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Flashcards in Module 11 Study Guide Deck (131):
1

Which of the following best defines hematology?
A. Study of blood chemistry
B. Study of blood proteins
C. Study of blood plasma
D. Study of blood cells

Study of blood cells

2

Which of the following is NOT generally included in the complete blood count (CBC)?
A. Hemoglobin determination
B. Hematocrit determination
C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
D. Red blood cell count

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

3

Which of the following is required for the synthesis of the heme portion of the hemoglobin molecule?
A. Calcium
B. Phosphorus
C. Iron
D. Carbon Dioxide

Iron

4

Which of the following is the major component of the RBC that transports oxygen?
A. Serum
B. Hemoglobin
C. Plasma
D. Protein

Hemoglobin

5

Which of the following is the hormone required for the production of new red blood cells?
A. Hematopoietin
B. Erythropoietin
C. Hemoglobin
D. Plasma

Erythropoietin

6

Which of the following is a true statement regarding immunity?
A. Passively acquired immunity is through fighting off disease
B. Actively acquired immunity is through an injection
C. Immunity is always permanent
D. None of the above

None of the above

7

Which of the following best describes a hematocrit test?
A. Ratio of the volume of packed red blood cells
B. Requires a large amount of blood
C. Measures the total volume of WBCs
D. Requires filling one capillary tube

Ratio of the volume of packed red blood cells

8

Platelets or thrombocytes are involved in doing what in the blood?
A. Fighting infection
B. Coagulation
C. Carry's oxygen
D. All of the above

All of the above

9

Which of the following is the most common type of hemoglobin disease seen in ambulatory care?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Hypovolemia

Iron deficiency anemia

10

Which of the following is the normal range of values for hemoglobin of adult women?
A. 9-14 g/dl
B. 12-14 g/dl
C. 12-16 g/dl
D. 13-18 g/dl

12-16 g/dl

11

How can the WBC count be estimated when performing the microhematocrit test?
A. Cannot be estimated
B. Measured at the bottom of the tube
C. By measuring buffy coat thickness
D. By the amount of plasma and platelets

By measuring buffy coat thickness

12

Which of the following is the normal range of values for the hematocrit of the adult male?
A. 36-46%
B. 30-40%
C. 40-45%
D. 40-55%

40-55%

13

WBC's are divided into two basic groups known as what?
A. Granulocytes and cytoplasm
B. Polymorphonuclear and apolymorphonuclear
C. Mononuclear and agranuloctytes
D. Granulocytes and agranulocytes

Granulocytes and agranulocytes

14

Leukocytes provide specific disease-fighting functions in the blood. Which one of the following is NOT one of them?
A. Coagulation
B. Phagocytosis
C. Detoxification
D. Immune response

Coagulation

15

Oxygenated hemoglobin is what color?
A. Dark red
B. Bright red
C. Blue
D. Yellow

Bright red

16

When the "sed rate" increases, it detects what type of disease/condition?
A. Inflammatory disease
B. Acute stress
C. Lupus
D. All of the above

All of the above

17

What type of blood is used for the microhematocrit test?
A. Arterial
B. Capillary
C. Capillary and arterial
D. None of the above

Capillary

18

Which of the following is the reference range of a leukocyte count for adults?
A. 4,500-11,000
B. 5,000-12,000
C. 6,000-14,000
D. 10,0000-30,000

4,500-11,000

19

When placing the sealed tubes into the microhematocrit centrifuge, what must be done before closing the lid?
A. Place the tubes in slots next to each other
B. Place the tubes opposite each other, balancing each other across the centrifuge
C. Determine the average values
D. Set the timer and adjust the speed

Place the tubes opposite each other, balancing each other across the centrifuge

20

Which of the following statements is false about disease states and cell changes?
A. Appendicitis causes increased neutrophils
B. Viral infections are associated with increased red blood cells
C. Iron deficiency anemia shows hypochromic red blood cells
D. Infectious mononucleosis shows increased lymphocytes

Viral infections are associated with increased red blood cells

21

Which of the following blood cells is NOT a granulocyte?
A. Eosinophil
B. Neutrophil
C. Lymphocytes
D. Basophil

Lymphocytes

22

Which of the following is the normal value for a platelet count?
A. 20,000-50,000
B. 50,000-100,000
C. 140,000-400,000
D. 400,000-600,000

