Module 9 Study Guide Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Module 9 Study Guide Deck (161):
1

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the medical assistant working with medications in the ambulatory care setting?
A. Know basic pharmacology
B. Know the law regarding controlled substances
C. Have knowledge of drug classifications
D. Dispense medications
E. Educate patients regarding medications

Dispense medications

2

Which of the following is NOT a medical use of drugs?
A. Therapy
B. Diagnostic
C. Curative
D. Preventive
D. Additive

Additive

3

Which of the following is a false statement?
A. Schedule I drugs have high potential for addiction of drug abuse
B. Occasionally, the DEA reclassifies drugs and moves them from one schedule to another
C. The physician's DEA number must appear on each prescription for controlled substances
D. Drugs that have potential for abuse are regulated by the Controlled Substances Act of 1971

Drugs that have potential for abuse are regulated by the Controlled Substances Act of 1971

4

From which of the following are drugs NOT derived?
A. Plants
B. Animals
C. Minerals
D. Rocks

Rocks

5

Which of the following is NOT a true statement?
A. The generic name is the official name of the drug
B. The brand names begins with a capital letter
C. The chemical name indicates the molecular structure
D. Each drug only has one name

Each drug only has one name

6

How often are inventory forms required to be completed for Schedule II drugs and submitted to the federal agency?
A. Each year
B. Every 2 years
C. Every 3 years
D. Every 4 years
D. Upon request

Every 2 years

7

Which of the following is NOT a medical assistant's responsibility regarding controlled substances?
A. Monitor DEA registration renewal date
B. Maintain legally designated records
C. Provide security for all drugs
D. Ensure the physician is administering drugs properly
E. Document destroyed controlled substances

Ensure the physician is administering drugs properly

8

Which of the following is the most appropriate action for disposal of outdated or expired controlled substances?
A. Having a witness document rinsing the tablets down the drain
B. Crushing tablets and placing them in biomedical waste container
C. Flushing tablets down the toilet
D. Giving the tablets to the physician for disposal
E. Return the tablets to the pharmacy

Return the tablets to the pharmacy

9

Which of the following is used to describe warnings or precautions concerning safe drug administration?
A. Conditions
B. Cross-tolerance
D. Dependency
D. Contraindications
E. Idiosyncrasies

Contraindications

10

Which of the following are members of the health care team who are permitted to administer medications under the licensed practitioner's supervision?
A. Clinical receptionists
B. Pharmacists
C. Medical assistants
D. Pharmacy technicians

Medical assistants

11

Which of the following best defines a prescription?
A. Directions on how to make a drug
B. Written order for the dispensing of drugs
C. Order for drug refills
D. Order for a scheduled drug

Written order for the dispensing of drugs

12

Which of the following is the definition of drug route?
A. Type of substance to be administered
b. Availability of the drug
C. Properties of the drug
D. Method by which the drug will be administered
E. Method of preparing the drug

Method by which the drug will be administered

13

Which of the following describes the characteristics of over-the-counter medications?
A. May be used beyond the expiration date
B. Are safe to use with other drugs
C. May be used to avoid seeking needed medical care
D. Have only one active ingredient

May be used to avoid seeking needed medical care

14

Which of the following drugs is used to replace iron?
A. Antianxiety
B. Antihistamine
C. Diuretic
D. Antianemics

Antianemics

15

Which of the following is the appropriate classification of an agent that reduces mental tension and anxiety?
A. Vasodilator
B. Tranquilizer
C. Anticonvulsant
D. Anticholinergic

Tranquilizer

16

Which of the following best defines "to dispense a drug"?
A. Give an order to take to the pharmacy to be filled
B. Give the medication to the patient to be taken at another time
C. Have the patient take the medicine in front of you
D. Write a prescription

Give the medication to the patient to be taken at another time

17

When is the use of intravenous medication usually indicated?
A. When medications need to be effective quickly
B. When the action will be long acting
C. When the patient cannot take tablets or pills
D. When no other form of the drug is available
E. When the action desired is specific to the respiratory tract

