Module 6 Study Guide Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Module 6 Study Guide Deck (113):
1

Which of the following is the term used for the number of times a women has been pregnant, including the present pregnancy?
A. Parity
B. Gravidity
C. Para
D. Viability

Gravidity

2

Which of the following is the major purpose of the initial prenatal visit?
A. Establishing first contact with the provider
B. Promoting health for mother and baby
C. Checking whether mother's pelvic measurements will allow normal delivery
D. Preventing eclampsia

Promoting health for mother and baby

3

While taking a prenatal history, emphasis will be on what?
A. Checking the mother's blood type
B. Reviewing the family history
C. Determining whether twins run in the family
D. Identifying high-risk patients

Identifying high-risk patients

4

Which of the following is the term used for a woman who has never carried a pregnancy to viability?
A. Parity
B. Nullipara
C. Para
D. Viability

Nullipara

5

Which of the following is the term used for a woman who has many viable births?
A. Nullipara
B. Unipara
C. Multigravida
D. Bipara

Multigravida

6

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of pre-eclampsia?
A. Rapid weight gain
B. Edema
C. High blood pressure
D. Convulsions

Convulsions

7

Which of the following is the type of abortion in which all products of conception and placenta are expelled?
A. Spontaneous
B. Complete
C. Threatened
D. Incomplete
E. Missed

Complete

8

Which of the following is the type of abortion in which there is evacuation of the fetus and placenta from the uterus at the mother's request?
A. Spontaneous
B. Complete
C. Threatened
D. Induced
E. Missed

Induced

9

Which of the following is the additional symptom of eclampsia that is NOT present in pre-eclampsia?
A. Hyperemesis
B. Headaches
C. Convulsions
D. Pain and cramping
E. Swelling

Convulsions

10

Which of the following best describes women who are diagnosed more often with eclampsia?
A. Receive adequate prenatal care
B. Have low blood pressure
C. Have decreased blood glucose
D. Are under 18 years with first pregnancy
E. Have excessive vomiting

Are under 18 years with first pregnancy

11

Which of the following is the term used for the condition of excessive vomiting during pregnancy?
A. Hyperemesis gravidarum
B. Intestinal gravidarum
C. Endometriosis
D. Menometeorrhagia
E. Prenatal emesis

Hyperemesis gravidarum

12

Which of the following is the term used for a condition when a displaced placenta is implanted in the segment of uterine wall?
A. Placenta ablatio
B. Placenta abruptio
C. Placenta previa
D. Placenta prolapse
E. Placenta hypoxia

Placenta previa

13

Which of the following states denoted the stage of labor from onset to complete dilation?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

I

14

Which of the following is NOT a maternal sign and symptom of labor complications?
A. Heavy vaginal bleeding
B. Sudden drop in blood pressure
C. Headache
D. Vaginal discharge
E. Visual change

Vaginal discharge

15

Which of the following terms describes the 6 weeks after a woman has delivered a child?
A. Gravida
B. Parturient
C. Puerperium
D. Primipara

Puerperium

16

Which of the following terms applies to the surgical procedure of dilating and scraping the cervix of endometrial tissue?
A. Vaginotomy
B. Culdoscopy
C. Dilation and curettage
D. Hysteropexy
E. Evacuation

Dilation and curettage

17

Which of the following terms applies to a painful, common condition characterized by the endometrial tissue adhering to organs outside of the uterus?
A. Endometritis
B. Cervicitis
C. Vaginitis
D. Endometriosis

Endometriosis

18

Which of the following is the muscular tube extending from the cervix to the exterior of the body?
A. Clitoris
B. Vulva
C. Labia
D. Vagina
E. Mons

Vagina

19

Which of the following is NOT true regarding an endometrial biopsy?
A. The patient might experience slight cramping
B. It is a slow, painful procedure
C. Usually performed in women experiencing post-menopausal bleeding
D. A long, straw like tube is used

It is a slow, painful procedure

20

Which of the following is NOT a part of the gynecological examination?
A. Pelvic examination
B. Rectal examination
C. Breast examination
D. Wet mount smear

Wet mount smear

21

When does gestational diabetes usually appear?
A. Before a woman is pregnant
B. In the first trimester
C. In the second trimester
D. In the third trimester
E. both c and d

Both c and d

22

When should a breast self-examination be performed?
A. During monthly menses
B. Just before menses
C. Seven days after menses
D. Five days after menses