140,000-400,000

23

Which of the following best describes erythrocyte indices?
A. Calculations that provide size and hemoglobin content of RBCs
B. Provides information for hematocrit
C. Allows for calculations of oxygen in hemoglobin
D. Abbreviated MCV, MCA, and MCC

Calculations that provide size and hemoglobin content of RBCs

24

Which of the following statements is true about performing an accurate "sed rate" procedure?
A. Tube must be read at exactly 2 hours
B. Counter must be free of vibrations
C. Tests should be set up within 3 hours after the blood is drawn
B. Test is conducted at 50 degrees F

Counter must be free of vibrations

25

Which of the following is NOT a cellular component of the blood?
A. RBC
B. Buffy coat
C. WBC
D. Platelet

Buffy coat

26

Which of the following is the most numerous of the white blood cells?
A. Monocytes
B. Lymphocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Eosinophils

Neutrophils

27

Which of the following is the most frequently performed procedure in the medical office laboratory?
A. Hematology
B. Urinalysis
C. Chemistry
D. Microbiology

Urinalysis

28

Which of the following is the filtering unit of the kidney?
A. Renal arteries
B. Glomerulus
C. Tubules
D. Cortex

Glomerulus

29

Near the end of the blood's journey through the kidney, in which area are the other substances that have not already been filtered secrete into the urine?
A. Glomerulus
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Henley's loop
D. Distal convoluted tubule

Distal convoluted tubule

30

Which of the following is NOT a major kidney function?
A. Secretion
B. Absorption
C. Diffusion
D. Filtration

Diffusion

31

Which of the following is normally included in completely reabsorbed threshold substances?
A. Creatinine
B. Amino acids
C. Protein
D. Chloride

Protein

32

What is the most frequently seen parasite in the urine?
A. Amorphous
B. Sperm
C. Yeast
D. Trichomonas

Trichomonas

33

Which of the following best describes the concentration level in the blood when glucose will be completely reabsorbed from the urine?
A. 225 mg/dl
B. 180 mg/dl
C. 325 mg/dl
D. Less than 180 mg/dl

Less than 180 mg/dl

34

Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the medical assistant when handling urine specimens?
A. Treat all specimens as if they were normal
B. Avoid splashes that may enter the eyes
C. Store urine specimens in a dark cabinet
D. Process urine specimens within 24 hours

Avoid splashes that may enter the eyes

35

Which of the following is an abnormal substance in urine?
A. Urea
B. Ammonium
C. Chloride
D. Fat

Fat

36

Which of the following best describes the number of years that documentation for the performance of daily control testing must be kept?
A. At least 1 year
B. At least 2 years
C. At least 3 years
D. At least 4 years

At least 3 years

37

Which of the following is NOT a CLIA regulation that applies to urine testing?
A. Person must have appropriate training in the methodology of the test
B. Person must be proficient in the use of the instruments used
C. Person must be aware of factors that influence test results
D. Person must have another qualified person perform the same quality control testing

Person must have another qualified person perform the same quality control testing

38

Which of the following specimens usually requires added preservatives in the container?
A. Random
B. Fasting timed
C. 24-hour
D. Catheterized

24-hour

39

Which of the following urine specimens is usually requested when quantitative tests are needed for different substances?
A. Random
B. Fasting timed
C. 24-hour
D. Catheterized

24-hour

40

Which of the following urine specimens may be required when urine specimens need to be sterile?
A. Random
B. Fasting timed
C. 24-hour
D. Catheterized

Catheterized

41

Which of the following is a true statement about the examination of urine?
A. Urine should be examined within 24 hours of voiding
B. Urine should be refrigerated for at least 1 hour before examination
C. Urine should be examined within 2 hours of voiding
D. Urine should never be refrigerated

Urine should be examined within 2 hours of voiding

42

Which of the following is NOT a classification for urine specimens?
A. First morning
B. Fasting/timed
C. 24-hour
D. Voided specimen

Voided specimen

43

Which of the following is NOT included in the physical examination of urine?
A. Observing and recording color
B. Noting unusual urine odor
C. Noting excess glucose
D. Measuring specific gravity

Noting excess glucose

44

Which of the following is the most important technique to stress when instructing the patient in collecting a clean-catch, midstream specimen to avoid contamination?
A. Cleansing genital area before collection
B. Collection process
C. Labeling before collection
D. Lid placement