When medications need to be effective quickly

18

Drugs are compounded into three types of preparation. Which one of the following is NOT included?
A. Sprays
B. Liquid
C. Semisolid
D. Solid

Sprays

19

Which of the following are common compounds extracted from the adrenal glands of animals?
A. Aminophylline and adrenalin
B. Adrenalin and digoxin
C. Cortisone and adrenalin
D. Cortisone and digoxin
E. Aminophylline and cortisone

Cortisone and adrenalin

20

Which of the following are examples of over-the-counter drugs?
A. Aspirin and Valium
B. Penicillin and Valium
C. Ibuprofen and aspirin
D. Benadryl and Valium
E. Aspirin and Lasix

Ibuprofen and aspirin

21

Which of the following is the most important guideline to communicate to the patient who is taking prescription medications?
A. You may share with other family members
B. Keep unused medications in case of future use
C. Take exactly as directed
D. You may discontinue medication when symptoms are gone

Take exactly as directed

22

Which of the following are the most utilized routes of administration?
A. Sublingual and inhalation
B. Oral and inhalation
C. Parenteral and sublingual
D. Parenteral and oral
E. Oral and sublingual

Parenteral and oral

23

When using the PDR, the brand name and generic name of drugs are found in what section?
A. Section 1
B. Section 2
C. Section 3
D. Section 4

Section 2

24

Which of the following is the agency that has the legal responsibility for deciding whether a drug meets standards?
A. PDR
B. USP
C. DEA
D. FDA

FDA

25

Which of the following includes heparin and Coumadin?
A. Gastrointestinal drugs
B. Diuretics
C. Vasoconstrictors
D. Cardiotonic drugs
E. Anticoagulants

Anticoagulants

26

Which of the following is the classification of penicillin?
A. Emetic
B. Antibiotic
C. Diuretic
D. Analgesic
E. Anticholingergic

Antibiotic

27

Which of the following best describes when one drug potentiates (increases or diminishes) the action of another drug?
A. Adverse reaction
B. Drug interaction
C. Side effect
D. Systemic effect
E. Tolerance

Drug interaction

28

Which of the following is the process whereby the drug is transported from the blood to the intended site of action?
A. Absorption
B. Biotransformation
C. Distribution
D. Absorption

Distribution

29

The physician wants to prescribe an agent that relieves convulsions. Which of the following best describes the class of this type of drug and an example?
A. Antidepressant, Prozac
B. Anticonvulsant, Dramamine
C. Anticonvulsant, Dilantin
D. Antidepressant, Dilantin
E. Hypnotic, Secobarbital

Anticonvulsant, Dilantin

30

The physician wants to prescribe an agent that causes sleep. Which of the following best describes the class of this type of drug and an example?
A. Sedative, phenobarbital
B. Tranquilizer, Haldol
C. Sedative, Haldol
D. Narcotic, codeine
E. Hypnotic, Seconal

Hypnotic, Seconal

31

Which of the following is a drug with synergistic action?
A. Acts on the area where it is administered
B. Affects a part of the body other than where it is administered
C. Affects all bloodstream read
D. Enhances the action of another drug

Enhances the action of another drug

32

Which of the following best describes the classification of a drug used to counteract histamine?
A. Antiemetic
B. Antihistamine
C. Anti-inflammatory
D. Antimanic

Antihistamine

33

Which of the following is an undesirable action of a drug that may limit its usefulness?
A. Contraindication
B. Interaction
C. Side effect
D. Adverse reaction

Side effect

34

Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining the administration route of a drug?
A. Desired action on the body
B. Physical or emotional state
C. Characteristics of drug
D. Best access site

Best access site

35

Which of the following is NOT an example of a newer administration system for medications?
A. Transdermal
B. Eye-curing lens
C. Ear injections
D. Infusion pumps

Ear injections

36

Which is considered a disadvantage of natural herbals on the market?
A. Public comments
B. May not be standardized
C. DSHEA reviews
D. Peer review literature

