Test 4: 4: bones Flashcards
1
Q
catilage is made of — and is a good shock absorber
A
type 2 hyaline articular cartilage
water
GAGs
2
Q
long bones are formed by
A
EO
endochondral ossification
cartilage template
3
Q
flat bones are formed by
A
IO
Intramembranous ossification
without cartilage template
4
Q
how does Intramembranous ossification (IO) work
A
Bone formed directly from mesenchyme
WITHOUT a cartilage template
forms type 1 cartilage then as it matures forms Hydroxyapatite cyrstal and remodeled into lamellar bone
5
Q
how does Endochondral Ossification (EO)
work
A
cartilage template
blood vessels bring trophic factors
form bone
6
Q
EO requires what 3 things
A
normal template
blood supply
hormones and nutrition
7
Q
zones of EO formation
A
reserve zone
zone of proliferation- chondrocytes stack and multiply
zone of hypertrophy- swell and mineralize and capillaries grow
zone of ossificaion- osteoCLASTs come in and eat chondrocytes leaving spicule template. osteroBLASTs come in and lay bone forming primary trabeculae
8
Q
Defect in the cartilage template required for endochondral ossification
A
Chondrodysplasias
spontaneous or hertitable
9
Q
what is the mutation that causes short legs in basset hounds
A
FGF4 mutations in K9 CDPA/CDDY
type of chondrodysplasia
error in EO
Disproportionate (chondrodysplastic) dwarfism
10
Q
Disproportionate (chondrodysplastic) dwarfism in calves that is lethal is caused by —
A
Col2A1 & Aggrecan mutations (Dom. Neg effect)
11
Q
K9 Chondrodysplastic phenotype (CDPA) is caused by — mutation and causes
A
CFA18-FGF4
short legs (breed standard for Dachshunds, Basset Hounds, Corgis)
different from Chondrodystrophic phenotype (CDDY) that is caused by CFA12-FGF4 mutation and lead to short legs and IVDD
12
Q
K9 Chondrodystrophic phenotype (CDDY) that is caused by— mutation and lead to —
A
CFA12-FGF4
short legs and IVDD
different from Chondrodysplastic phenotype (CDPA) → short legs
13
Q
what happens to nucleus pulposus during chondrodystrophy IVDD
A
mutate and then can rupture out of disc and cause neural issues by damaging the spinal cord
14
Q
Osteogenesis Imperfecta is a — disease that causes — done density and increased bone —.
A
osteopenic
decreased
fragility
caused by mutation in type 1 collagen- affects both osteroblast and odontoblasts
type 1 collagen found in bone, dentin of teeth and eyes (blue)
15
Q
how does OI cause fragile bones
A
mutates type 1 collagen, prevents helix and lining up and binding to form bone matrix
16
Q
Developmental defects in EO at FOCAL, REPEATABLE sites → focal defects at articular cartilage/subchondral bone interface
A
Osteochondrosis
17
Q
Osteochondrosis can lead to
A
Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCD)
18
Q
Osteochondrosis forms — lesions in growth cartilage (— > —)
A
heterogeneous
epiphyseal (end of bone)
metaphyseal
19
Q
— is caused by focal defect in EO and can effect multiple joints usually bilateral and leads to OA
A
Osteochondrosis & Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCD)
20
Q
what causes Osteochondrosis & Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCD)
A
thought to be loss of vasculature to the growth cartilage
effects the stifle, shoulder, elbow and hock
21
Q
explain how osterochondrosis causes OA
A
blood vessels in resting zone die
chondrocytes do NOT become mineralized and osteroclasts do not come and eat dead chondrocytes
leads to cartilage core that gets pushed, can cause crack in cortex of bone which leads to OA
22
Q
Ost eochondrosis & Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCD) leads to dissecting cartilage — & flaps and retained —
A
fissures
cartilage cores
23
Q
Chondrodysplastic dwarfism is a — defect that causes defect in — template leading to secondary bone defect
A
generalized (FGF4 mutation)
cartilage
24
Q
Osteogenesis Imperfecta is caused by defect in — that leads to —
A
type 1 collagen formation
fragile thin collagen type 1, leading to thin/weak bones/dentin/ thin sclera and lax ligaments
osteopenia= a loss of bone mineral density (BMD) that weakens bones.