Cleansing genital area before collection

45

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when observing urine color?
A. Record the color
B. Use a dark room
C. Place against a blue background
D. Transparency is not important

Record the color

46

Which of the following best describes the color of normal urine?
A. Clear
B. Straw
C. Amber
D. Smoky

Straw

47

Which of the following is an adequate urine specimen for analysis?
A. At least 2 mLs
B. At least 5 mLs
C. At least 10 mLs
D. At least 7 mLs

At least 10 mLs

48

Which of the following best describes what causes a foul odor in a urine sample?
A. Bacteria
B. Diabetes
C. Vitamins
D. Beets

Bacteria

49

What is the normal range of urine specific gravity?
A. 1.000-1.003
B. 1.001-1.003
C. 1.005-1.030
D. 1.035-1.35

1.005-1.030

50

When must quality control be performed when using a refractometer?
A. At the end of the day
B. By comparing values with tap water
C. Before testing each specimen
D. At the beginning of each day

Before testing each specimen

51

Which of the following is NOT included in the quality control of reagent strips?
A. Do not expose to moisture
B. Keep in the original container
C. Keep away from direct sunlight
D. Keep in the refrigerator

Keep in the refrigerator

52

Which of the following is the most common urine specimen collection performed in the outpatient setting?
A. Midstream clean-catch
B. Catheterized
C. First morning
D. Random (spot)

Random (spot)

53

Which of the following is an appropriate action for a microscope examination of urine sediment?
A. Completed after specimen settles for 1 hour
B. Performed on soluble materials
C. Heated before examination
D. Performed using a urine color atlas

Performed using a urine color atlas

54

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the significance of seeing many squamous epithelial cells on microscopic examination?
A. Has no medical significance
B. Indicates that the specimen is contaminated with skin cells
C. Indicates possible squamous cell cancer
D. Reported as few, moderate, or many

Indicates possible squamous cell cancer

55

Which of the following best describes the characteristics of yeast cells on microscopic examination?
A. larger than red blood cells
B. Resembles casts
C. Smaller than red blood cells
D. Resembles crystals

Smaller than red blood cells

56

Which of the following is NOT an example of an artifact seen in urine?
A. Hair
B. Fibers
C. Powder
D. Crystals

Crystals

57

Which of the following are significant crystals that need to be documented?
A. Calcium phosphate
B. Uric acid
C. Amorphous
D. Calcium oxalate

Uric acid

58

Which of the following is NOT true about casts?
A. They are formed when ketones accumulate
B. They are cylindrical with round or flat ends
C. They are classed according to the substances in them
D. The most common is the hyaline cast

They are formed when ketones accumulate

59

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when performing a microscopic examination of a urine specimen?
A. Use the last night specimen and store it in a refrigerator
B. Centrifuge a 5 mL aliquot at 1,000 rpm for 5 minutes
C. Pour off the supernatant leaving about 1 mL in the bottom
D. Scan the sediment using a high-power objective

Pour off the supernatant leaving about 1 mL in the bottom

60

Which type of specimen will you collect for a patient who suspects he has a urinary tract infection?
A. Random
B. 24-hour
C. Clean-catch midstream
D. Catheterized

Clean-catch midstream

61

Which of the following will be included in the instructions you give her for this test?
A. Take this bottle and urinate in it
B. Take this bottle and collect all your urine in it for 24 hours
C. Be sure to clean yourself as I explained to you and save only the urine from the middle of the stream
D. Take deep breaths and relax as this small tube is inserted to remove some sterile urine

Be sure to clean yourself as I explained to you and save only the urine from the middle of the stream

62

When you take the specimen from Mrs. Ferguson and examine it for color, it is amber and cloudy. Which of the following best describes the appearance and composition of the urine?
A. Dilute; normal
B. Concentrated; has white blood cells
C Dilute; has white blood cells
D. Concentrated; has red blood cells

Concentrated; has white blood cells

63

Which of the following is a true statement regarding a first-morning urine specimen?
A. More dilute
B. Higher acid pH
C. Lower acid pH
D. None of the above

Higher acid pH

64

What is NOT required on the urinalysis report?
A. Type of urine specimen
B. Patient's signature
C. Date and time the urine was tested
D. Findings
E. Provide who ordered the urinalysis

Patient's signature

65

When casts are formed, what accumulates in the kidney tubules?
A. Protein
B. pH
C. Specific gravity
D. Ketones