May not be standardized

37

Federal law requires that all controlled substances be stored in what way?
A. Stored in a well-constructed metal box
B. Stored behind a double lock
C. Kept separate from other drugs
D. All of the above

All of the above

38

Computerized software can do all of the following EXCEPT what?
A. Keep track of the DEA renewal date
B. Keep track of expiration dates
C. Keep inventories of all drugs
D. Keep track of the number of drugs prescribed

Keep track of the number of drugs prescribed

39

Which is a feature of e-prescribing?
A. Automatic alerts to allergies
B. Recommends brand and/or generic drugs
C. Automatic process renews or refills
D. All of the above

All of the above

40

Information in the PDR that states the various conditions, diseases, types of microorganisms, and so on, for which the drug is used is known as what?
A. Contraindications
B. Clinical pharmacology
C. Indications
D. Precautions

Indications

41

Which of the following is an action for managing drugs identified in the Controlled Substances Act list of narcotics and non-narcotics?
A. Store in a locked and secure cabinet and check when leaving the office
B. Send home with the physician at the end of the workday
C. Return to the hospital at the end of the workday
D. Treat the same as any other medical supplies are treated

Store in a locked and secure cabinet and check when leaving the office

42

Which of the following is considered a legal and ethical principle in medication administration?
A. Always obey the laws of the state
B. Know the effects of the drugs
C. Be knowledgable about the drug administered
D. All of the above

All of the above

43

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the medical assistant in medication administration?
A. Knowledge of medication
B. Knowledge of drug effects
C. Safety administer medications
D. Advising on use of over-the-counter drugs

Advising on use of over-the-counter drugs

44

Which of the following abbreviations in a prescription indicates a medication is to be taken every hour?
A. q
B. qh
C. qs
D. qid

qh

45

Which of the following shows the incorrect definition for the abbreviation?
A. bid = twice a day
B. tid = four times a day
C. qod = every other day
D. q2h = every 2 hours

tid = four times a day

46

Which of the following best describes a prescription?
A. Directions for dosage of a drug
B. Written legal document that gives directions of a medication
C. Order allowing refills
D. Order for scheduled drugs

Written legal document that gives directions of a medication

47

Which of the following is NOT a factor that determines dosage of medications?
A. Age
B. Weight
C. Height
D. Gender

Height

48

Which of the following is the leading cause of drug administration errors?
A. Wrong patient
B. Wrong drug
C. Wrong time
D. Wrong route
E. Wrong dosage

Wrong dosage

49

When a provider writes a prescription for controlled substances, what must be on the prescription?
A. DEA
B. Date
C. Full address of patient
D. All of the above

All of the above

50

Which of the following is a measure of volume?
A. Meter
B. Milliliter
C. Gram
D. Milligram

Milliliter

51

Which of the following best describes grams?
A. Liquid
B. Weight
C. Length
D. Meter

Weight

52

Which of the following is equal to 5mL?
A. 1 oz
B. 15 gtt
C. 1 tsp
D. 1 inch

1 tsp

53

How many grams is equal to 3,000 milligrams?
A. 1.5 g
B. 2 g
C. 2.5 g
D. 3 g
E. 4.5 g

3g

54

Which of the following best describes the units-100 syringe?
A. Each mark equals 100 units
B. It is marked in units of 10
C. There are 100 units per mL
D. All of the above

There are 100 units per mL

55

Which of the following is the standard measurement of a dosage of insulin?
A. Minim
B. mL
C. Deciliter
D. Unit

Unit

56

Which of the following is a long-lasting insulin preparation?
A. Lente
B. NPH
C. Ultralente
D. Humulin

Ultralente

57

Which of the following is the number of pills need per day for the order Allegra 60 mg TID?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Six

Three

58

Which of the following best describes one of the most accurate methods of calculating medication dosage for infants and children?
A. weight
B. age
C. body surface area
D. height times weight

body surface area

59

When filling out a prescription, what does the signature (sig) mean?
A. Doctor's signature
B. Gives directions to the patient
C. Name and quantity of ingredient
D. None of the above

