Module 7 Study Guide Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Module 7 Study Guide Deck (216):
1

Which of the following terms means "slow breathing?"
A. Apnea
B. Bradypnea
C. Tachypnea
D. Eupnea
E. Dyspnea

Bradypnea

2

Which of the following terms means "low blood pressure"?
A. Vasodilation
B. Asystole
C. Hypertension
D. Hypotension
E. Diastole

Hypotension

3

Which of the following applies to a crowing sound heard on inspiration as a result of an obstruction of the upper airway?
A. Rales
B. Wheezes
C. Stridor
D. Rhonchi
E. Dyspnea

Stridor

4

Which of the following is NOT a factor that influences body temperature?
A. Bacterial infection
B. Pregnancy
C. Fasting
D. Time of day
E. Gender

Gender

5

Which part of the brain monitors blood temperature?
A. Meninges
B. Cerebellum
C. Thalamus
D. Hypothalamus
E. Pituitary gland

Hypothalamus

6

Careful monitoring of a patient's weight may provide insight into what type of problems?
A. Metabolic
B. Nutritional
C. Emotional
D. All of the above

All of the above

7

Which of the following best describes how to prevent patient cross-contamination when using electronic thermometers?
A. Clean with cold water
B. Soak in disinfectant for 20 minutes
C. Use a disposable plastic sheath
D. Store in a dry closed container
E. clean in soap and hot water

Use a disposable plastic sheath

8

Which of the following may result in inaccurate readings when using tympanic thermometers?
A. Any bacterial infection in the body
B. Impacted cerumen
C. Pregnancy
D. Pyrexia

Any bacterial infection in the body

9

How should the thermometer be inserted when using an electronic thermometer to take an oral temperature?
A. Under the tongue to the side of the mouth
B. Underthe tongue in the center of the mouth
C. Under the tongue next to the teeth
D. Between the teeth and the cheek

Under the tongue to the side of the mouth

10

Which of the following questions should the medical assistant ask the patient when taking an oral temperature using a dis possible oral strip thermometer?
A. Have you been sleeping?
B. Have you been talking?
C. Have you been smoking?
D. Have you been stressed?

Have you been smoking?

11

Which of the following is the most important action when taking an oral temperature using a digital thermometer?
A. Instruct the patient to leave the mouth slightly open
B. Ask the patient to rinse the mouth with tepid water
C. Cover the thermometer witha sheath
D. Use a prove that had been disinfected

Cover the thermometer with a sheath

12

Which of the following is the most important action when obtaining an aural temperature using a tympanic thermometer?
A. Do not cover the thermometer
B. Pull the earlobe outward and down
C. Place the prob in the canal to seal the area
D. Do not pull the earlobe back at all, leave it as is

Place the probe in the canal to seal the area

13

Which of the following is the most important action when taking a rectal temperature?
A. Position the patient in a prone position
B. Do not use a shath
C. Apply lubricant for easy insertion
D. Insert the thermometer 1/2 to 1 inch for an adult

Apply lubricant for easy insertion

14

Which of the following is NOT an important action when taking an axillary temperature?
A. Have the patient fold the arm against the chest
B. Leave the thermometer in place according to manufacturer's instructions
C. Use powder to dry the axilla
D. Use a disposable protective sheath

Use powder to dry the axilla

15

Which of the following is the average normal adult oral temperature in Celsius?
A. 36.2
B. 36.4
C. 37.0
D. 37.5
E. 36.8

37.0

16

Which of the following is an important action when taking a radial pulse?
A. Position the patient with the arm elevated at heart level
B. Locate and count the pulse with the thumb
C. Press fingers gently over the area of the artery
D. Count for 15 seconds

Press fingers gently over the area of the artery

17

Which of the following best describes the pulse rate of a well-conditioned athlete?
A. Lower than average
B. Increased
C. Stabilized
D. No change from average

Lower than average

18

Which of the following is a term for a pulse rate greater than 100 beats per minute?
A. Bradycardia
B. Asystole
C. Tachycardia
D. Extra systole
E. Fibrillation

Tachycardia

19

Which of the following best describes the feeling of a normal artery on palpation?
A. Hard
B. Knotty
C. Elastic
D. Wiry
E. Tortuous

Elastic

20

Which of the following best describes a pulse rate with bradycardia?
A. 120 beats per minute
B. 100 beats per minute
C. 40 beats per minute
D. 72 beats per minute
E. 200 beats per minute

40 beats per minute

21

Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of pulse to be documented in assessment?
A. Volume
B. Rate
C. Rhythm
D. Expansion

Expansion

22

Which of the following is controlled by the involuntary action of respiration?
A. Lungs
B. Diaphragm
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Chest wall

Medulla oblongata

23

Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of respiration to be documented in assessment?
A. Rate
B. Volume
C. Depth
D. Rhythm

Volume

24

Which of the following is the meaning of "dyspnea"?
A. Labored breathing
B. Air in the pericardium
C. Rapid breathing
D. Abnormal gas in the pleura
E. Breathing while upright

