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Flashcards in Module 5 Study Guide Deck (84):
1

Which of the following are emergency situations that require first priority assessments?
A. Airway and breathing problems, back injuries head injuries
B. Poisoning, airway and breathing problems, head injuries
C. Fractures, back injuries, head injuries
D. Back injuries, head injuries, poisoning
E. Head injuries, fractures, poisoning

Poisoning, airway and breathing problems, head injuries

2

What is the first and most critical step in responding to an emergency in an ambulatory care emergency situation?
A. Give first aid
B. Notify the provider
C. Evaluate the causes
D. Recognize when emergency measures should be taken

Recognize when emergency measures should be taken

3

Which of the following statements pertaining to Good Samaritan laws is false?
A. They provide some legal protection to emergency care providers
B. Providers must act in a reasonable and prudent manner
C. No matter what level of training, providers must do everything for the patient
D. The conditions of the law vary in every state

No matter what level of training, providers must do everything for the patient

4

What is the main purpose of the crash cart in the ambulatory care setting?
A. Office medications are kept together
B. All emergency supplies are together and available
C. It is tailored to practice needs
D. None of the above

All emergency supplies are together and available

5

Which statement is false regarding shock?
A. There is inadequate circulation to body parts
B. Areas around the lips, eyes, and fingernails may turn cyanotic
C. Blood pressure increases
D. Pulse becomes rapid and weak

Blood pressure increases

6

Which of the following body areas would be more suited to a spiral bandage for wounds or injuries?
A. Arms or legs
B. Wrist or knee
C. Neck and shoulder
D. Hands, fingers, or toes

Arms or legs

7

Which of the following statements is false regarding burns?
A. First-degree burns usually heal within a month, and some scarring may occur
B. A second-degree burn involves the epidermis and dermis
C. Blisters form with second-degree burns
D. Third-degree burns affect or destroy all layers of the skin

First-degree burns usually heal within a month, and some scarring may occur

8

Which of the following is the most appropriate response when caring for burns?
A. Apply ice water
B. Clean burned area carefully if burn is severe
C. Cover with a sterile dressing
D. Remove any clothing that may be sticking to the burn immediately

Cover with a sterile dressing

9

Which of the following types of burns should be seen by the provider?
A. All burns involving the very young or the elderly
B. A burn involving an area larger than a child's hand
C. Any burns on face, hands, feet, or genitals
D. All of the above

All of the above

10

Which of the following is not an important assessment when caring for injuries to the musculoskeletal system?
A. Note the extend of swelling and bruising
B. Note deformity and pain
C. Note use of extremity
D. Note blood pressure

Note blood pressure

11

Which of the following is most applicable for symptoms of shivering, cool skin, listlessness, confusion, and slowed pulse and respirations?
A. Hypothermia
B. Local cooling
C. Frostbite
D. Heatstroke

Hypothermia

12

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of heat exhaustion?
A. Cold, clammy skin
B. Pulse full, strong, and bounding
C. Profuse sweating
D. Headache
E. General weakness

Pulse full, strong, and bounding

13

Which of the following types of poisoning is common with drug abuse?
A. Ingestion
B. Inhalation
C. Absorption
D. Injection

Injection

14

Which of the following is most applicable for skin that becomes off color, waxy, and numb?
A. Shock
B. Heatstroke
C. Heat exhaustion
D. Sunburn
E. Frostbite

Frostbite

15

Which of the following is most appropriate when dealing with poisonings?
A. Tell the patient to take ipecac
B. Give them something to eat or drink
C. Identify the same and amount of poison taken
D. Ask whether the patient is conscious

Identify the same and amount of poison taken

16

Which of the following types of shock might occur if a person who has a hypersensitivity to a string is not seen by a physician immediately?
A. Respiratory
B. Cardiogenic
C. Anaphylactic
D. Metabolic

Anaphylactic

17

What is the common term for the medical term syncope?
A. Dizziness
B. Ringing
C. Perspiration
D. Fainting
E. Vomiting

Fainting

18

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate response when caring for a person who is having a seizure?
A. Remove objects from the surrounding area to prevent injury
B. Hold patient in position and restrain from convulsing
C. Do not force anything between teeth
D. Cushion the patient's head
E. Roll the patient's head to the side in case there are any fluids in the mouth