25
OC/OCD are focal/bilateral defects in EO that leads to retained ---
caritlage core
leads to dissecting cartilage fissures and OA
26
metabolic bone disease is also called
Osteodystrophies
27
Osteodystrophies are involved in --- growth and remodeling. Either failure of --- or abnormality occurring during remodeling of ---
ex utero
Failure of normal growth or development
* nutritional/endocrine/metabolic imbalance
* Impact Trabecular AND Compact bone
Abnormality occurring during remodeling
process of mature or repair bone
* nutritional/endocrine/metabolic imbalance
* Impact Trabecular >> Compact Bone
28
how does kidney failure effect bone growth
increased PO4 leads to increased PTH trying to increase blood calcium
leads to weak bone
29
bone modeling is a --- process in which there is a --- change in bone.
adaptive
architectural (change in size, length and diameter, orientation, contour)
30
bone modeling occurs during
growth
pathologic state- fracture healing, infection, neoplasia
leads to bone repair/replacement
31
why does bone modeling lead to fewer trabeculae
replaces with organized stronger trabeculae
can do the job with less
32
bone remodeling is done to maintain ---, replace --- and in respnse to --- changes
bone mass
old bones/repair microfractures
metabolic/nutritional change- pregnancy, lactation, eggs
33
bone remodeling occurs in what type of bone
trabecular bone
not compact- osteroclast and blast can't fit in osteon as easily
34
RANKL activates --- and is made by ---
osteroclasts →promotes resorption of bone
osteroblasts
TNFa, IL1,6 also promote OCLs
35
PTH indirectly activates --- to cause
OCL
increase serum Calcium by breaking down bone
36
Osteoprotegerin (OPG) is made by --- and acts as ---
Osteroblasts
decreases OCL function, used to inhibit OCL in cancer patients
37
2 causes of fibrous osterodystrophies
primary hyperparathyroidism
secondary hyperparathyroidism from renal failure or nutritional (too much phos)
38
OSTEOPENIA
decreased bone density/ mass
39
OSTEOPOROSIS
clinical syndrome from osteopenia (decreased bone density and mass)
bone pain and fracture
shape is normal but reduced trabecular>> cortical bone
Bone quantity NOT quality is reduced
40
how does low copper effect bone
leads to decreased osteroblast activation and decreased collagen strength
41
osteroporosis will cause --- osteroblast activity, will have --- trabecular bone leading to ---
decreased
decreased density and increased porosity
infractions= microfractures of trabecular bone → reduced bone length (shrinking)
42
rickets is a defect in --- that affect ---
mineralization
bone and growth cartilage of young, growing animals
43
what type of deformities are formed with rickets
problem with mineralization
(angular limb deformities “bow legs,”
scoliosis/lordosis, flared physes “rachitic rib rosary”)
44
rickets leads to
bone deformities
fractures + subchondral collapse
bone pain
soft, weak bones and growth plate cartilage
45
osteomalacia
softening of bones
occurs in adults, cartilage not afffected
different from rickets which effects children and bones and cartilage
46
what causes rickets
low Vit D
low phosphorous
Except in birds, calcium deficiency DOES NOT cause rickets or osteomalacia
## Footnote
need working kidneys for Vit D activation
47
what step of bone formation does rickets effect
2nd phase, when type 1 collagen (osteoid) becomes mineralized
## Footnote
step 1. osteoid formation
48
why does rickets lead to Flared metaphyses & retained
cartilage cores at growth plates
mineralization does not occur, so osteroclasts do not come in and eat dead chondrocytes
leads to build up of cartilage core and weak, soft bones
49
rickets
50
explain how rickets
bone is lined by unmineralized osteoid that can not be eaten by osteoclasts, lead to weakened trabecule→ infractions and bowing
