Module One Flashcards
1
Q
What is the first priority of the EMT on the scene of an emergency?
A
TO ENSURE PERSONAL SAFETY
2
Q
An EMT is an operating as a designated agent of the ______________________
A
MEDICAL DIRECTOR
3
Q
The _________________ is legally responsible for the clinical and patient-care aspects of an EMS system.
A
MEDICAL DIRECTOR
4
Q
The first concern of an EMT always must be __________________ safety.
A
PERSONAL
5
Q
What is the term used for a policy set by an EMS medical director that allows EMTs to administer glucose to patients in certain circumstances without speaking to the physician?
A
STANDING ORDER
6
Q
An order from an EMS system’s on-duty physician given by radio or phone is an example of _________________
A
ON-LINE MEDICAL DIRECTION
7
Q
The level of EMS that involves medical training for those who are usually first on the scene of an emergency is _________________
A
EMERGENCY MEDICAL RESPONDER
8
Q
Most EMT courses today are based on models developed by the _______________
A
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
9
Q
The system of internal and external reviews and audits for all aspects of an emergency medical system is known as what?
A
Quality Improvement (QI)
10
Q
The aspect of the EMT’s job that involves protecting the patient’s right is called __________________
A
ADVOCACY
11
Q
The stage of the dying process that can be characterized by the words “Why me?” is known as ________________
A
ANGER
12
Q
While working in the EMS what is the type of emergency call likely to produce extreme levels of stress?
A
INJURY OR DEATH OF A COWORKER
13
Q
What is the goal of CISD?
A
To assist emergency care workers in dealing with stress.
14
Q
A less structured version of the CISD, which may be held from 1 to 4 hours after an incident and before the formal debriefing, is called a(n) _________________
A
DEFUSING
15
Q
What is the stage of grieving in which a patient seeks to postpone death, even for a short time?
A
BARGAINING
16
Q
What is the term that most specifically describes organisms that can cause infectious diseases?
A
PATHOGENS
17
Q
Which of the following concepts is used by OSHA, and based on the assumption that any patient’s blood and body fluids can transmit infectious disease?
- *Universal Standards
- *Risk Management
- *Preventive Controls
- *Standard Precautions
A
STANDARD PRECAUTIONS
18
Q
Which of the following would be used as personal protective equipment to prevent infection with a bloodborne disease?
- *turnout gear
- *a “sharps” container
- *disposable exam gloves
- *hospital grade disinfectant
A
DISPOSABLE EXAM GLOVES
19
Q
Which of the following is the best way to protect yourself from exposure when caring for a patient with known or suspected active tuberculosis?
- wear a surgical face mask
- place an oxygen mask on the patient
- wear a HEPA mask
- place a surgical mask on the patient
A
WEAR A HEPA MASK
20
Q
Lifestyle changes that can help an EMT deal with stress include all of the following except
- cut down on sugar, fat, and caffeine
- avoid exercise in your daily routine
- avoid self medication
- keep balance in your life
A
AVOID EXERCISE IN YOUR DAILY ROUTINE
21
Q
Which of the following materials is NOT recommended for gloves to be used when there is the potential for contact with blood and other body fluids?
- latex
- vinyl
- cotton
- synthetics
A
COTTON
22
Q
Equipment used as BSI precaution includes all of the following EXCEPT
- a HEPA respirator
- vinyl gloves
- cotton scrub pants
- goggles
A
COTTON SCRUB PANTS
23
Q
What is the process by which an object is subject to a chemical or physical substance that kills all microorganisms on the surface?
A
STERILIZATION
24
Q
A situation that would usually call for the use of a gown as protection would be one involving a _________________
A
CHILDBIRTH
25
Where is one supposed to dispose of all needles immediately after use?
A DESIGNATED "SHARPS" CONTAINER
26
What is the single most important way an EMT can prevent the spread of infection?
HAND WASHING
27
In general, what should an EMT do before entering a hazardous materials scene?
Call for a specialized HAZMAT team
28
What is the test that can detect exposure tuberculosis?
PPT
29
What is one to do if there is a suspected potential for violence at the scene?
CALL LAW ENFORCEMENT
30
What should vehicles, structures, and storage containers holding hazardous materials be identified by?
SIGNS OR PLACARDS
31
Dying patients experience what five emotional stages?
```
DENIAL
ANGER
BARGAINING
DEPRESSION
ACCEPTANCE
```
32
A(n) ______________________ is a single incident in which there are multiple patients.