Labored breathing

25

Which of the following is the average normal adult rate of respirations?
A. 8-12
B. 14-20
C. 16-24
D. 20-30

14-20

26

Which of the following terms is used to denote rattling sounds occurring in respiratory cycle?
A. Rales
B. Wheezing
C. Stridor
D. Stertorous

Rales

27

Where should the stethoscope be placed when taking an apical pulse?
A. Posterior portion of the heart
B. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
C. Fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
D. Fifth intercostal space at the midsternal line
E. Fourth intercostal space at the midaxillary line

Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line

28

Which of the following terms is used to denote the force exerted on the arterial walls during cardiac contraction?
A. Diastole
B. Asystole
C. Systole
D. Hyperbole

Systole

29

Which of the following best describes the effect on a blood pressure if a cuff that is too large is used?
A. Has no effect on pressure reading
B. Gives an artificially high reading
C. Gives an artificially low reading
D. Makes reading quiet

Gives an artificially low reading

30

Which of the following best describes a pulse rate with bradycardia?
A. 120 beats per minute
B. 100 beats per minute
C. 40 beats per minute
D. 72 beats per minute
E. 200 beats per minute

40 beats per minute

31

Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of pulse to be documented in assessment?
A. Volume
B. Rate
C. Rhythm
D. Expansion

Expansion

32

Which of the following is controlled by the involuntary action of respiration?
A. Lungs
B. Diaphragm
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Chest wall

Medulla oblongata

33

Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of respiration to be documented in assessment?
A. Rate
B. Volume
C. Depth
D. Rhythm

Volume

34

Which of the following is the meaning of "dyspnea"?
A. Labored breathing
B. Air in the pericardium
C. Rapid breathing
D. Abnormal gas in the pleura
E. Breathing while upright

Labored breathing

35

Which of the following is the average normal adult rate of respirations?
A. 8-12
B. 14-20
C. 16-24
D. 20-30

14-20

36

Which of the following terms is used to denote rattling sounds occurring in respiratory cycle?
A. Rales
B. Wheezing
C. Stridor
D. Stertorous

Rales

37

Where should the stethoscope be placed when taking an apical pulse?
A. Posterior portion of the heart
B. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
C. Fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
D. Fifth intercostal space at the midsternal line
E. Fourth intercostal space at the midaxillary line

Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line

38

Which of the following terms is used to denote the force exerted on the arterial walls during cardiac contraction?
A. Diastole
B. Asystole
C. Systole
D. Hyperbole

Systole

39

Which of the following best describes the effect on a blood pressure if a cuff that is too large is used?
A. Has no effect on pressure reading
B. Gives an artificially high reading
C. Gives an artificially low reading
D. Makes reading quieter

Gives an artificially low reading

40

Which of the following blood pressure readings would indicate the patient is hypertensive?
A. 160/100
B. 120/88
C. 118/80
D. 100/50

160/100

41

Which of the following phases of Korotkoff's sounds is noted when the cuff deflates and the sound are muffled and fading?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V

IV

42

Which of the following is NOT considered a cardiovascular factor influencing blood pressure?
A. Blood volume
B. Peripheral resistance
C. Vessel elasticity
D. Heart muscle condition
E. Clotting capabilities

Clotting capabilities

43

Which of the following is the average normal range of adult diastolic blood pressure?
A. 30-50mmHg
B. 60-80mmHg
C. 110-140mmHg
D. 140-180mmHg
E. 70-100mmHg

60-80mmHg

44

Which of the following arteries is most commonly used to measure blood pressure?
A. Brachial
B. Axillary
C. Coronary
D. Carotid
E. Popliteal

Brachial

45

Which of the following vital signs assessments is not in a normal range for adults?
A. BP 100/60
B. T 98-99 F
C. P 100/bpm
D. R 12-16/min

P 100/bpm

46

When is the osculatory gap heard in some patients?
A. Between phases IV and V
B. Between phases III and IV or V
C. Between phases I and II or III
D. Between phases II, III, and IV

Between phases I and II or III

47

Why is height and weight measured at the same time?
A. Helps a patient stay on a diet
B. Essential to diagnosis
C. Assists physician in evaluating patient's body changes
D. Most physician's want it

Assists physician in evaluating patient's body changes

48

Which of the following statements is true regarding body temperature?
A. Pyrexia and hypothermia are synonyms for fever
B. Febrile denotes that a fever is not present
C. The gradual return of an elevated body temperature to normal levels is lysis
D. Fever means the body is not working properly
E. Fluctuation of body temperature between periods of normal and fever is remittent fever

The gradual return of an elevated body temperature to normal levels is lysis

49

If a mercury thermometer broke, what would you do to clean it up?
A. Use household cleaners
B. Use a broom or brush
C. Use a vacuum or Shop-Vac
D. Use an eyedropper

Use an eyedropper

50

What is the rationale for securing the blood pressure cuff 2 inches above the elbow?
A. Preventing hearing extraneous sounds
B. Positioning cuff over all the biceps muscle
C. Placing cuff too low on the arm will decrease blood pressure
D. Placing cuff too low on the arm will increase blood pressure