Protein

66

Which of the following is an indication with the presence of casts and renal epithelial cells?
A. No concern
B. Possible diabetes
C. Possible kidney disease
D. Cancer

Possible kidney disease

67

Which area on the reagent test strip would be positive, indicating an infection and its presence in a urine sample?
A. Specific gravity
B. Leukocytes
C. Ketones
D. Urobilinogen

Leukocytes

68

Which of the following best describes placing a sample of body secretions on a special medium to allow bacteria to grow?
A. Sensitivity test
B. Culture
C. Holding media
D. Mordant

Culture

69

Which of the following is NOT a eukaryote?
A. Protozoa
B. Algae
C. Bacteria
D. Fungi

Bacteria

70

Which of the following terms best describes infections acquired in hospitals?
A. Floral
B. Bacterial
C. Serratia
D. Nosocomial

Nosocomial

71

Which of the following is the nuclear material in all cells?
A. Ribosomes
B. Cytoplasm
C. DNA
D. RNA

DNA

72

Which of the following best describes when a safety hood is mandatory in laboratory use?
A. Performing a culture with a potential of aerosol
B. Examining a stool specimen
C. Working with a foul-smelling specimen
D. Performing an anaerobic culture

Performing a culture with a potential of aerosol

73

Which of the following methods is used for maintaining an anaerobic condition?
A. Incubator
B. Gas pack jar
C. Petri dish
D. Safety hood

Gas pack jar

74

Which of the following is used for a stab culture?
A. Inoculating loop
B. Inoculating needle
C. Incinerator
D. Bunsen burner

Inoculating needle

75

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when handling microbiology specimens?
A. Look for leaks on the outside of the transporting container
B. Wear gloves
C. Use the appropriate container when sending specimens to an outside lab
D. Handle the specimen as if it is not contaminated

Handle the specimen as if it is not contaminated

76

Which of the following is NOT part of a quality control program in microbiology?
A. Monitor all equipment with temperature controls daily
B. Do not use media past the shelf life
C. Update the laboratory manual daily
D. Make the MSDS available to reference

Update the laboratory manual daily

77

Which of the following best describes the use of a clutter tube?
A. Transporting stool samples
B. Keeping the swab moist
C. Transporting blood specimens
D. All of the above

Keeping the swab moist

78

Which of the following should be used when obtaining a nasal collection for a culture?
A. Sterile tongue depressor
B. Sterile applicator stick
C. Special swab on a thin wire
D. None of the above

Special swab on a thin wire

79

Which of the following applies to the collection of specimens?
A. Lab assistants do not need to wear gloves
B. Wear gloves only when needed
C. Occasionally follow instructions in the lab manual
D. Must strictly adhere to standard precautions

Must strictly adhere to standard precautions

80

Which of the following type of specimen is obtained when a lumbar puncture is performed by the physician?
A. Sputum
B. Stool
C. Mucous
D. Cerebrospinal fluid

Cerebrospinal fluid

81

What is the source of the dyes used in microbiology?
A. Plants
B. Coal tar
C. Food coloring
D. Animal products

Coal tar

82

Which of the following is the type of stain that is often referred to as a specific stain and that allows for microscopic examination of acid-fast organisms?
A. Gram
B. Acid-fast
C. Simple
D. None of the above

Acid-fast

83

Which of the following best describes how bacterium is determined to be Gram positive or negative?
A. Nature of the cytoplasm
B. Ability to retain or lose color
C. Presence of ribosomes
D. Absence of cytoplasm

Ability to retain or lose color

84

Which of the following is the gent that acts as a mordant in the Gram stain process?
A. Iodine
B. Gentian violet
C. Safranin
D. Crystal violet

Iodine

85

Which of the following is NOT a reagent used in the Gram stain?
A. Crystal violet
B. Iodine
C. Spirilla
D. Safranin

Spirilla

86

Which of the following is NOT given out as patient education to relieve discomfort and help patients toward better health?
A. Dress comfortably according to the weather
B. Avoid tobacco
C. Cough or sneeze into a tissue
D. Decrease water intake

Decrease water intake

87

Which of the following best describes the results of a Gram stain?
A. All bacteria will turn yellow
B. Gram negative bacteria will turn purple
C. Gram positive bacteria will turn purple
D. Gram positive bacteria will not have any color