Gives directions to the patient

60

What is the weight in kilograms for a child who weighs 55 pounds?
A. 15 kg
B. 20 kg
C. 25 kg
D. 30 kg

25 kg

61

Which of the following best describes the purpose of writing on the medicine note?
A. To prepare, administer, and record medications
B. To know what time the drug was ordered
C. To know whether you have the right patient
D. All of the above

all of the above

62

Which of the following six rights is being followed when the medication order is compared with the medication label?
A. Dose
B. Route
C. Drug
D. Time

Drug

63

Which of the following is NOT a procedure to follow when a medication error occurs?
A. Recognize the error
B. Assess the patient's condition
C. Report the error immediately to the physician
D. Documenting the error in the medical record is not necessary as long as the provider is notified

Documenting the error in the medical record is not necessary as long as the provider is notified

64

Which of the following is the most important consideration immediately before administering a medication?
A. Have a written order
B. Complete the five rights
C. Assess the patient's condition
D. Ensure the correct dosage

Assess the patient's condition

65

Which of the following would be a safe area to inject a medication?
A. Side of the thigh
B. Upper arm of a mastectomy patient
C. Buttock of a paralyzed patient
D. Upper inner quadrant of the buttock

Side of the thigh

66

When is the medication label to be read?
A. When pouring, administering, and putting the drug back on the shelf
B. When taking from the shelf, after pouring, and after administering the drug
C. When checking the order, when pouring, and before putting the drug back on the shelf
D. When the medication is taken from the storage area, just before removing it from its container, and when returning the medication to the storage area

When the medication is taken from the storage area, just before removing it from its container, and when returning the medication to the storage area

67

Which of the following abbreviation is no longer allowed to use by JCAHO?
A. po
B. U
C. qh
D. Cap

U

68

Which of the following is a sterile profiled glass bottle with a rubber stopper containing hypodermic solution?
A. Ampule
B. Cartridge
C. Vial
D. Tube

Vial

69

Which of the following is NOT a hazard when giving a parenteral medication?
A. Allergic reaction
B. Injury to bone or vessels
C. Needle breaking in the tissue
D. Good chance of infection

Good chance of infection

70

Which of the following is the most commonly used syringe?
A. Tuberculin
B. Insulin
C. 1-, 3-, and 5-cc
D. Tubex

1-, 3-, and 5-cc

71

Which of the following best describes how syringes and needles should be dispose?
A. Remove the needle and place it in a sharps container
B. Discard the needle in a rigid, puncture-proof container
C. Recap the needle and place both the cap and the needle in a sharps container
D. Cut off the needle and place it in a sharps container

Discard the needle in a rigid, puncture-proof container

72

Why is choosing the proper site for injections important?
A. Ensures the medication is delivered to the correct tissue type
B. Pain and swelling are avoided
C. Quantities can be given in specific sites
D. All injections can be given only in certain tissue

Ensures the medication is delivered to the correct tissue type

73

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when locating the ventrogluteal site?
A. Use the upper outer buttocks quadrant
B. Give below the deltoid tuberosity
C. Use palm of hand against trochanter with top of finger on the anterior iliac spine
B. Use anywhere in the quadriceps femurs

Use palm of hand against trochanter with top of finger on the anterior iliac spine

74

Which of the following is the preferred site for instant and children intramuscular injections?
A. Gluteus maximum
B. Gluteus medius
C. Deltoid
D. Vastus lateralis

Vastus lateralis

75

Which of the following medications does NOT require massage to the site after administration?
A. Insulin
B. Imferon
C. Heparin
D. All of the above

All of the above

76

Which of the following is the recommended maximum volume of fluid introduced to the dorsogluteal site?
A. 2 ml
B. 3ml
C. 4 ml
D. 5ml

2 ml

77

Which of the following does NOT require aspiration with giving an injection?
A. Intramuscular
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intradermal
D. All of the above

Intradermal

78

Which of the following injections does NOT require massage after administration?
A. Intramuscular
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intradermal
D. Z-track