Preventing hearing extraneous sounds

51

Which of the following organizations initiated an agreement with the American Hospital Association in 1998 to eliminate mercury from hospital waste systems?
A. Center for Disease Control
B. Environmental Protection Agency
C. American Medical Association
D. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

Environmental Protection Agency

52

Which of the following is NOT a recommended alternative type to replace mercury thermometers for use in the health care setting?
A. Digital
B. Electronic
C. Paper
D. Tympanic

Paper

53

What can cause an occasional premature contraction while checking a patient's pulse?
A. Alcohol
B. Nicotine
C. Caffeine
D. All of the above

All of the above

54

What pulse location is used during emergency situations?
A. Femoral
B. Apical
C. Temporal
D. Carotid

Carotid

55

What type of thermometer is used to measure the temperature of the skin surface over an artery?
A. Temporal
B. Tympanic
C. Axillary
D. Rectal

Temporal

56

Temporal thermometers should be cleaned between patients by which method?
A. Bleach
B. Alcohol
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Betadine

Alcohol

57

What could cause a temporal temperature to be inaccurate?
A. Eating or drinking
B. Exercise
C. Perspiration
D. Cerumen

Perspiration

58

Which pulse site is the most commonly used site for obtaining a pulse rate?
A. Carotid
B. Brachial
C. Temporal
D. Radial

Radial

59

When using an electronic sphygmomanometer, what is not needed?
A. Cuff
B. Bulb
C. Stethoscope
D. Dial

Stethoscope

60

Occasionally, as with medication dosages, the MA may be required to convert pound weight into kilogram weight. To do so they must know which of the following?
A. 1 kg = 1.2 pounds
B. 1 kg = 2.2 pounds
C. 1 kg = 2.1 pounds
D. 1 kg = 1.1 pounds

1 kg = 2.2 pounds

61

The pulse oximetry test is used to evaluate what?
A. Oxygen saturation in the blood
B. Oxygen saturation in the lungs
C. Oxygen saturation in the respiratory tract
D. None of the above

Oxygen saturation in the blood

62

Which of the following is the most common disorder of the urinary system?
A. Cystitis
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Renal calculi
D. Glomerulonephritis

Urinary tract infection

63

Which of the following is a nitrogenous waste product normally filtered from blood into urine?
A. Nitrogen
B. Acetone
C. Creatinine
D. Protein

Creatinine

64

Which of the following is a radiographic examination of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder using contrast media?
A. IVP
B. KUB
C. Cysto
D. BUN

IVP

65

Which of the following is required to prepare for an IVP?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Clear liquids
C. Biopsy
D. Laxatives, enemas, and fasting

Laxatives, enemas, and fasting

66

Which of the following diagnoses can be determined through a BUN, creatinine, blood culture, sedimentation rate, and electrolyte study?
A. Cystitis
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Bladder cancer

Glomerulonephritis

67

Which of the following are common symptoms of cystitis?
A. Frequency, burning, and nocturne
B. Frequency, burning, and urgency
C. Buning, urgency, and oliguria
D. Oliguria, urgency, and proteinuria

Frequency, burning, urgency

68

Which of the following is a reason for catheterization?
A. To obtain a sterile urine specimen for analysis
B. For relief of urinary retention
C. To obtain a specimen for drug testing
D. A and B only
E. A, B, and C

A and B only

69

Which of the following is NOT a function of the digestive system?
A. Ingestion
B. Peristalsis
C. Coagulation
D. Absorption
E. Defecation

Coagulation

70

Through which body part are smaller nutrients absorbed in the digestive system?
A. Mouth
B. Esophagus
C. Stomach
D. Small intestine
E. Large intestine

Small intestine

71

Which of the following is examined by a sigmoidoscopy?
A. Stomach
B. Small intestine
C. Large intestine
D. Sigmoid colon

Sigmoid colon

72

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of digestive disorders?
A. Melena
B. Hematemesis
C. Emesis
D. Peritonitis

Peritonitis

73

Which of the following is a common symptom of gastritis?
A. Melena
B. Epigastric pain
C. Diarrhea
D. Constipation

Epigastric pain

74

Which of the following is a condition that causes erosion of the mucous lining of the stomach?
A. Gastroenteritis
B. Peptic ulcer
C. Duodenal ulcer
D. Reflux

Peptic ulcer

75

Which of the following digestive conditions may respond to treatment with antibiotics?
A. Heartburn
B. Gastric ulcer
C. Duodenal ulcer
D. Reflux

Gastric ulcer

76

Which of the following digestive system disorders is misspelled?
A. Cholecystitis
B. Hepatitis
C. Diverticulitis
D. Chron's disease

Chron's disease

77

Which of the following is considered part of the eye's accessory structures?
A. Lacrimal ducts
B. Sclera
C. Iris
D. Cornea

Lacrimal ducts

78

Which of the following is the primary purpose of a guaiac test?
A. Locate parasites
B. Examine bacteria
C. Detect occult blood
D. Search for bile pigments