Seven days after menses

23

What is the time frame recommended by the American Cancer Society for women aged 40 to 49, and without symptoms of breast disease, to have a routine mammogram?
A. 1 to 2 years
B. 6 months to 1 year
C. 2 to 3 months
D. 2 to 3 years
E. 5 years

1 to 2 years

24

Which of the following positions is NOT used during a complete gynecological examination?
A. Sitting
B. Supine
C. Dorsal recumbent
D. Prone
E. Lithotomy

Prone

25

Which of the following can indicate fetal distress?
A. Prostaglandins
B. Amniotomy
C. Meconium
D. Oxytocin

Meconium

26

The Naegele's rule, which is a method used to calculate the expected date of birth, uses what formula?
A. Add 10 days to the first day of LMP, subtract 3 months, and add 1 year
B. Add 7 days to the first day of LMP, subtract 2 months, and add 1 year
C. Add 7 days to the first day of LMP, subtract 3 months, and add 1 year
D. Add 7 days to the first day of LMP, add 3 months, and add 1 year

Add 7 days to the first day of LMP, subtract 3 months, and add 1 year

27

Which of the following is the type of form used to record the results of a Pap smear, which will be returned to the physician?
A. Chemistry form
B. Microbiology form
C. Hematology form
D. Cytology form

Cytology form

28

Which of the following best describes the importance of using a ViraPap test?
A. Ensures the accuracy of the test result
B. Duplicated the technologist process
C. Screens for HPV with a higher cervical cancer risk
D. Diagnoses cervical cancer
E. Diagnoses trichomonas

Screens for HPV with a higher cervical cancer risk

29

At what age does menopause usually occur?
A. 35-40 years
B. 35-50 years
C. 38-50 years
D. 35-58 years
E. 50-58 years

35-58 years

30

Which of the following is thought to be one of the long-term effects of lower estrogen levels?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Coronary artery disease
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Atherosclerosis

Osteoporosis

31

Which of the following terms is used to describe where Graafian follicles are located and become enlarged and filled with fluid?
A. Endometriosis
B. Uterine cysts
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Condylomata
E. Ovarian cysts

Ovarian cysts

32

Which of the following is a gynecologic disease with symptoms that do not appear until the disease has an opportunity to become established, making it difficult for early diagnosis of the disease?
A. Ovarian cysts
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Gonorrhea
D. Ovarian cancer

Ovarian cancer

33

Which of the following is a long-term effect of pelvic inflammatory disease?
A. Septic shock
B. Infertility
C. Ovarian cancer
D. Menopause
E. sexually transmitted disease

Infertility

34

Which of the following is NOT a procedure or test used to rule out cervical cancer?
A. Pap smear
B. Endometrial biopsy
C. Cone biopsy
D. Colposcopy

Endometrial biopsy

35

Whichof the following is NOT generally classified as a sexually transmitted disease?
A. Chlamydia
B. Syphilis
C. Gonorrhea
D. Herpes simplex I and II
E. Trachoma

Trachoma

36

Which of the following is the medical term for warts on the external and internal genitalia?
A. Trichomonas
B. Chlamydia
C. Syphilis
D. Condylomata
E. Trachoma

Condylomata

37

Which of the following procedures would be used to treat cervical erosion?
A. Colposcopy
B. Punch biopsy
C. Acetic acid application
D. Cryosurgery
E. Cervicectomy

Cryosurgery

38

Which of the following is NOT a component of patient education after cryosurgery?
A. Use only sanitary pads, not tampons
B. There will be discharge that lasts for several weeks
C. Do not worry about excessive bleeding
D. Reports signs of infection
E. Do not engage in sexual intercourse for 4 weeks

Do not worry about excessive bleeding

39

Which of the following data is NOT necessary for a Pap smear?
A. Last normal menstrual period
B. Hormonal therapies
C. Children's ages
D. Symptoms of disease

Children's ages

40

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of infertility in women?
A. Certain medications
B. Smoking
C. Scar tissue
D. Ovulating problems

Smoking

41

Which one of the following is NOT detected in a wet mount?
A. Yeast
B. Clue cells
C. Chlamydia
D. Trichomonas

Chlamydia

42

Factors associated with placenta previa include which of the following?
A. Advancing maternal age
B. Maternal smoking
C. Maternal exercising
D. A and B only

A and B only

43

A score known as what is an indication of the newborn's well-being?
A. AGAR
B. APGAR
C. Abruptio
D. Assessment

APGAR

44

What is the term used to describe painful menses?
A. Dysmenorrhea
B. Amenorrhea
C. Metrorrhagia
D. Dyspareunia

