exercise
D. High saturated fat diet

Exercise

109

What is the danger of a high low-density lipoprotein level?
A. Too much is excreted in the bile
B. It increases risk for coronary artery disease
C. It cannot be reversed
D. It cannot be used for coronary artery disease risk

It increases risk for coronary artery disease

110

Which of the following is an accurate statement about triglycerides?
A. They serve as a source of energy
B. Malnutrition increases the level of triglycerides
C. Pregnancy decreases triglyceride levels
D. Low triglyceride levels increase the risk of coronary artery disease

They serve as a source of energy

111

Which test measures the concentration of urea in the blood?
A. PKU
B. TB
C. EIA
D. BUN

BUN

112

Which of the following tests always involves an antigen, an antibody specific for the antigen, and a second antibody?
A. PKU
B. TB
C. EIA
D. BUN

EIA

113

What percentage of North Americans are Rh positive, and what percentage are Rh negative?
A. 85% positive, 15% negative
B. 15% positive, 85% negative
C. 75% positive, 25% negative
D. 25% positive, 75% negative

85% positive, 15% negative

114

Which of the following can be administered to an Rh-negative mother to prevent most cases of hemolytic disease of the newborn?
A. RBC's
B. Gamma globulin
C. RhoGAM
D. Hemoglobins

RhoGAM

115

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inherited condition in which the baby cannot metabolize which of the following properly?
A. Carbs
B. Fats
C. Protein
D. Vitamin A

Protein

116

Systemic inflammation is the predominant cause of what disease?
A. Blood clots
B. IBS
C. Heart disease
D. Diabetes

Heart disease