Hold patient in position and restrain from convulsing

19

Which of the following is a condition that occurs as a result of an excess of insulin and an insufficient amount of sugar circulating through the blood stream
A. Insulin shock
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Diabetes
D. Acidosis

Insulin shock

20

Which of the following would be the most appropriate assessment for symptoms of exaggerated, air-hungry respirations and "fruity acetone breath?"
A. Insulin shock
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Diabetes
D. Acidosis

Acidosis

21

Which statement is a true statement regarding bleeding?
A. Bright red, spurting blood indicates venous bleeding
B. Dark red blood indicates arterial bleeding
C. Venous bleeding is more serious
D. Serious loss of blood and profound irreversible shock can happen quickly
E. Tourniquet application is always necessary

Serious loss of blood and profound irreversible shock can happen quickly

22

A patient calls and states her husband is having some loss of vision, confusion, slurred speech, and nausea. Which of the following might be the possible assessment?
A. Seizure
B. Heart attack
C. Stroke
E. Epistaxis

Stroke

23

Which of the following is the most appropriate assessment for the symptoms of cold and clammy skin, profuse perspiration, pain radiating into the left shoulder or the jaw, and nausea?
A. Epileptic seizure
B. Heart attack
C. Diabetes
D. Stroke

Heart attack

24

CPR plus automated external defibrillation (AED) can boost survival significantly if it is begun within how many minutes of collapse?
A. 1-2 minutes
B. 5-10 minutes
C. 35 minutes
D. 3-5 minutes

3-5 minutes

25

A few of the common signs and symptoms of a snake bite include which of the following?
A. Thirst and diarrhea
B. Rapid pulse, nausea, vomiting
C. Weak pulse, nausea, and vomiting
D. Thirst and dehydration

Rapid pulse, nausea, vomiting

26

Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the medial assistant if the patient feels faint in the examining room?
A. Administer smelling salts
B. Lay the patient down or have the patient sit with his head down, level with the knees
C. Return the patient to the chair
D. Sit the patient up and administer oxygen
E. Get the provider immediately

Lay the patient down or have the patient sit with his head down, level with the knees

27

If an adult has burns to the front torso and front of the right arm, what percent of the body surface is involved?
A. 22.5%
B. 40%
C. 27%
D. 36%

22.5%

28

In which of the following accredited programs must medical assistants be certified in CPR to a provider level and taught by instructors who are certified to teach CPR?
A. CAAHEP and ABHES
B. AAMA
C. AMA
D. None of the above

CAAHEP and ABHES

29

Which of the following is the most appropriate of the medical assistant in responding to an emergency situation?
A. Act when transportation is available
B. Act quickly and assess the nature of the situation
C. Act after the provider tells you to do so
D. Act only in emergency situations in the medical office

Act quickly and assess the nature of the situation

30

Jane, a patient in the clinic, comes in with a jagged 3-inch open laceration on her hand, which she calmly shows to you. What is your first priority for care?
A. Establish the need for sutures
B. Take the patient history
C. Minimize risk of infection
D. Give a tetanus injection
E. Calm the patient

Minimize the risk of infection

31

In the medial office a cardiac patient, accompanied by his wife, complains to you of chest pain. In assessing the patient, what would you do first?
A. Tell the patient to stay calm
B. Obtain information about the symptoms being experienced
C. Immediately take the patient to the provider
D. Bring the patient and his wife back to the provider

Obtain information about the symptoms being experienced

32

Which of the following advice is appropriate for patient education for a patient who has a severe or life-threatening illness or allergy?
A. Tell everyone you know
B. Wear an emergency bracelet
C. Carry the universal medical identification symbol and its accompanying identification card
D. Try not to go out alone

Carry the universal medical identification symbol and its accompanying identification card

33

Which of the following is NOT one of the expected changes with the aging patient?
A. Decreased vision
B. Hearing changes
C. Decreased muscle strength
D. Increased appetite
E. Fragile skin

Increased appetite

34

Which of the following words define the progressive loss of hearing ability cause the normal aging process?
A. Pernicious anemia
B. Presbycusis
C. Transient ischemic attack
D. Macular degeneration

Presbycusis

35

Which of the following is NOT a vision change that frequently occurs in the elderly?
A. Pupil size increases
B. Increased need for glasses
C. Retinal changes
D. Lens changes