51
what causes fibrous ostrodystrophy (FOD)
primary hyperparathyroidism leading to ↑↑↑ levels of PTH
secondary: renal failure, or high phosphorous diet
this causes
↑ ↑ OCL activity & bone resorption
↓↓ OB diff → ↓ Bone formation
↑ ↑ FB diff → Fibrsis
52
really high levels of PTH cause
--- OCL activity & bone resorption
---OB diff → --- Bone formation
--- FB diff → Fibrosis
Fibrous Ostrodystrophy (FOD)
increased
decreased, decreased
increased
rubber jaw and big head syndrome
53
rubber jaw is caused by
Fibrous Ostrodystrophy (FOD)
really high levels of PTH
54
how does kidney failure cause Fibrous Ostrodystrophy (FOD)
causes increased phos, low Ca
parathyroid increases PTH to try to increase Ca by eating bones
also decreased Vit D activation
if this happen to much leads to rubber jaw and fibrosis of bone
## Footnote
to much decrease in Vit D activation can lead to rickets!
55
bone is made of what cells
mesenchymal stem cells
**OsteoBlasts**- immature cells that “Build Bone”
**OsteoCytes**- mature cells that “Maintain Bone” (OB turn into OC
**OsteoCLasts** (Macrophage-like cells that RESORB bone) - multinucleated from myeloid lineage use HCL to eat bone
56
what makes up the ECM of bone
organic component (osteoid) = 90% type 1 collagen
inorganic component= hydroxyapatite mineral
57
compact bone is also called
osteonal
58
trabecular bone is also called
cancellous
59
woven bone is formed ---
during development or repair
temporary bone
highlly cellular but unorganized and poorly mineralized→radiolucent
Duct tape bone→weak
60
woven bone is --- mineralized
poorly
radiolucent
immature/temporary bone
61
--- is mature bone
lamellar bone
low cellularity
organized, strong, radiopaque
62
difference between structure of lamellar vs woven bone is ---
rate of formation
if need bone fast will form woven
if body has time will form lamellar
all woven will turn into lamellar if enough time is allowed
63
--- covers the outersuface of bones except at the ends or where things attach
periosteum
64
periosteum is made of --- and ---
outer fibrous layer: can be peeled away
inner cellular layer (cambium): very cellular with MSC that form into OB and form new bone
65
--- Lines the inner
surfaces of bone
(compact and
trabecular)
endosteum
thin layer that seperates hematopoietic marrow and bone
does not grow as fast as periosteum
66
3 ways to form new bone
**cutting cones-** compact bone- slow and limited
**IO**- fast but weak
**EO**- slow conversion of cartilage to bone
67
--- is when bone is formed without a cartilage template from mesenchyme
IO
fast but disorganized
68
what three things can MSC turn into based on conditions in the bone
repair stimulus → **OB**
repair but low O2→**chondrocytes** leading to cartilage island that will eventually go through EO
high PTH and motion → **fibroblasts** = weak and movable but can't heal into bone
69
healthy cartilage should grossly look
smooth, grey-white and glistening
has thin layer of type 1 cartilage for protection, but then large area of type 2 hyaline cartilage that acts as shock absorber, then leads into mineralized cartilage into bone
70
what formed across joint
osteophytes
Ankylosis (self fusion)
71
Ankylosis
self fusion
bones that grow osteophytes across joint to keep in place
72
Arthrodesis
surgical fusion of a joint
73
Arthroplasty
(surgical reconstruction/replacement)
74
what happens during early cartilage degeneration on histo
los of PG layer- dehydration
collapse or compression of type 1 collagen shell
death of chondrocytes and loss of lacunae
75
grossly what will you see with progressive cartilage degeneration
severe thinning & “score lines”
yellow discoloration
histo: will have chondrocyte death and chodrones where condrocytes try to multiply inside lacunae. Loss of type 2 collagen