Gram positive bacteria will turn purple

88

Which of the following is the Ziehl-Neelsen stain used for testing?
A. Gram stain bacteria
B. Acid-fast bacteria
C. Yeast infection
D. Fungal infections

Acid-fast bacteria

89

Which of the following is the KOH used for testing?
A. Gram positive bacteria
B. Acid-fast bacteria
C. Fungi and spores
D. Stool specimens

Fungi and spores

90

Which of the following is the type of media classification that supports the growth of one type of organism while inhibiting the growth of another?
A. Basic
B. Differential
C. Selective
D. Enriched

Selective

91

From which of the following is the organism Neisseria meningitides obtained?
A. Genitalia
B. Cerebrospinal fluid
C. Sputum
D. Urine

Cerebrospinal fluid

92

Which of the following is an organism requiring special media and an atmosphere of reduced oxygen and increased carbon dioxide?
A. Streptococcus
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Staphylococcus
D. Escherichia coli

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

93

Which of the following bacteria are round in shape and can occur in clusters or pairs?
A. Spirilla
B. Bacilli
C. Cocci
D. None

Cocci

94

Which of the following bacteria are purple rods when the staining process is complete?
A. Gram-negative bacilli
B. Gram-positive bacilli
C. Gram-positive cocci
D. Gram-negative spirilla

Gram-positive bacilli

95

Which of the following is NOT included in inoculating techniques?
A. Loop
B. Lawn streak
C. Colony count
D. Random streak

Random streak

96

Which of the following best describes the use of the colony streaking technique?
A. Dilute bacteria
B. Grow yeast
C. Plate urine cultures
D. Grow Shigella

Plate urine cultures

97

Which of the following is the next step when there is more than one pathogen growing in a bacterial culture?
A. Use a dissecting microscope
B. Wait an additional 36 hours to identify the predominant organism
C. Obtain another specimen
D. Set up a subculture and separate bacteria to another media

Set up a subculture and separate bacteria to another media

98

When using KOH on a wet mount, what does the KOH do?
A. Stains the organism
B. Destroys the fungus
C. Clears debris
D. Makes objects look brighter

Clears debris

99

What is the organism that causes strep throat?
A. Group A, alpha-hemolytic streptococcus
B. Group A, beta-hemolytic streptococcus
C. Group B, alpha-meholytic streptococcus
D. Group B, beta-hemolytic streptococcus

Group A, beta-hemolytic streptococcus

100

Which of the following is true regarding culture media?
A. Media can be solid, liquid, or gas
B. The agar is considered liquid form
C. Agar is poured into a Petri dish
D. Semisolid is made by adding more agar

Agar is poured into a Petri dish

101

After the agar plate has been inoculated and properly labeled, what must you do with the plate?
A. Nothing, agar plates require nothing special
B. Place it back with the other agar plates in the original package
C. Leave it right-side up, and place in the proper environment for growth
D. Turn it upside-down, and place in the proper environment for growth

Turn it upside-down, and place in the proper environment for growth

102

When a patient has a bacterial infection that is not responding to the antibiotic, what test might the physician order?
A. Differential stain
B. C&S
C. KOH
D. All of the above

C&S

103

Which of the following is true when collecting stool for O & P identification?
A. Do not contaminate the stool specimen with urine
B. Use special vials
C. Collect the stool in wide-mouth containers
D. All of the above

All of the above

104

When a parasite test comes back negative for worms, how many confirmatory tests should be performed?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

6

105

How can a fungus infection be diagnosed?
A. Use a Woody lamp
B. Use a Wood's lamp
C. Use a Wooden lamp
D. Use a Wood's lantern

Use a Wood's lamp

106

Foodborne illnesses are often caused by which of the following?
A. Raw or uncooked food
B. Contaminated food handlers
C. Both A & B
D. Fish from polluted waters

Both A & B

107

Giardiasis Lamblia is often contracted by which of the following?
A. Mountain hikers
B. Children
C. Sanitation workers
D. Athletes

Mountain hikers

108

Which of the following is a serious issue caused by hookworm infection?
A. Starvation
B. Dysentery
C. Anemia
D. Blood clots

Anemia

109

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when writing a cover letter?
A. Make the letter lengthy to describe details about past experiences
B. The last paragraph should state your reason for writing
C. Reproduce it several times to use with multiple employers
D. Address it to a specific individual whenever possible