Pupil size increases

36

In which of the decades of life does the loss of hearing ability usually begin?
A. Third
B. Fourth
C. Fifth
D. Sixth

Third

37

Which of the following is the greatest danger in lacking the sense of smell?
A. Decreased appetite and malnutrition
B. Weight loss and decreased strength
C. Inability to smell fumes and gases
D. Increased salt intake and fluid retention

Inability to smell fumes and gases

38

Which of the following best describes the reason an older person's skin becomes more fragile?
A. Too much meat in diet
B. Sun exposure
C. Connective tissue loss
D. Use of the wrong cleansers

Connective tissue loss

39

Which of the following is NOT a common nervous system effect of aging?
A. Frequent memory loss
B. Some loss or delay in memory
C. Diminished pain sensation
D. Balance problems

Frequent memory loss

40

Which of the following would NOT be an expected change due to aging?
A. Muscle gain
B. Decreased height
C. Decreased strength
D. Joint stiffness

Muscle gain

41

Which of the following is an untrue fact regarding aging?
A. Aging is a progressive and slow process
B. Individual lifestyle has no effect on aging
C. There are no diseases specific to aging
D. There is a wider range of what is considered "normal" function among older adults than among younger people

Individual lifestyle has no effect on aging

42

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of diminished mental capacity?
A. Substance abuse
B. Side effects of over-the-counter drugs
C. Malnutrition
D. Side effects of prescription medications
E. Hypothermia

Hypothermia

43

Which of the following is NOT one of the common musculoskeletal problems of the elderly?
A. Decreased muscle strength
B. Decreased mobility
C. Increased stiffness
D. Increased fractures
E. Increased flexibility

Increased flexibility

44

Which of the following is a major effect of aging on the respiratory system?
A. Decreased cough and secretions
B. Increased chest muscle strength
C. Lungs clogged with environmental wastes
D. Infrequent pneumonia and lung infections
E. Diminished breathing capacity

Diminished breathing capacity

45

Which of the following is the number one cause of death today?
A. Pneumonia
B. Heart disease
C. Cancer
D. Renal failure

Heart disease

46

Which of the following is NOT a major problem of aging in the gastrointestinal system?
A. Malnourishment
B. Poor eating habits
C. Peristalsis increases
D. Slowed metabolism

Peristalsis increases

47

Which of the following best describes the underlying cause of urinary system problems in the aging?
A. Impaired elimination of waste products
B. Medications not being excreted
C. Decreased blood flow to kidneys
D. Residual urine remains in bladder
E. All of the above

All of the above

48

What is the meaning of "urinary incontinence"?
A. Wetting the bed
B. Inability to control urination
C. Frequent urination
D. Dribbling and burning on urination

Inability to control urination

49

Which of the following is the primary hormone that ceases production in the elderly female?
A. Testosterone
B. Follicle stimulating hormone
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone

Estrogen

50

Which of the following could be an effective method to slow the progress of osteoporosis?
A. Physical activity
B. Nutritional diet
C. Vitamin D and calcium
D. All of the above

Vitamin D and calcium

51

Which of the following can be prevented by encouraging fluid intake and physical activity to keep the lungs healthy?
A. Urethritis
B. Cardiovascular problems
C. Pneumonia
D. Vaginitis
E. Incontinence

Pneumonia

52

Which of the following is NOT considered a cause of dementia or sudden loss of memory?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Stroke
C. Dopamine deficiency
D. Syphylis
E. Poor nutrition

Poor nutrition

53

Which of the following is NOT an effective method of caring for the elderly?
A. Allow for private conversation
B. Speak slowly as with children
C. Empathize and listen
D. Write instructions

Speak slowly as with children

54

Which of the following is a consequence of failure to report elder abuse?
A. Fine
B. Misdemeanor charge
C. Felony charge
D. No charge

Fine

55

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when encountering a visually impaired patient?
A. Rub the patient's back
B. Cough or say something aloud
C. Do not approach until your presence is known
D. Stand in front of the patient and touch lightly on the shoulder

o not approach until your presence is known

56

Which of the following messages is interpreted by the visually impaired patient when the guiding person's arm moves behind the back?
A. Walk faster
B. Get ready to sit
C. Turn in the direction the arm moves
D. Coming to a narrow passage

Coming to a narrow passage

57

According to the National Institute on Aging, which is not considered to be a tip for healthy aging?
A. Eat a well balanced diet
B. Spend more time alone
C. Exercise regularly
D. Get regular checkups