MULTIPLE-CASUALTY INCIDENT
33
____________________ is brought about by work-related problems in an emotionally charged environment and can lead to burnout.
CHRONIC STRESS
34
________________ _____________, which include deep-breathing exercises and meditation, are valuable stress reducers
RELAXATION TECHNIQUES
35
Held within 24-72 hours of a critical incident, a(n) _________________ ____________ __________ ____________ is a process in which a team of trained peer counselors and mental health professionals meet with rescuers and health care providers who have been involved in the incident.
CRITICAL INCIDENT STRESS DEBREIFING
36
What is the state of emotional exhaustion and irritability that can markedly decrease an EMT's effectiveness in delivering medical care?
BURNOUT
37
According to the U.S. Public Health Service, most contaminants can be removed from the skin with ______________________
10 TO 15 seconds of vigorous hand washing
38
______________________ are spread by tiny droplets sprayed during breathing, coughing, or sneezing
AIRBORNE PATHOGENS
39
What is the strict for form of infection control for emergency personnel?
BODY SUBSTANCE ISOLATION
40
In addition to eye protection, gloves, and a mask, another item of personal protective equipment that should be worn when there may be significant contact with blood or other body fluids is a(n) ______________________
GOWN
41
As an advance safety precaution, an EMT should have a ________________ ____________ _____________ test for TB every year
PURIFIED PROTEIN DERIVATIVE
42
The level of cleaning for items such as backboards and cervical collars, which come in contact with the intact skin of patients, is ____________________________
DISINFECTION
43
EMS personnel treating a patient suspected of having TB should use a(n) __________________
HEPA RESPIRATOR
44
Before entering scenes involving domestic disputes, gang fights, or bar fights, an EMT should first do what?
CALL LAW ENFORCEMENT
45
When approaching a wrecked vehicle that may be carrying hazardous materials, use binoculars to try to find ______________ or ___________________ signs that can identify the material as hazardous
PLACARDS
| SIGNS
46
________________ are mentally competent adults of legal age who accept care from an EMS crew that have said to give consent
EXPRESSED CONSENT
47
EMS personnel can treat unconscious patients because the law holds that rational patients would consent to treatment if they were conscious. This principle is known as _______________ consent
IMPLIED CONSENT
48
Minors who are married or of a certain age and who are legally able to give consent for medical care are known as _____________________
EMANCIPATED
49
When a patient refuses care, he or she must sign a(n) ________________
RELEASE FROM LIABILITY FORM
50
A legal document, usually signed by the patient and his physician, which states that the patient has a terminal illness and does not wish to prolong life through resucitative efforts, is called a(n) _________________
DNR order
51
A person whom the signer of a document names to make health care decisions for her in case the signer is unable to make such decisions for herself is known as a(n) _____________________
PROXY
52
Legislative measures intended to provide legal protection for citizens and some health care personnel who administer emergency care are known as ______________
GOOD SAMARITAN LAWS
53
An EMT's obligation in certain situations to provide care to a patient is referred to as a(n) __________________
DUTY TO ACT
54
If a jury finds that an EMT had a duty to a patient, that he failed to carry out that duty properly, and that his action caused harm to the patient, the EMT could be convicted of __________________________
NEGLIGENCE
55
A living will is one example of a(n) _____________
ADVANCE DIRECTIVE
56
The principle that information about a patient's history, condition, or treatment must not be shared with unauthorized parties is called ________________
CONFIDENTIALITY
57
If you discover that a critically injured patient is an organ donor, as an EMT, you should _________________
CONTACT MEDICAL DIRECTION
58
Once police have made the scene safe, the priority of the EMT at a crime scene is to _____________________
PROVIDE PATIENT CARE
59
Leaving a patient after care has been initiated and before the patient has been transferred to someone with equal or greater medical training is known as _________________
ABANDONMENT
60
The actions and care that an EMT is legally allowed to perform are referred to as ________________
SCOPE OF PRACTICE
61
When dealing with children and mentally incompetent adults, the _________________ or _______________ have the legal authority to give consent
PARENTS OR GUARDIANS
62
Minors who are married or who meet certain other criteria that allow them to legally give consent as an adult would are called _________________ minors
EMANCIPATED
63
Failure to provide the standard of care is one of the elements that must be proved in a case involving a charge of __________________ against an EMT
NEGLIGENCE
64
If all efforts fail and the patient does not accept your care or transportation, you must have the patient sign a(n) ___________________