Detect occult blood

79

Which of the following is a false statement regarding the steps of fecal occult testing?
A. Store slides at room temperature
B. No special requirements for storage needed
C. Provide patient return envelope
D. Air dry specimen overnight

No special requirements for storage needed

80

Which of the following is a diagnostic procedure useful in determining the presence of gallstone?
A. Cytoscopy
B. Cholecystogram
C. Intravenous pyelogram
D. Upper gastrointestinal series

Cholecystogram

81

Which of the following is a true statement about the sensory system?
A. Permits the body to detect environmental information
B. Contains specialized receptor organs
C. Includes eyes, ears, nose, and taste buds
D. All of the above

All of the above

82

Which of the following is a gelatinous mass, located behind the lens in the eye?
A. Vitreous humor
B. Aqueous humor
C. Anterior chamber
D. Posterior cavity

Vitreous humor

83

Which of the following is the space in front of the iris and in back of the cornea?
A. Anterior chamber
B. Posterior chamber
C. Posterior cavity
D. Posterior sclera

Anterior chamber

84

Which of the following is a screening test for color vision?
A. Snellen
B. Jaeger
C. Refraction
D. Ishihara

Ishihara

85

Which of the following is a test to measure near vision?
A. Snellen
B. Jaeger
C. Refraction
D. Ishihara

Jaeger

86

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when performing eye instillation?
A. Instruct the patient to move the eye up and down during instillation of drops
B. Instruct the patient to state at a fixed spot during instillation of drops
C. Tell the patient to look down at the floor during instillation
D. Pull up on the upper eyelid and down on the lower lid

Instruct the patient to state at a fixed spot during instillation of drops

87

Which of the following is NOT a part of the middle ear?
A. Malleus
B. Incus
C. Stapes
D. Auricle

Auricle

88

Which of the following parts of the ear is responsible for maintaining equilibrium?
A. Tympanum
B. Cochlea
C. Vestibule
D. Auricle

Vestibule

89

Which of the following is the organ of hearing?
A. Semicircular canals
B. Eustachian tube
C. Vestibule
D. Cochlea
E. Round window

Cochlea

90

Which of the following is the receiving area of the brain for auditory impulses?
A. Frontal lobe
B. Parietal lobe
C. Temporal lobe
D. Occipital lobe

Temporal lobe

91

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when performing ear irrigation on an adult?
A. Tilt the head to the affected side and backward
B. Straighten the auditory canal by pulling the auricle back and up
C. Straighten the auricle by pulling back and down
D. Use about 10 cc of irrigating solution each time
E. Direct the flow of the solution straight to the back of the canal

Straighten the auditory canal by pulling the auricle back and up

92

Which of the following is NOT a common ear condition?
A. Otitis media
B. Otitis externa
C. Meniere's disease
D. Conjunctivitis

Conjunctivitis

93

Which of the following best describes how gas exchange takes place in the respiratory system?
A. Oxygen and carbon dioxide enter the blood cells
B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide filter to the blood through the alveoli
C. Carbon dioxide passes to the blood through the capillaries
D. Carbon dioxide leaves the blood cells

Oxygen and carbon dioxide filter to the blood through the alveoli

94

Which of the following is a common screening test to check for tonsillitis?
A. Arterial blood gas
B. Sputum analysis
C. Streptococcal antibody test
D. Mono screening test

Streptococcal antibody test

95

Which of the following is a commonly used tool for diagnosis of respiratory disease?
A. Complete blood count
B. Streptococcal antibody test
C. Chest x-ray
D. Spirometry

Spirometry

96

Which of the following entails inflammation of the lung?
A. Pneumonia
B. Emphysema
C. Asthma
D. Pleurisy

Pneumonia

97

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when performing a nasal irrigation?
A. Use 2 teaspoons of salt per 1 pint of water
b. Use a cooled solution
C. Use a medicine dropper
D. Blow the nose immediately after

Use a medicine dropper

98

What breathing test measures airflow, volume, and capacity?
A. Chest x-ray
B. Pulmonary function test
C. Pulse oximetry
D. All of the above

Pulmonary function test

99

Which of the following is a condition caused by nonunion of maxillary bones?
A. Rickets
B. Paget's disease
C. Cleft palate
D. Subluxation

Cleft palate

100

Which of the following does a patient with a new cast NOT need to report to the provider?
A. Bad odor from the cast
B. Numbness, tingling, or inability to move the fingers or toes
C. Burning sensation over the bony area
D. Itching and dry skin

Itching and dry skin

101

Which of the following might be indicated when the medical assistant notices that a patient has difficulty in recalling past events?
A. Mental status problems
B. Cranial nerve impairment
C. Sensory impairment
D. Ideation deficits

Mental status problesm

102

Which of the following body areas would be examined by medical imaging when the provider suspects Bell's palsy?
A. Lower back
B. Face
C. Brain
D. Spinal ord