76
grossly what will you see for advanced cartilage degeneration
Erosions → full-thickness ulcers → subchondral bone hemorrhage → hemarthrosis
* Subchondral bone lysis → collapse “divots” (EQ MC3 arrowheads)
77
histo of advanced cartilage degeneration will show
Matrix Fibrillation (fraying) → Vertical Fissures
Erosions (middle image) → Ulcers +/- Fibrocartilage Repair
78
what happens during subchondral bone sclerosis
adaptive remodeling due to stress
bone will increase bone in area, but it will go to far and squish out blood supply leading to OCL unable to get in and remodel old bone, this can lead to bone failure and **catastrophic fractures**
79
eburnation
bone on bone contact that polish each other
caused from loss of cartilage in an area
80
In End-Stage DJD
Subchondral “bone cysts”
from synovial herniation
81
osteophytes
82
what would histo of the synovium look like
would also have inflammatory infiltrates (macrophages, lymphocytes and plasma cells)
also have neovascularization
83
what will severe synovial hypertrophy look like grossly
will cause hemorrhage that leads to hemosiderin and yellow brown discoloration
No Neutrophils! not infection, just inflammation macrophage, lymphocytes, plasma cells and fibrosis
84
name some things that are happening
hip dysplasia
eburnation- polishing on bone
bone cytes
osteophytes
85
2 fracture classification
traumatic- normal bone, excessive force
pathologic- abnormal bone normal force
86
open vs closed fracture
open- through the skin
87
avulsion
when bone is ripped off at point of tendon/ligament insertion
88
--- are fractures that involve the growth plates
salter-harris fracture
89
most common type of salter harris fracture
type 2
fracture extends across physis→ breaks out metaphysis
90
salter-harris fracture
What are the consequences of this injury if bone heals/ regenerates but growth plate cartilage doesn’t?
Early growth plate closure → **Limb shortening**
or
**Angular Limb Deformity** (if growth plate closure is partial)
91
two type of fracture healing
direct/primary: small gap and requires rigid fracture stabilization
indirect/secondary: forms calus because bigger defect between pieces
92
stages of indirect bone healing
1. inflammation and hematoma
2. repair: early callus: granulation tissue, woven bone and cartilage islands (radiolucent)
3. remodeling: takes a very long time
93
soft callus forms in --- weeks and is made of
1-3
woven bone +/- cartilage islands that will eventually go through EO to form hard callus and bone mineralization
94
mal-union
solid bone that repaired in weird way
can be painful and caused by poor/delayed healing or excessive movement
if articular → DJD
95
3 complications of fracture healing
malunion/fibrous non-union
inadepquate blood supply→ sequestrum (dead bone)
infection→ osteomyelitis & septic arthritis
96
inflammation of the synovial membrane & synovial fluid compartment
Synovitis
97
inflammation/degeneration of all components of joint
Arthritis
98
inflammation of the bone,
including endosteum & medullary spaces
Osteomyelitis
99
inflammation of the cortex only
Osteitis
100
acute inflammation of joints can cause
Inflammatory cells and pro-inflammatory cytokines
Synovial hyperemia & edema
Activation of MMPs (collagenases, gelatinases)
Reduced PG content of synovial fluid & cartilage
Reduced synovial viscosity
Chondrocyte necrosis & loss of ECM
– Orange, red, brown synovial fluid (if hemorrhage)
– Increased turbidity (fibrin, neutrophils- if septic)
101
route of infection for infectious arthritis
**septicemia**- common in neonates from respiratory, GI or umbilicus, secondary to poor colustrum intake, attacks growth plates
**direct penetration**- trauma or implants
**local extension**- from blood or from bone
102