Intradermal

79

In children, 2 years and older, what is the correct angle of injection into the vests laterals?
A. 10 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 15 degrees
D. 90 degrees

90 degrees

80

Which of the most appropriate action when you aspirate some blood while administering an IM injection?
A. Continue aspirating and if no further blood appears, give the injection
B. Continue the injection and massage the site very well
C. Stop the injection and call the physician to observe site
D. Withdraw the needle, dispose of the needle, and start again

Withdraw the needle, dispose of the needle, and start again

81

Which of the following is the advantage of a Z-track injection?
A. Larger dosages can be given
B. Thicker medication can be given
C. It prevents medication irritation of tissue
D. It is less painful

It prevents medication irritation of tissue

82

Which of the following is the most appropriate action after withdrawing medication from a vial that will be given Z-track?
A. Wipe the rubber-stopper top again
B. Use a new needle to administer
C. Wipe the needle with an alcohol sponge to prevent contamination
D. Hold the syringe pointed upward while replacing the cap on the container

Use a new needle to administer

83

Which of the following is the most appropriate action to remove the top of an ampule?
A. Flick it off with your index finger
B. Use a small blade to etch a line at the neck of the ampule and break it off
C. Use gauze and snap off in the gauze
D. Unscrew the top

Use gauze and snap off in the gauze

84

Which of the following is NOT an area where subcutaneous injections may be given?
A. Lower abdomen
B. Mid-back
C. Lower leg
D. Upper buttock
E. Upper arm

Lower leg

85

Which of the following injections does NOT require stretching the skin taut?
A. Intramuscular
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intradermal
D. None of the above

Subcutaneous

86

Which of the following types of injections requires a wheal to appear?
A. Intramuscular
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intradermal
D. Z-track

Intradermal

87

Which of the following types of injections requires you to pull the skin to the side before the needle insertion?
A. Intramuscular
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intradermal
D. Z-track

Z-tarck

88

Which of the following types of injections is always used for allergic extracts?
A. Intramuscular
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intradermal
D. Z-track

Subcutaneous

89

Which of the following is one of the most important areas of patient teaching regarding technique?
A. Subcutaneous injection
B. Intradermal injection
C. Z-track injection
D. Usage of the inhaler

Usage of the inhaler

90

Which of the following is the correct interpretation of a prescription that reads Penicillin V 500 mg po qid #50?
A. Dispense 500 tablets of penicillin and have the patient take one tablet four times a day
B. Take one tablet o penicillin three times a day for 16 days
C. Dispense 50 tablets 500 mg each and have the patient take one tablet four times a day
D. This is not a valid order

Dispense 50 tablets 500 mg each and have the patient take one tablet four times a day

91

Which of the following syringe types is most frequently used to inject minute amounts for allergy testing and allergy injections?
A. Hypodermic
B. Tuberculin
C. Insulin
D. Glass

Tuberculin

92

Which of the following is NOT considered tone parenteral?
A. Intravenous
B. Ingestion
C. Intramuscular
D. Intradermal

Ingestion

93

Which of the following is NOT a part of a syringe?
A. Barrel
B. Plunger
C. Flange
D. Needle

Needle

94

What angle is used when giving an intradermal injection?
A. 15-30 degrees
B. 10-20 degrees
C. 10-15 degrees
D. 15-20 degrees

10-15 degrees

95

Which of the following terms means lack of oxygen in the blood?
A. Retrolental fibroplasia
B. Apnea
C. Hypoxemia
D. None of the above

Hypoxemia

96

Which of the following is a delivery method for oxygen?
A. Nasal cannula
B. Nasal catheter
C. Mask
D. All of the above

All of the above

97

What part of the prescription states the names and quantities of ingredients to be included in the medication?
A. Superscription
B. Inscription
C. Subscription
D. Repetatur

Inscription

98

What type of diabetes is non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Type II

99

What type of insulin delivery device uses high-pressure air to send a fine mist of insulin through the skin?
A. Insulin pen
B. Insulin pumpC. Tuberculin syringe
D. Jet injector