REFUSAL OF TREATMENT FORM
65
To refuse care, a patient must be _________________ to make decisions and demonstrate that he understands the risks of refusing treatment
COMPETENT
66
An EMT who is on an ambulance and is dispatched to call clearly has a(n) ____________________
DUTY TO ACT
67
In many states, an off-duty EMT has no legal obligation to provide ____________________
EMERGENCY CARE
68
If the EMT is off duty and begins care, then leaes the patient before other trained personnel arrive, he may be considered to have ________________________
ABANDONED THE PATIENT
69
Laws that provide immunity from liability to persons who stop to help in an emergency are known as __________________
GOOD SAMARITAN LAWS
70
The only time that confidential information about a patient may be disclosed is when the patient has signed a(n) ____________________
WRITTEN RELEASE
71
A person who has signed a legal document to allow his organs and tissues to be harvested for transplantation to another person is called an ____________________
ORGAN DONOR
72
Obvious signs of death, with which resuscitative efforts do not have to be made, include decomposition of the body, dependent lividity, __________________ and __________________
DECAPITATION and RIGOR MORTIS
73
All of the following are purposes served by patient care report documentation except
* * prevention of lawsuits
* * continuity of care
* * quality assurance
* * reimbursement
PREVENTION OF LAWSUITS
74
The paper or electronic record of an EMT's documentation of a call is known informally as a _______________
PCR (patient care report)
75
Which of the following is least likely to be the fate of a patient care report?
* * evidence in a legal case
* * part of the hospital's permanent records
* * data in a research project
* * private property controlled by the patient
PRIVATE PROPERTY CONTROLLED BY A PATIENT
76
Administrative information on a PCR is often referred to as _____________________
RUN DATA
77
The standardized information that should be collected on all PCRs is called the _________________
MINIMUM DATA SET
78
Which federal agency has developed a list of minimum data elements to be collected on patient care reports?
Department of transportation (DOT)
79
In which section of a patient care report would an EMT record the time the emergency unit left the scene?
ADMINISTRATIVE INFORMATION
80
Which of the following elements of patient information is not provided in a radio report but must be provided on a patient care report?
* * name and address
* * age and sex
* * chief complaint
* * vital signs
NAME AND ADDRESS
81
All of the following are included in the patient narrative section of a prehospital care report EXCEPT
* * billing information
* * chief complaint
* * pertinent negatives
* * SAMPLE history
BILLING INFORMATION
82
What is the recommended punctuation mark when writing the patient's chief complaint?
QUOTATION MARKS
83
All of the following should be found in a well-written narrative EXCEPT
* * pertinent negatives
* * radio codes
* * scene information
* * standardized abbreviations
RADIO CODES
84
The EMT may provide confidential information to all of the following EXCEPT
* * the patient's family
* * the emergency department nurse
* * a court under a subpoena
* * the police in a criminal investigation
THE PATIENT'S FAMILY
85
If a competent patient refuses care or transport, an EMT should __________________
DOCUMENT THE REFUSAL
86
Incorrect information in a prehospital care report should be ______________________
CROSSED OUT WITH A SINGLE LINE
87
During a multiple-casualty incident (MCI), patient information is usually passed along by ___________________
TRIAGE TAGS
88
The important part of an EMT's care, in which he records a variety of information that serves administrative, educational, and research uses, is called the ________________
PATIENT CARE REPORT
89
To ensure that patient care meets current medical and organizational standards, most EMS agencies have a ______________________ system in place
QUALITY IMPROVEMENT
90
The U.S. Department of Transportation calls the information it wants on all PCRs the ___________________
MINIMUM DATA SET
91
When a bystander or patient gives information, such as a statement about what happened or the patient's chief complaint, you should consider using ________________ to show that you are recording the words of the bystander or patient
QUOTATION MARKS
92
When you have examined an area of the body and did not notice any signs of illness or injury that would be expected in a patient with a given complaint, you record this information as __________________
PERTINENT NEGATIVES
93
You must avoid allowing others to see or obtain a PCR because the information contained in it is considered ________________
CONFIDENTIAL
94
If a patient declines emergency treatment or transport, he should be asked to sign a(n) __________________
REFUSAL OF TREATMENT FORM
95
In a multiple-casualy incident (MCI), patient information is often passed through the system in the form of _____________________
TRIAGE TAGS
96