Address it to a specific individual whenever possible

110

Which of the following is important to remember when beginning your job search for a position as a medical assistant?
A. Pounding the pavement gets the job
B. A position is guaranteed with a certificate
C. Networking is the most effective in a job search
D. Competition is not important

Networking is the most effective in a job search

111

Which of the following best describes the advantage of completing a pre-job search self-evaluation worksheet?
A. Deciding whether to leave your present job
B. Concentrating on improving weaknesses
C. Seeing how your work is progressing
D. Looking at your strengths, weaknesses, and preferences

Looking at your strengths, weaknesses, and preferences

112

Which of the following best describes the time period for employment history on a resume?
A. Recent to past 10 years
B. Recent to past 5 years
C. Recent to past 10 years in great detail
D. Entire employment history in general terms

Recent to past 10 years

113

Which of the following best describes the type of resume that highlights an applicant's accomplishments and strengths?
A. Targeted
B. Functional
C. Chronological

Functional

114

Which of the following best describes the type of resume for focusing on a specific job target?
A. Targeted
B. Functional
C. Chronological

Targeted

115

Which of the following best describes the type of resume for a person re-entering the job market?
A. Targeted
B. Functional
C. Chronological

Functional

116

Which of the following is NOT a part of vital resume information?
A. Name and address
B. Current telephone
C. Birth date
D. Education

Birth date

117

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a cover letter?
A. Directing the letter to the office manager
B. Obtaining an interview
C. Following up after an interview
D. Seeing whether positions are available

Obtaining an interview

118

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when completing an employment application form?
A. Be prepared to complete the form while in the office
B. Write "see resume" rather than supply all information
C. Complete quickly to not delay another applicant
D. Use a pencil in case errors are made

Be prepared to complete the form while in the office

119

Which of the following best describes the type of resume advantageous for an applicant whose work experience has been volunteer or freelance?
A. Targeted
B. Functional
C. Chronological

Functional

120

Which of the following best describes the type of resume that is advantageous when an applicant's job history shows real growth and development and prior titles are important?
A. Targeted
B. Functional
C. Chronological

Chronological

121

Which of the following is advantageous in using a chronological resume?
A. You are staying in the same field as prior jobs
B. You are changing career goals
C. Your work history is spotty
D. You have been in the same job for many years

You are staying in the same field as prior jobs

122

According to statistics, what percent of job positions are filled through networking?
A. 50
B. 80
C. 75
D. 90

80

123

Of employees who ask for a raise or promotion, how many receive them?
A. One-half
B. One-quarter
C. Three-quarters
D. All of them

Three-quarters

124

Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding a resume?
A. A long detailed resume is best
B. References should be listed on the same sheet as the resume
C. Style is more important than accuracy
D. Accomplishment statements begin with power verbs

Accomplishment statements begin with power verbs

125

In the actual interview, you should do which of the following?
A. Take charge
B. Hand them one copy of everything you brought with you
C. Sit comfortably to show that you are relaxed
D. Think of yourself as a guest and take your cues from the interviewer

Think of yourself as a guest and take your cues from the interviewer

126

At the end of the interview, what should you do if you are interested?
A. Plead for the job
B. Leave an extra copy of the resume
C. Ask to be considered for the job
D. Plan to write a letter to the interviewer

Ask to be considered for the job

127

Which of the following is critical for an online presentation?
A. Quickly catching the eye of the interviewer
B. Showing a self-made video
C. Giving a thorough and detailed description
D. Presenting your complete job history

Quickly catching the eye of the interviewer

128

Anisocytosis
A. Cells show marked variation in shape
B. Cells show marked variation in size
C. Cells have proper amount of hemoglobin
D. Cells have large, pale central area

Cells show marked variation in size

129

Hypochromic
A. Cells show marked variation in shape
B. Cells show marked variation in size
C. Cells have proper amount of hemoglobin
D. Cells have large, pale central area

Cells have large, pale central area

130

Poikilocytosis
A. Cells show marked variation in shape
B. Cells show marked variation in size
C. Cells have proper amount of hemoglobin
D. Cells have large, pale central area

Cells show marked variation in shape

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Normochromatic
A. Cells show marked variation in shape
B. Cells show marked variation in size
C. Cells have proper amount of hemoglobin
D. Cells have large, pale central area

Cells have proper amount of hemoglobin