Insulin pump

100

What types of diabetes has a gradual onset, usually seen in adults over 40 years of age?
A. Type II
B. Type III
C. Type IV
D. Gestational

Type II

101

A device-graph that shows the relation among numeric values to determine a correct child dose is known as what?
A. BSA
B. Dosagram
C. Nomogram
D. Kilogram

Nomogram

102

Which of the following is NOT one of the "six rights" of proper drug administration?
A. Right time
B. Right patient
C. Right dose
D. Right gender

Right gender

103

A small, sterile, profiled glass container that usually holds a single dose of a hypodermic solution is known as what?
A. Cartridge
B. Vial
C. Ampule
D. Dropper

Ampule

104

Which type of syringe is used to inject minute amounts for intradermal injections?
A. Tuberculin
B. Hypodermic
C. Insulin
D. Disposable

Tuberculin

105

Which is considered a part of a needle?
A. Point
B. Hilt
C. Lumen
D. All of the above

All of the above

106

What does the provider take into consideration when ordering an IV?
A. Clinical laboratory results
B. Patient's age
C. Patient's gender
D. Both a and b

Both a and b

107

Inflammation of the vein is known as what?
A. Thrombosis
B. Phlebitis
C. Veinitis
D. Venulitis

Phlebitis

108

Which of the following best describes an electrocardiogram?
A. Performed on every adult patient over 40
B. Visualization of the heart's activity
C. Graphic representation of the heart's electrical activity
D. Only indicated when patients have symptoms

Graphic representation of the heart's electrical activity

109

Where does deoxygenated blood enter the heart?
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Pulmonary vein
C. Right atrium
D. Right ventricle

Right atrium

110

Which of the following best describes the electrical conduction system of the heart?
A. AV node to bundle of His
B. SA node to left bundle branches
C. AV node to Purkinje fibers
D. SA node to Purkinje fibers

SA node to Purkinje fibers

111

Which of the following best describes what the P wave represents?
A. Atrial depolarization
B. Ventricular depolarization
C. Atrial repolarization
D. Ventricular repolarization

Atrial depolarization

112

Which of the following indicates ventricular depolarization?
A. P wave
B. PR segment
C. CT segment
D. QT interval
E. QRS complex

QRS complex

113

Which of the following converts cardiac arrhythmia into normal sinus rhythm?
A. Ventricular fibrillation
B. Cardioversion
C. Noninvasive Holter monitor
D. None of the above

Cardioversion

114

Which of the following electrodes is NOT used as a part of the recording?
A. RA
B. RL
C. LA
D. LL

RL

115

Which of the following best describes how the augmented leads are recorded?
A. Before the bipolar
B. After the pericardial leads
C. After the bipolar leads

After the bipolar leads

116

Where is the lead for a V6 reading placed?
A. Fourth intercostals space at the right sternal margin
B. Fifth intercostals space at the midclavicular line
C. Horizontal to V4 at left anterior axillary line
D. Horizontal to V4 at left midaxillary line

Horizontal to V4 at left midaxillary line

117

Which of the following best describes the function of standardization of the EKG machine?
A. To set machine timing
B. To determine whether the machine is set and working properly
C. To check for artifacts
D. To determine the correct placement of chest electrodes

To determine whether the machine is set and working properly

118

Why should the ECG tracing be performed in a quiet, warm, exam room away from electrical equipment?
A. Wandering baseline is reduced
B. Patient is able to sleep
C. Artifacts are reduced
D. Transmission of microorganisms is minimized

Artifacts are reduced

119

Why are the electrodes applied to the fleshy part of a limb?
A. To reduce AC interference
B. To correct wandering baseline
C. To prevent interrupted baseline
D. To minimize the artifacts

To minimize the artifacts

120

What is the next step in the ECG procedure after the electropad sensors are removed?
A. Assist the patient as needed
B. Turn the machine off
C. Unplug the machine
D. Give the tracing to the physician