Spend more time alone

58

What is the term used to define the declining of testosterone and midlife changes in men?
A. Menopause
B. Dementia
C. Andropause
D. Degeneration

Andropause

59

Parkinson's disease, syphilis, and Huntington's disease are known to cause what condition?
A. Dementia
B. STD
C. Dizziness
D. Decreased heartbeat

Dementia

60

Poor hygiene, insomnia, and inability to concentrate are all symptom's of what condition?
A. Dementia
B. Anxiety
C. Alzheimer's disease
D. Depression

Depression

61

Overwhelming infectious process
A. Neurogenic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Anaphylactic
D. Metabolic
E. Septic

Septic

62

Massive hypersensitive reaction
A. Neurogenic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Anaphylactic
D. Metabolic
E. Septic

Anaphylactic

63

Greatly inadequate cardiac output
A. Neurogenic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Anaphylactic
D. Metabolic
E. Septic

Cardiogenic

64

Trauma to nervous system
A. Neurogenic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Anaphylactic
D. Metabolic
E. Septic

Neurogenic

65

Acid-base balance impaired
A. Neurogenic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Anaphylactic
D. Metabolic
E. Septic

Metabolic

66

Abrasion
A. Tissue torn and uneven
B. Superficial scraping
C. Skin or part torn off
D. Sharp object injury

Superficial scraping

67

Avulsion
A. Tissue torn and uneven
B. Superficial scraping
C. Skin or part torn off
D. Sharp object injury

Skin or part torn off

68

Incision
A. Tissue torn and uneven
B. Superficial scraping
C. Skin or part torn off
D. Sharp object injury

Sharp object injury

69

Laceration
A. Tissue torn and uneven
B. Superficial scraping
C. Skin or part torn off
D. Sharp object injury

Tissue torn and uneven

70

Occurs with a severe twisting action, causes break to wind around bone
A. Greenstick
B. Simple
C. Compound
D. Comminuted
E. Colles
F. Depressed
G. Spiral
H. Impacted

Spiral

71

Broken ends are jammed into one another
A. Greenstick
B. Simple
C. Compound
D. Comminuted
E. Colles
F. Depressed
G. Spiral
H. Impacted

Impacted

72

Complete break in bone in which there is no involvement with the skin surface
A. Greenstick
B. Simple
C. Compound
D. Comminuted
E. Colles
F. Depressed
G. Spiral
H. Impacted

Simple

73

More than one fracture line with several bone fragments present
A. Greenstick
B. Simple
C. Compound
D. Comminuted
E. Colles
F. Depressed
G. Spiral
H. Impacted

Comminuted

74

Cracked bone, but the break is not all the way through, frequently seen in children
A. Greenstick
B. Simple
C. Compound
D. Comminuted
E. Colles
F. Depressed
G. Spiral
H. Impacted

Greenstick

75

Involves the distal end of the radius and results in displacement, causing a bulge at the wrist
A. Greenstick
B. Simple
C. Compound
D. Comminuted
E. Colles
F. Depressed
G. Spiral
H. Impacted

Colles

76

Bone protrudes through the skin surface, creating the possibility of infection
A. Greenstick
B. Simple
C. Compound
D. Comminuted
E. Colles
F. Depressed
G. Spiral
H. Impacted

Compound

77

Occurs with severe head injures in which a broken piece of skull is driven inward
A. Greenstick
B. Simple
C. Compound
D. Comminuted
E. Colles
F. Depressed
G. Spiral
H. Impacted

Depressed

78

Syrup of ipecac is recommended as soon as possible and is the treatment of choice for ingested poison
A. True
B. False

False

79

Emergency treatment of a snake bite includes applying a constriction band 4 inches above the bite site
A. True
B. False

True

80

Antidotes for most poisonings work either by reversing the effects of the poison or preventing the poison from working
A. True
B. False

True

81

The combination of rescue breathing and chest compressions is known as CPR
A. True
B. False

True

82

CPR alone can save an individual from cardiac arrest
A. True
B. False

False

83

The most common type of fainting occurs when the blood pressure rises quickly in response to a highly charged emotional or stressful situation
A. True
B. False

False

84

Provider level CPR and basic first aid are a requirement for medical assistant to graduate
A. True
B. False

True