Dysmenorrhea

45

The FDA-approved vaccine that targets HPV virus is known as what?
A. Gardasil
B. Gardnerella
C. Virasal
D. Papasil

Gardasil

46

The Bethesda System is used to report what type of results?
A. HPV
B. Pathology
C. Pap smear
D. DNA

Pap smear

47

Which of the following best describes one of the major concerns when working with pediatrics patients?
A. Performing a comprehensive exam
B. Establishing rapport before an examination
C. Gaining trust by the end of the examination
D. Allowing parents to be present during examination

Establishing rapport before an examination

48

Which of the following is a primary component of well baby visits?
A. Diagnostic tests
B. Treatments
C. Immunizations
D. Evaluation and management

Immunizations

49

Which of the following is NOT a measurement placed on the infant growth chart?
A. Height
B. Weight
C. Limb length
D. Head circumference

Limb length

50

At what age are most of the child's recommended vaccines administered?
A. 12-15 months
B. 15-18 months
C. 20-18 months
D. 24-28 months

15-18 months

51

At which of the following time intervals should bolster vaccinations be scheduled?
A. 24 months and school entry
B. School entry and every 5 years
C. 20 months and every 10 years
D. School entry and every 10 years

School entry and every 10 years

52

At which stage of developmental growth do children begin to interact with others?
A. Infants
B. Preschoolers
C. School age
D. Adolescents

Preschoolers

53

Which of the following is the name of the vaccine given for polio?
A. DPT
B. IPV
C. HiB
D. HBV
E. Varicella

IPV

54

Which of the following is the name of the vaccine given for influenzae meningitis?
A. DPT
B. IPV
C. HiB
D. HBV
E. Varicella

HiB

55

Which of the following is the name of the vaccine given for chickenpox?
A. DPT
B. IPV
C. HIB
D. HVB
E. Varicella

Varicella

56

Which of the following best describes a cause of failure to thrive?
A. High protein diet
B. Acute diseases
C. Emotional deprivation
D. Adequate diet

Emotional deprivation

57

Which of the following is the main purpose of using growth charts?
A. To have established standards available?
B. To check child's growth in relation to other children
C. To diagnose disease
D. To keep a chronological record of vital signs

To check child's growth in relation to other children

58

At what age (in months) during routine visits, is the measurement of head circumference usually discontinued?
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 24 months
D. 36 months

36 months

59

Which of the following is the normal range in inches for newborn head circumference?
A. 10.5 to 12.5 inches
B. 11.5 to 13.5 inches
C. 12.5 to 14.5 inches
D. 14.5 to 16.5 inches

12.5 to 14.5 inches

60

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate area for measuring head circumference?
A. From the occipital protuberance to the first spinal prominence
B. From the mid-forehead to the back of the head
C. From the occipital protuberance to the supraorbital prominence
D. From the supFraorbital prominence to the forehead

From the occipital protuberance to the supraorbital prominence

61

When are rectal temperatures contraindicated?
A. Diarrhea
B. Colon condition
C. Abdominal surgery
D. Nausea and vomiting

Diarrhea

62

Which of the following pulse sites is preferred when taking a pulse on small children?
A. Brachial
B. Temporal
C. Apical
D. Radial

Apical

63

Which of the following is the heart rate range of children up to 2 years old?
A. 120-150 bpm
B. 110-130 bpm
C. 70-110 bpm
D. 60-100 bpm

110-130 bpm

64

How many seconds are counted when assessing an older child's respirations?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 60 seconds
D. 120 seconds

60 seconds

65

Which of the following is often omitted in the pediatric examination?
A. Pulse
B. Respirations
C. Height
D. Weight
E. Blood pressure

Blood pressure

66

How do newborns respond to light when measuring their visual acuity?
A. Newborns do not respond to light
B. Newborns follow an object visually
C. Newborns shut their eyes tight
D. Newborns respond only when bright colors are used

Newborns shut their eyes tight

67

Which of the following is generally treated by getting plenty of rest, increasing fluids, and eating a well-balanced diet?
A. Otitis media
B. Tonsillitis
C. Chickenpox
D. Asthma
E. Common colds

Common colds

68

Which of the following is most often caused by Group A beta-hemolytc streptococcus?
A. Otitis media
B. Tonsillitis
C. Chicken pox
D. Asthma
E. Common colds