Assist the patient as needed

121

Which of the following is the lead that records electrical activity between the right arm and the left leg?
A. Lead I
B. AVL
C. AVG
D. Lead II
E. Lead III

Lead II

122

Which of the following tests requires injecting the patient with a radioactive substance?
A. Echocardiogram
B. Electrocardiogram
C. Coronary artery bypass
D. Thallium stress test

Thallium stress test

123

Which of the following is a true statement about ventricular fibrillation?
A. Ventricular tachycardia occurs in healthy people
B. It is often seen in patients using depressants
C. It is a cardiac cycle occurring early
D. Ventricular fibrillation is life threatening

Ventricular fibrillation is life threatening

124

Which of the following is an important part of the patient education when preparing a patient to wear a Holter monitor?
A. Wear it even in the shower for an accurate reading
B. Remove the recorder from its case
C. Keep a diary of the times of all symptomatic activities and emotions
D. Depress the event marker every hour on the half hour

Keep a diary of the times of all symptomatic activities and emotions

125

Which of the following is NOT true about Holter monitor electrodes?
A. They are disposable
B. The electrodes contain an electrolyte gel
C. There are only 6 to 7 electrodes used
D. The electrodes are applied in different locations than in a resting ECG

There are only 6 to 7 electrodes used

126

Which of the following is an example of an artifact caused by electrical interference?
A. Patient sneeze
B. Patient cough
C. AC interference
D. DC interference

AC interference

127

Which of the following artifacts can be caused by poor quality electrolyte gel?
A. Voluntary muscle movement
B. Alternating current
C. Somatic tremor
D. Wandering baseline

Wandering baseline

128

Why would the medical assistant place the power cord pointing way from the patient and not allow the cable to go underneath the table?
A. Causes interrupted baseline
B. Helps reduce AC interference
C. Helps reduce wandering baseline
D. Causes somatic tremor artifacts

Helps reduce AC interference

129

Which of the following is true about a treadmill stress test?
A. It is an invasive ECG tracing
B. It is taken under uncontrolled conditions
C. The stress test is monitored closely by the provider
D. Electrodes are applied to the arms, chest, and legs

The stress test is monitored closely by the provider

130

Which of the following is a reason to have an EKG?
A. Detects myocardial ischemia
B. Estimates damage form MI
C. Evaluates arrhythmia
D. Assesses cardiac medication on the heart
E. All of the above

All of the above

131

What is the name of the body's natural pacemaker?
A. Medulla
B. AV node
C. SA node
D. Bundle branches

SA node

132

What does the cardiac cycle represent?
A. Contraction of the atria
B. One heartbeat
C. Relaxation of the entire heart
D. Contration of the ventricles

One heartbeat

133

Which of the following best describes the contraction of the cardiac cells from the electrical discharge?
A. Repolarization
B. Negative deflection
C. Depolarization
D. Polarization

Depolarization

134

Which of the following describes when the myocardial cells recovers electrically?
A. Repolarization
B. Negative deflection
C. Depolarization
D. Polarization

Repolarization

135

Which of the following best describes electrocardiograph paper?
A. Light sensitive
B. Chemically sensitive
C. Heat sensitive
D. Moisture sensitive

Heat sensitive

136

If the electrocardiograph is properly standardized, the standardization mark should be how high?
A. 5 mm
B. 10 mm
C. 15 mm
D. 20 mm

10 mm

137

The standard electrocardiogram shows the heart's electrical activity from different angles through "leads". How many leads are recorded?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 10
D. 12

12

138

Which of the following is a device placed on the skin that picks up electrical impulses given off by the heart?
A. Lead wire
B. Amplifier
C. Electrode
D. Electrolyte

Electrode

139

Why should an electrolyte be used when running an ECG?
A. The skin is a poor conductor of electricity
B. An electrolyte reduces the amount of dryness in the skin
C. An electrolyte protects the patient from shocks generated by the ECG
D. An electrolyte amplifies the electrical impulses coming from the heart

the skin is a poor conductor of electricity

140

Which of the following best describes leads I, II, and III?
A. Bipolar leads
B. Chest leads
C. Augmented leads
C. Precordial leads