The initial communication EMT's receive about an emergency call comes from _______________
DISPATCH
97
The two-way radio located at a hospital or dispatch center is a ___________________
BASE STATION
98
All of the following should be included in a radio medical report except
* * name and address
* * age and sex
* * mental status
* * chief complaint
NAME AND ADDRESS
99
The federal agency that assigns and licenses radio frequencies used by EMS units is the ___________
FCC
100
If an order from medical direction appears to be inappropriate, the EMT should ____________
TACTFULLY QUESTION IT
101
The principles of radio communication encourage transmissions that make use of __________________
COURTESIES SUCH AS "THANK YOU"
102
To keep emergency frequencies open, an EMT should pause for several seconds if a transmission takes longer than _____________________
30 SECONDS
103
To help calm a patient, an EMT should __________________
EXPLAIN ALL PROCEDURES
104
In assessing a child, an EMT should ______________
CROUCH AT THE CHILD'S LEVEL
105
If an on-line physician orders medication, an EMT should ____________________
REPEAT BACK THE ORDER WORD FOR WORD
106
The important part of an EMT's care, in which he records a variety of information that serves administrative, educational, and research uses, is called _______________
DOCUMENTATION
107
A recent development in prehospital care reports is the _______________
ELECTRONIC CLIPBOARD
108
A PCR is a _______________________ that can sometimes find its way into either criminal or civil court cases
LEGAL DOCUMENT
109
To ensure that patient care meets current medical and organizational standards, most EMS agencies have a _________________ system in place
QUALITY IMPROVEMENT
110
The U.S. Department of Transportation calls the information it wants on all PCRs the ________________
MINIMUM DATA SET
111
The ________________ information includes unit numbers, date, times, call number, and crew member names.
ADMINISTRATIVE
112
The patient's name, address, sex, age, and any care provided before the EMT arrived are called __________________
PATIENT DATA
113
Statements that can be measured or verified are called ______________ statements
OBJECTIVE
114
Statements that reflect opinion are called __________ statements
SUBJECTIVE
115
When a clock shows the right time, it is called ____________________
ACCURATE
116
When all clocks being used show the same time, they are called ______________________
SYNCHRONOUS
117
When a bystander or patient gives information, such as a statement about what happened or the patient's chief complaint, you should consider using ____________________ to show that you are recording the words of the bystander or patient.
QUOTATION MARKS
118
When you have examined an area of the body and did not notice any signs of illness or injury that would be expected in a patient with a given complaint, you record this information as __________________
PERTINENT NEGATIVES
119
At least ______________ complete sets of vital signs should be taken and recorded
TWO
120
If a patient declines emergency treatment or transport, he should be asked to sign a ___________________
REFUSAL-OF-CARE FORM
121
You must avoid allowing others to see or obtain a PCR because the information contained in it is considered __________________
CONFIDENTIAL
122
In a MCI, patient information is often apssed through the system in the form of ___________________
TRIAGE TAGS
123
A fixed site that serves as a dispatch and coordination area is a ________________
BASE STATION
124
A __________________ breaks down sound into digital codes
ENCODER
125
A __________________ only responds to encoder codes
DECODER
126
A ______________ allows EMTs to be in touch with the members of the EMS while they are away from the ambulance
PORTABLE RADIO
127
In the event of power failure or malfunction, EMS systems should have ______________
BACK UP RADIOS
128
The federal agency that assigns radio frequencies and oversees radio communications is the _______________
FCC
129
After receiving an order from medical direction to administer medication, the EMT should __________________
REPEAT THE ORDER WORD FOR WORD
130
At the conclusion of a call, the EMTs should notify _________________ of their return to the station
DISPATCH
131
When caring for a patient with a hearing loss, be sure that your _______________ are visible or see if relatives can _____________ using American Sign Language
LIPS
| SIGN
132
The EMT should never use the patient's ___________________ in radio transmissions
NAME
133
A handheld, two-way radio
PORTABLE RADIO
134
Federal agency that assigns and licenses radio frequencies
FCC
135
A two way radio mounted on a vehicle
MOBILE RADIO
136
A unit of measurement for radio output
WATT
137
A type of portable phone
CELL PHONE
138
A two way radio at a fixed site, such as a hospital
BASE STATION
139
A member of the EMS system who receives the initial call for help
EMD
140
Patient information sent while en route to the hospital
RADIO REPORT
141
A device that picks up radio signals from lower power units
REPEATER
142
Patient information given at the hospital
ORAL REPORT