Tonsillitis

69

Which of the following is a serious chronic respiratory disease of children?
A. Otitis media
B. Tonsillitis
C. Chicken pox
D. Asthma
E. Common colds

Asthma

70

Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the medical assistant when a patient is suspected of being a victim of child abuse?
A. Leave it out of documentation
B. Notify the local child protective agency
C. Allert the parents' clergy of your suspicions
D. Ask the parents about it

Notify the local child protective agency

71

Which of the following is your best initial approach to Clyde?
A. Say, "Hi Clyde, I am May, and I take care of little children all day. It is nice to meet you."
B. Approach him at his level of understanding
C. Ask Mrs. Lee to sit Clyde on the examining table and hold him there
D. Ask Mrs. Lee to undress Clyde down to his underwear

Approach him at his level of understanding

72

Which of the following vital signs assessments would initially provide the best diagnostic information to the physician?
A. Pulse
B. Respirations
C. Temperature
D. Weight
E. Blood pressure

Temperature

73

How will you position Carol to take her apical pulse?
A. Sitting upright on the exam table
B. Sitting prone on the exam table
C. Sitting prone on her parent's lap
D. Sitting on her parent's lap

Sitting on her parent's lap

74

Which of the following illnesses have the common symptom of inflammation of the middle ear?
A. Eustachian tube blockage
B. Otitis externa
C. Otitis media
D. Otitis interna

Otitis media

75

Which of the following is a term for a procedure to place special tubes in the ears if the symptoms become chronic?
A. Myringotomy
B. Tympanotomy
C. Tympanostomy
D. Myringostomy

Tympanostomy

76

What vaccine is given for the prevention of Kawasaki disease?
A. HAV
B. ROTA
C. HIB
D. IPV

ROTA

77

Which muscle is the preferred site for injections on infants to 2 years of age?
A. Deltoid
B. Dorsal gluteal
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Ventrogluteal

Vastus lateralis

78

If you have to administer more than one injection in the same limb, what is the appropriate width by which they should be separated?
A. 1-2 inches
B. 2-3 inches
D. 3-4 inches
D. They do not need separation

1-2 inches

79

What is the appropriate needle gauge used when administering pediatric immunizations?
A. 18-20 gauge
B. 20-21 gauge
C. 21-22 gauge
D. 22-25 gauge

22-25 gauge

80

When administering an IM injection in the gluteal muscle, it should be administered lateral and superior to a line between the posterior superior iliac spine and what other area?
A. Greater trochanter
B. Femur
C. Tailbone
D. Lumbar spine

Greater trochanter

81

IM injections are inserted at what angle?
A. 10 degree
B. 45 degree
C. 75 degree
D. 90 degree

90 degree

82

The position used when lifting or carrying an infant in which the infant's body ached against the MAS's body with one hand supporting the infant's buttocks is known as what?
A. Cradle
B. Upright
C. Crosswise
D. Football

Upright

83

The oral route for checking a child's temperature should be used on children of what age?
A. Birth to 2 years
B. 2-5 years
C. > 5 years
D. > 10 years

> 5 years

84

What disease is a highly contagious respiratory infection caused by bacterium?
A. Croup
B. RSV
C. Pneumonia
D. Pertussis

Pertussis

85

Which of the following is a common procedure of removing a portion of the vas deferens to cause the male to be sterile?
A. Vasectomy
B. Ureterostomy
C. Rectopexy
D. Prostatotomy

Vasectomy

86

Which of the following is NOT part of the male reproductive system?
A. Epididymis
B. Testes
C. Vas deferens
D. Corpus luteum

Corpus luteum

87

Which of the following words is incorrectly spelled?
A. Semen
B. Ejakulation
C. Orchidectomy
D. Cryptorchidism

Ejakulation

88

Which of the following childhood diseases is a risk factor for infertility?
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Rubella
D. Chickenpox

Mumps

89

Which of the following disorders are characteristic of the pain in the back, muscle aches, and urinary frequency?
A. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
B. Prostatitis
C. Prostate cancer
D. Testicular cancer

Prostatitis

90

Which of the following types of cancer is most common in males between ages 20 and 35 years of age?
A. Lung
B. Prostate
C. Colon
D. Testicular

Testicular

91

Which of the following surgeries is most commonly performed in cases for testicular cancer followed by radiation?
A. Prostatectomy
B. Cystectomy
C. Orchidectomy
D. Vasectomy

Orchidectomy

92

Which of the following is a method if diagnosing testicular cancer after palpating the testicle and finding a mass?
A. Digital rectal examination
B. Colonoscopy
C. Ultrasound
D. Biopsy