Bipolar leads

141

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a three-channel or multichannel ECG?
A. The tracing is recorded on 81/2 by 11-inch paper
B. Three or more leads are recorded at one time
C. It fits into a patient's chart with no cutting or mounting
D. Speed is an advantage
E. It records one lead at a time

It records one lead at a time

142

Which of the following would NOT result in somatic tremor artifact?
A. Patient discomfort
B. Apprehensive patient
C. Improper grounding of the ECG machine
D. Patient coughing or talking

Improper grounding of the ECG machine

143

Which of the following occurs if the metal tip of a lead wire becomes detached from an electrode?
A. Alternating current artifacts
B. Muscle artifacts
C. Wandering baseline
D. Interrupted baseline

Interrupted baseline

144

Which of the following represents an error in technique when running an electrocardiogram?
A. Positioning the machine so that the power cord runs under the patient table
B. Beginning application of electrodes on the patient's left side
C. Instructing the patient to lie still and not talk during the procedure
D. Positioning the limb electrodes on the fleshy part of the upper arms and lower legs

Positioning the machine so that the power cord runs under the patient table

145

Which of the following would NOT need be recorded in the Holter monitor patient activity diary?
A. Eating meals
B. Medications taken
C. Bowel movements
D. Times of sleep
E. Name of nearest relative

Name of nearest relative

146

What is the term used to refer to an ECG reading that is within normal limits?
A. Sinus arrhythmia
B. Baseline recording
C. Normal sinus rhythm
D. Atrial fibrillation

Normal sinus rhythm

147

During a coronary balloon angioplasty, a catheter with a deflated balloon is inserted into which of the following arteries?
A. Carotid
B. Brachial
C. Femoral
D. Radial

Femoral

148

Which of the following procedures involves taking a portion of a vein (typically the saphenous) and transplanting it into one or more of the hearts' coronary arteries?
A. Atherectomy
B. Laser angioplasty
C. Coronary angioplasty
D. Coronary artery bypass

Coronary artery bypass

149

Which of the small devices sends a small dose of electricity to jar the heart back into a normal rhythm?
A. Pacemaker
B. ICD
C. CCT
D. CMR
E. ECG

ICD

150

Which of the following types of atrial arrhythmia is characterized by extremely rapid incomplete contractions?
A. Premature atrial contractions
B. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Sinus bradycardia

Atrial fibrillation

151

Which of the following type of ventricular arrhythmia is considered a common disturbance in the rhythm?
A. Premature ventricular contraction
B. Ventricular fibrillation
C. Ventricular tachycardia
D. None of the above

Premature ventricular contraction

152

High abuse potential; requires a special DEA form to order drugs
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
E. Schedule V

Schedule II

153

Low to moderate dependence potential; written or oral; only refilled 5 times in 6 months
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
E. Schedule V

Schedule III

154

Not accepted for medical use within the United States
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
E. Schedule V

Schedule I

155

Lowest abuse potential; refills limited to 5 times in 6 months
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
E. Schedule V

Schedule V

156

Have an accepted use in the United States; may include refills, but limited to 5 times in 6 months
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
E. Schedule V

Schedule IV

157

Lists the side effects of the drug
A. Description
B. Precautions
C. Warnings
D. Contraindications
E. Adverse reactions

Adverse reactions

158

Gives the potential dangers of the drug
A. Description
B. Precautions
C. Warnings
D. Contraindications
E. Adverse reactions

Warnings

159

Gives the origin and chemical composition of the drug
A. Description
B. Precautions
C. Warnings
D. Contraindications
E. Adverse reactions

Description

160

States when the drug should not be given to a specific person
A. Description
B. Precautions
C. Warnings
D. Contraindications
E. Adverse reactions

Contraindications

161

States the possible unfavorable effects that the drug may have on a patient
A. Description
B. Precautions
C. Warnings
D. Contraindications
E. Adverse reactions

Precautions