Face

103

Which of the following is NOT a common screening test performed to diagnose neurological disorders?
A. MRI
B. Electroencephalography
C. EMG
D. Lumbar puncture

EMG

104

Which of the following conditions is evaluated by performing a blood test to measure cardiac enzymes?
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Essential hypertension
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Valvular stenosis

Myocardial infarction

105

Which of the following blood disorders is related to the lack of the intrinsic factor in stomach secretions?
A. Lymphedema
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Leukemia
d. Hodgkin disease

Pernicious anemia

106

Which of the following blood disorders is a result of a hereditary factor that causes the patient to have clumping in the blood vessels, impairing circulation?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Lymphedema
C. Hodgkin disease
D. Sickle cell anemia

Sickle cell anemia

107

Which of the following is the layer of the skin on which the muscles lie?
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Hypodermis
C. Fascia

Hypodermis

108

Which of the following is a chronic inflammatory disease caused by blocked sebaceous glands?
A. Dermatitis
B. Eczema
C. Acne
D. Impetigo

Acne

109

Which of the following best describes what skin disorders frequently produce?
A. Macule
B. Lesion
C. Verruca
D. Nevus

Lesion

110

Which of the following does NOT require dietary changes before the examination is performed?
A. Upper GI
B. Lower GI
C. Guaiac test
D. Bone scan

Bone scan

111

Which of the following examinations does NOT require the use of a laxative?
A. Upper GI
B. Lower GI
C. Cytoscopy
D. All of the above

Upper GI

112

Which of the following is NOT included in the musculoskeletal system?
A. Skin
B. Joints
C. Bones
D. Surrounding tissues

Skin

113

Which type of cast is an inflatable immobilizer used for sprains?
A. Synthetic casts
B. Fiberglass casts
C. Air casts
D. None of the above

Air casts

114

Which type of cat extends from the fingers to the axilla?
A. SAC
B. LAC
C. LLC
D. SLC

LAC

115

When testing a patient for allergy skin tests and emergency treatment is needed, what must the Medical Assistant do?
A. Check patient's vitals
B. Have benadryl injection ready to administer
C. Have the patient lie down
D. All of the above

All of the above

116

What test is performed to visualize the stomach for ulcers, lesions, and malignancies?
A. Barium swallow
B. Barium enema
C. Endoscopy
D. Gastroscopy

Gastroscopy

117

The field of medicine that treats obesity and conditions associated with obesity is know as what?
A. Dietetics
B. Bariatrics
C. Geriatrics
B. Obstetrics

Bariatrics

118

A BMI greater than what indicates obesity?
A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50

30

119

What is the name of the test used to measure distance and visual acuity?
A. Jaeger
B. Snellen
C. Ishihara
D. Refraction

Snellen

120

Cerumen is also known as what?
A. Nasal discharge
B. Sputum
C. Earwax
D. Eye drainage

Earwax

121

The lighted instrument used to visualize the ear is called what?
A. Opthalmoscope
B. Tympanometer
C. Specula
B. Otoscope

Otoscope

122

Which of the following sterilization techniques cleans but does not sterilize?
A. Gas
B. Dry heat
C. Chemical
D. Disinfectant

Disinfectant

123

Which of the following is NOT part of the medical asepsis hand washing procedure?
A. Wash hands and wrists
B. Hold hands up while rinsing
C. Wash 1 to 2 minutes
D. Apply lotion

Hold hands up while rinsing

124

Which of the following is the preferred length for atraumatic sutures?
A. 10 inches
B. 14 inches
C. 18 inches
D. 24 inches

18 inches

125

Which of the following best sterilizes equipment that is delicate or sensitive to heat?
A. Bleach solution
B. Autoclave
C. Chemical disinfectant
D. Cold sterilization

Cold sterilization

126

Which of the following best describes practices known as sterile technique?
A. Antibacterial asepsis
B. Surgical asepsis
C. Medical asepsis
D. Anesthesia and dressings

Surgical asepsis

127

Which of the following terms best describes a procedure that creates an opening in the skin, such as a surgical incision, or inserting a urinary catheter?
A. Injecting
B. Cautery
C. Invasive
D. Ligature

Invasive

128

Which of the following terms best describes the result when a non-sterile item or surface comes in contact with a sterile area?
A. Contamination
B. Infection
C. Stricture
D. Cautery

Contamination

129

Which of the following best describes sutures made from materials that dissolve when they encounter the tissue enzymes in the body?
A. Non-absorbable
B. Absorbable
C. Ligature
D. Semi-absorbable

Absorbable

130

Which of the following is the primary purpose of surgical asepsis?
A. To clean and disinfect contaminated surfaces
B. To prevent microorganisms from entering the body during invasive procedures
C. To prevent exposing the body to microorganisms
D. To sterilize the skin

To prevent microorganisms from entering the body during invasive procedures

131

Which of the following instruments is inserted into narrowed or constricted ducts and tubes for the purpose of gradually enlarging the opening?
A. Forceps
B. Scalpel
C. Dilator
D. Clamp