Biopsy

93

Which of the following is the most common cause of cancer deaths in men over the age of 75?
A. Lung
B. Prostate
C. Colon
D. Testicular

Prostate

94

Which of the following is the sexually transmitted disease that commonly coexists with gonorrhea?
A. Genital herpes
B. Chlamydia
C. Genital warts
D. Syphilis

Chlamydia

95

Which is an incorrect statement while explaining a self-testicular exam to a patient?
A. Examine yourself after a cool shower
B. Stand in front of a mirror
C. If you find a lump, notify the doctor right away
D. Exams should be performed once a month

Examine yourself after a cool shower

96

Which of the following is a specific test to evaluate the effectiveness of a vasectomy?
A. Prostate specific antigen
B. Serum alpha fetoprotein
C. Human chorionic gonadotropin
D. Semen analysis

Semen analysis

97

Which of the following terms is incorrectly spelled?
A. Semen analysis
B. Prostrate gland
C. Vasectomy
D. Transilluminator

Prostrate gland

98

Which of the following is a surgery to excise the testicle?
A. Anorchism
B. Orchidectomy
C. Cryptorchidism
D. Hydrocele

Orchidectomy

99

Which of the following carries spermatozoa to the ejaculatory duct?
A. Vas deferens
B. Prostate
C. Urethra
D. Ureter

Vas deferens

100

What test would a physician do first to help determine whether there is some pathology of the prostate?
A. Urinalysis
B. Testicular exam
C. Digital rectal exam
D. PSA test

PSA test

101

Which of the following is an x-ray of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder that uses a contrast medium to help diagnose BPH?
A. CT scan
B. IVP
C. PSA
D. TURP

IVP

102

A PSA blood level greater than what is the cut off for normal values?
A. 2-5-3.0 mg/ml
B. 3.0-3.5 mg/ml
C. 1.5-2.0 mg/ml
D. 2.0-2.5 mg/ml

2.5-3.0 mg/ml

103

At what age should a PSA level and digital rectal exams be done annually?
A. 40 years
B. 50 years
C. 60 years
D. 70 years

50 years

104

Which of the following is caused by a spirochete?
A. Syphilis
B. Gonorrhea
C. Genital herpes
D. Chlamydia

Syphilis

105

How long does it typically take a couple to conceive if they aren't using birth control?
A. Up to 1 year
B. Up to 6 months
C. Up to 3 months
D. Up to 1.5 years

Up to 1 year

106

Which of the following is the correct definition for the term nocturia?
A. Wet dream
B. Night sweats
C. Difficulty sleeping due to frequent urination
D. Frequent urination

Difficulty sleeping due to frequent urination

107

Alpha fetal fetoprotein
A. Produces an image of the fetus
B. Takes a sample of tissue
C. Used to rule out neural tube defects
D. Takes a fluid sample for congenital anomalies
E. Aspirates blood from fetal umbilical cord vessels

Used to rule out neural tube defects

108

Chorionic villus sampling
A. Produces an image of the fetus
B. Takes a sample of tissue
C. Used to rule out neural tube defects
D. Takes a fluid sample for congenital anomalies
E. Aspirates blood from fetal umbilical cord vessels

Takes a sample of tissue

109

Amniocentesis
A. Produces an image of the fetus
B. Takes a sample of tissue
C. Used to rule out neural tube defects
D. Takes a fluid sample for congenital anomalies
E. Aspirates blood from fetal umbilical cord vessels

Takes a fluid sample for congenital anomalies

110

Ultrasound
A. Produces an image of the fetus
B. Takes a sample of tissue
C. Used to rule out neural tube defects
D. Takes a fluid sample for congenital anomalies
E. Aspirates blood from fetal umbilical cord vessels

Produces an image of the fetus

111

Cordocentesis
A. Produces an image of the fetus
B. Takes a sample of tissue
C. Used to rule out neural tube defects
D. Takes a fluid sample for congenital anomalies
E. Aspirates blood from fetal umbilical cord vessels

Aspirates blood from fetal umbilical cord vessels

112

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate procedure when weighing the infant?
A. Wash hands
B. Position infant on its back
C. Leave infant's diaper on
D. Place a utility towel on the scale

Leave infant's diaper on

113

How can blood pressure reading be taken on a child if one cannot be obtained in the usual manner?
A. Auscultation
B. Palpation
C. Percussion
D. Olfaction

Palpation