Dilator

132

Which of the following instruments is commonly used to clamp blood vessels?
A. Hemostat
B. Towel clamp
C. Splinter forceps
D. Obturator

Hemostat

133

Which of the following instruments is a long, slender instrument used to determine the size and shape of a hidden area or to detect the presence of a foreign body?
A. Obturator
B. Dilator
C. Sound
D. Retractor

Sound

134

Which of the following is NOT a basic rule for the care of instruments?
A. Inspect all surfaces carefully for any nicks, warps, or dulling
B. Use hard wire brushes to scrub hinges, ratchets, and serrations
C. Soak all soiled instruments immediately after use
D. Soak solutions are room temperature with a neutral pH detergent containing a blood solvent

Use hard wire brushes to scrub hinges, ratchets, and serrations

135

Which of the following is NOT considered a way anesthesia can be used?
A. Sprayed
B. Chewed
C. Inhaled
D. Topically

Chewed

136

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the use of ultrasound sanitization?
A. Sound waves vibrate to loosen debris
B. The Medical Assistant still needs to scrub instruments
C. It is safe for all instruments
D. Instruments with ratchets are left in the open position

The Medical Assistant still needs to scrub instruments

137

Which of the following would be used when an infected wound needs to remain open for drainage?
A. Wick
B. Sponge
C. Gauze
D. Dressing

Wick

138

Which of the following is NOT an effective skin cleanser or antiseptic?
A. Betadine
B. Hibiclens
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Benzoine tincture

Benzoine tincture

139

Which of the following wound terms best describes an example of a closed wound?
A. Puncture
B. Incision
C. Avulsion
D. Contusion

Contusion

140

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when setting up a surgical tray?
A. Leave the prepared sterile tray in a common area
B. Leave the tray uncovered in the exam room
C. Set up the tray after the patient is prepped and raped
D. Set up the tray just prior to surgery

Set up the tray just prior to surgery

141

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when setting up and covering a sterile field?
A. Grasp the drape at the top cut corner
B. Drag the non-sterile side carefully across the tray or table surface
C. Consider all edges of the drape to be sterile
D. Keep the drape below the waist and love the table

Grasp the drape at the top cut corner

142

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when opening sterile packages of instruments and supplies and applying them to a sterile field?
A. You may touch the inside flap
B. Gather the loose edges of the package to prevent dragging over the field
C. Open peel-apart packages using scissors
D. Open the first flap towards you

Gather the loose edges of the package to prevent dragging over the field

143

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when applying a sterile adhesive skin closure strip?
A. Do not clean the wound before removing the sutures
B. Apply the first strip to the lower end of the incision
C. Apply the first strip to the center of the incision
D. Apply the first strip in a criss-cross manner over the incision

Apply the first strip to the center of the incision

144

Which of the following is the most appropriate action to prepare a patient's skin for minor surgery?
A. Place a non-fenestrated drape over the area and begin the procedure
B. Shave hair away from the operative site
C. Pour antiseptic solution directly on the skin
D. Use soap and scrub in an inward circular fashion for 2 to 5 minutes

Shave hair away from the operative site

145

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when changing a patient's dressing?
A. Pull off the dressing stuck to the wound very quickly
b. Loosen the dressing stuck to the wound with sterile water
C. Cleanse the wound site with bleach solution
D. Loosen the dressing stuck to the wound with antibacterial ointment

Loosen the dressing stuck to the wound with sterile water

146

Which of the following suture sizes would be used on the face or neck?
A. 6-0
B. 2-0
C. 4-0
D. 0

6-0

147

Which of the following is NOT considered a purpose of using a bandage?
A. Immobilizes
B. Helps stop bleeding
C. Helps keep dressing in place
D. Provides padding and protection

Helps stop bleeding

148

Which of the following is the best description of documenting a laceration?
A. 2-inch laceration on arm caused by fall; no bleeding at present
B. 3.5-cm laceration on arm caused by fall on metal object
C. 3.5-cm laceration on posterior surface lower of arm; no active bleeding; fell on metal object in barn
D. 1/4-in deep, 2-inch long laceration of lower arm

3.5-cm laceration on posterior surface lower of arm; no active bleeding; fell on metal object in barn

149

Which of the following is considered a cautery method to permanently destroy the toenail growth plate?
A. Cryosurgery
B. Liquid nitrogen
C. Silver nitrate
D. Sodium hydroxide

Sodium hydroxide

150

What type of sterilization technique is used for heat- or moisture-sensitive equipment and takes many hours to process?
A. Gas
B. Dry heat
C. Chemical
D. Steam

Gas

151

Which of the following instruments will the physician NOT need for suturing a laceration?
A. Needle holder
B. Iris scissors
C. Scalpel
D. Hemostat

Scalpel

152

Which of the following should be noted by the patient to observe for infection?
A. Redness, swelling, heat, pain, and drainage
B. Swelling, pain, drainage, and coolness around wound
C. Redness and swelling only
D. Cyanosis and heat

Redness, swelling, heat, pain, and drainage

153

Which of the following has likely occurred if Mr. King says his suture area is red, swollen, and has "white stuff" in it?
A. Normal granulation
B. Infection
C. Exudation
D. Systemic effect

Infection

154

Fiber-optic endoscopes uses which type of sterilization?
A. Gas
B. Steam
C. Chemical
D. Dry heat

Chemical

155

Which of the following is considered a factor that could influence the effectiveness of chemical sterilization?
A. Wet items were added
B. The lid was loose
C. The exposure time was limited
D. All of the above

All of the above

156

Which sterilization method is the one most widely used in the medical office?
A. Gas
B. Steam
C. Dry heat
D. Chemical

Steam

157

The recommended temperature for effective sterilization in an autoclave is what?
A. 170 F
B. 200 F
C. 270 F
D. 370 F

270 F

158

When loading the autoclave, what is the appropriate amount of space to have between packs and the autoclave wall?
A. 1-2 inches
B. 1-3 inches
C. 2-3 inches
D. 3-4 inches

1-3 inches

159

What type of material is commonly used to wrap instruments when using an autoclave?
A. Muslin
B. Polyester
C. Nylon
D. Cotton

Muslin

160

Which of the following is required when labeling packages for autoclaving?
A. Provider's name
B. Name of the article
C. Date of sterilization
D. All of the above

Date of sterilization

161

How should single articles for sterilization in the autoclave be wrapped?
A. Single wrapped
B. Double wrapped
C. Triple wrapped
D. No wrapping

Double wrapped

162

Which of the following is NOT considered a common chemical used to destroy tissue and stop bleeding?
A. Formalin
B. Silver nitrate
C. Liquid nitrogen
D. Sodium hydroxide

Formalin

163

What is considered to be the main advantage of electrosurgery?
A. Minimal scarring
B. Controlled bleeding
C. Pain free
D. Minimal healing time

Controlled bleeding

164

Cryosurgery destroys tissues by what means?
A. Melting
B. Burning
C. Freezing
D. Excising

Freezing

165

Which item of PPE should be worn by the provider, MAS, and patient when laser surgery is being performed?
A. Gowns
B. Safety glasses
C. Masks
D. Gloves

Safety glasses

166

Which of the following is NOT a way suture needles are categorized?
A. Size
B. Length
C. Shape
D. Type of point

Length

167

Handles on instruments designed to be squeezed between the thumb and finger are called what?
A. Ring handles
B. Ratchet handles
C. Thumb handles
D. Finger handles

Thumb handles

168

Which of the following is the smallest suture size?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 1-0
D. 6-0

6-0

169

Locking mechanisms located between the rings of the handles that are used for locking the instrument closed are known as which of the following?
A. Ratchets
B. Lockets
C. Serrations
D. Teeth

Ratchets

170

What type of drape has an opening on it allowing access to the surgery site?
A. Sterile
B. Poly-lined
C. Fenestrated
D. Non-fenestrated

Fenestrated

171

What bandage wrapping technique is used on a joint that requires movement?
A. Circular
B. Figure-eight
C. Spiral
D. Spiral reverse

Figure-eight

172

Which of the following is NOT part of the patient instructions for wound care?
A. Keep the wound clean and dry
B. Use warm soak solutions
C. Pull the dressing off rapidly to lessen pain when changing dressing
D. Use topical antibacterial medications

Pull the dressing off rapidly to lessen pain when changing dressing

173

Which of the following instruments is NOT a grasping and clamping instrument?
A. Hemostat
B. Forceps
C. Retractor
D. Needle holder

Retractor

174

Convection
A. Heat loss from the skin through air currents passing over it, such as a fan
B. Heat loss through normal body functions such as respiration
C. Heat loss through the skin to surrounding cooler objects such as clothing
D. Heat loss from the skin to surrounding cooler environments
E. Heat loss using heat absorption by vaporizing perspiration

Heat loss from the skin through air currents passing over it, such as a fan

175

Conduction
A. Heat loss from the skin through air currents passing over it, such as a fan
B. Heat loss through normal body functions such as respiration
C. Heat loss through the skin to surrounding cooler objects such as clothing
D. Heat loss from the skin to surrounding cooler environments
E. Heat loss using heat absorption by vaporizing perspiration

Heat loss through the skin to surrounding cooler objects such as clothing

176

Radiation
A. Heat loss from the skin through air currents passing over it, such as a fan
B. Heat loss through normal body functions such as respiration
C. Heat loss through the skin to surrounding cooler objects such as clothing
D. Heat loss from the skin to surrounding cooler environments
E. Heat loss using heat absorption by vaporizing perspiration

Heat loss from the skin to surrounding cooler environments

177

Elimination
A. Heat loss from the skin through air currents passing over it, such as a fan
B. Heat loss through normal body functions such as respiration
C. Heat loss through the skin to surrounding cooler objects such as clothing
D. Heat loss from the skin to surrounding cooler environments
E. Heat loss using heat absorption by vaporizing perspiration

Heat loss through normal body functions such as respiration

178

Astigmatism
A. Nearsightedness
B. Bacterial infection
C. Lens loses transparency
D. Irregular lens curvature

Irregular lens curvature

179

Cataract
A. Nearsightedness
B. Bacterial infection
C. Lens loses transparency
D. Irregular lens curvature

Lens loses transparency

180

Conjunctivitis
A. Nearsightedness
B. Bacterial infection
C. Lens loses transparency
D. Irregular lens curvature

Bacterial infection

181

Myopia
A. Nearsightedness
B. Bacterial infection
C. Lens loses transparency
D. Irregular lens curvature

Nearsightedness

182

Electrocardiograph
A. Urinary
B. Respiratory
C. Musculoskeletal
D. Circulatory
E. Sensory
F. Blood and lymph

Circulatory

183

Catheterization
A. Urinary
B. Respiratory
C. Musculoskeletal
D. Circulatory
E. Sensory
F. Blood and lymph

Urinary

184

Tuning fork
A. Urinary
B. Respiratory
C. Musculoskeletal
D. Circulatory
E. Sensory
F. Blood and lymph

Sensory

185

Spirometry
A. Urinary
B. Respiratory
C. Musculoskeletal
D. Circulatory
E. Sensory
F. Blood and lymph

Respiratory

186

Electromyography
A. Urinary
B. Respiratory
C. Musculoskeletal
D. Circulatory
E. Sensory
F. Blood and lymph

Musculoskeletal

187

Complete blood count
A. Urinary
B. Respiratory
C. Musculoskeletal
D. Circulatory
E. Sensory
F. Blood and lymph

Blood and lymph

188

Cytoscopy
A. Urinary
B. Respiratory
C. Musculoskeletal
D. Circulatory
E. Sensory
F. Blood and lymph

Urinary

189

FEV
A. Urinary
B. Respiratory
C. Musculoskeletal
D. Circulatory
E. Sensory
F. Blood and lymph

Respiratory

190

Hematochezia
A. Urinary
B. Digestive
C. Sensory
D. Circulatory
E. Musculoskeletal

Digestive

191

Proteinuria
A. Urinary
B. Digestive
C. Sensory
D. Circulatory
E. Musculoskeletal

Urinary

192

Rickets
A. Urinary
B. Digestive
C. Sensory
D. Circulatory
E. Musculoskeletal

Musculoskeletal

193

Otosclerosis
A. Urinary
B. Digestive
C. Sensory
D. Circulatory
E. Musculoskeletal

Sensory

194

Lordosis
A. Urinary
B. Digestive
C. Sensory
D. Circulatory
E. Musculoskeletal

Musculoskeletal

195

Gout
A. Urinary
B. Digestive
C. Sensory
D. Circulatory
E. Musculoskeletal

Musculoskeletal

196

Meniere's disease
A. Urinary
B. Digestive
C. Sensory
D. Circulatory
E. Musculoskeletal

Sensory

197

Angina pectoris
A. Urinary
B. Digestive
C. Sensory
D. Circulatory
E. Musculoskeletal

Circulatory

198

Cerumen
A. Urinary
B. Digestive
C. Sensory
D. Circulatory
E. Musculoskeletal

Sensory

199

Oliguria
A. Urinary
B. Digestive
C. Sensory
D. Circulatory
E. Musculoskeletal

Urinary

200

Is applied directly to the wound
A. Dressing
B. Bandage

Dressing

201

Should be handled with care to avoid contamination
A. Dressing
B. Bandage

Dressing

202

Is a supportive material wrapped around the wound
A. Dressing
B. Bandage

Bandage

203

Must be adequately absorbent
A. Dressing
B. Bandage

Dressing

204

Used to keep the sterile covering underneath in place
A. Dressing
B. Bandage

Bandage

205

Used to provide padding and protection
A. Dressing
B. Bandage

Bandage

206

All sterile objects must be held in front of and away from body
A. True
B. False

True

207

Do not cough, talk, or sneeze over a sterile field
A. True
B. False

True

208

Reach slowly and carefully over the sterile field
A. True
B. False

False

209

If a sterile field that is not poly-lined gets wet, it is still considered sterile
A. True
B. False

False

210

All sterile items are to be at waist level
A. True
B. False

False

211

An acceptable border between a sterile and non-sterile area is 1 1/2 inches
A. True
B. False

False

212

Used in nose and ear procedures
A. Scopes
B. Scalpel
C. Bayonet forceps
D. Retractors
E. Probes

Bayonet forceps

213

Used to probe into a body cavity or wound
A. Scopes
B. Scalpel
C. Bayonet forceps
D. Retractors
E. Probes

Probes

214

Lighted instrument used for viewing
A. Scopes
B. Scalpel
C. Bayonet forceps
D. Retractors
E. Probes

Scopes

215

Device used to cut the skin
A. Scopes
B. Scalpel
C. Bayonet forceps
D. Retractors
E. Probes

Scalpel

216

Pulls back edges of a wound
A. Scopes
B. Scalpel
C. Bayonet forceps
D. Retractors
E. Probes

Retractors