acute changes to septic joint capsule
decreased viscosity of synovial fluid
turbid/opaque from fibrin and neutrophils
red/orange from hemorrhage
red(hyperemic)
103
chronic changes of septic joint capsule
DJD and active inflammation
suppurative (pus)
synovial villus hypertrophy leading to granulation tissue and fibrosis
capsule fibrosis and osteophytosis
104
acute changes to articular cartilage and subchondral bone in septic joint
yellowing and thinning
erosion and fissures in ECM with chondrocyte necrosis
105
--- is a red velvet that is made of macrophages and fibrotic cells that coats cartilage surface during chronic septic joints
pannus formation
will dissolve cartilage
106
pannus- forms during chronic septic joints- will eat cartilage
107
what will happen to cartilage during chronic septic arthritis
thinning
erosions or ulcers
synovial villous hypertrophy
capsule fibrosis
pannus- red velvet
108
what are some gram - bacteria that cause arthritis
E.coli, salmonella
109
what are some gram + bacteria that cause arthritis
Streptococcus, Staphylococcus,
Actinomyces bovis “lumpy jaw” (cattle), T. pyogenes
* Mycoplasma → Polyarthritis
110
what are some fungi that cause arthritis
Opportunists (Aspergillus, Candida)
Coccidiomycoides, Blastomyces
111
septic physitis in young growing animals is caused by
bacteria gets stuck in small vessels that supply the growth plate
leads to increased intramedullary pressure and thrombosis→ infarcts
112
necrotic bone islands are called
sequestrum
will be surrounded by OCL that try and fail to eat it, will form granulation tissue
113
what type of animals get primary bone tumors
dogs>cats>>>farm animals
114
chondrosarcoma are common in what bones
flat bones (skull, nose, ribs, pelvis)
115
--- are the most common primary bone tumors in small animals
osterosarcoma
116
bone tumors malignancy in dogs, cats and farm animals
dogs= malignant
cats= 50% malignant
farm = benign
117
where are osteosarcomas in dogs common
80% of all primary bone tumors in dogs are osteosarcomas
away from the elbow, toward the knee
DOES NOT CROSS JOINT
118
osterosarcomas are made of malignant osteoblasts that make
variable amounts of osteoid and/or mineralized tumor bone matrix
very aggressive and invasive with rapid metastasis to lungs, LN and bones
119
two things that went wrong
fracture
osteosarcoma (away from the elbow, toward the knee)
120
3 diagnosistic features of osterosarcoma in dogs
osteolysis- eats away at bone
Osteoproliferation- forms tumor/reactive bone
Histology- Neoplastic osteoblasts producing tumor osteoid
121
compare cat and dog osterosarcoma
dog: fast, malignant, very aggressive, poor survival
cat: slow metastasis, longer survival rate
122
histiocytic sarcomas are of --- cell origin
round cell neoplasm
Interstitial Dendritic Cell or macrophage
locally invasive and usually associated with joints
123
what type of primary bone tumor can cross joints
histiocytic sarcoma
round cell neoplasm
## Footnote
osteosarcoma do not cross joint
124
where to find histocytic sarcoma
joints, Bone marrow, lymph
nodes, spleen, other viscera, skin, etc.
black and tan dogs (rottweiler)
round cell neoplasm
poor prognosis with metastasis to liver, lung and LN
125
what kind of cancer spreads to these places
histiocytic
126
label
what do the arrows point to ?
what is their function?
Epiphysis- 1
Metaphysis- 2
Diaphysis- 3
Metaphyseal growth plates
Provide length to the bone
127
1) Identify this cell, provide its general lineage and primary function.
OsteobBLASTS (OBs): Mesenchymal lineage. Build bone (secrete the majority of osteoid and hydroxyapatite crystals during bone new formation (ie growth, remodeling/modeling, repair).
128
2) Identify this cell, provide its general lineage and primary function.
OsteoCYTES (OCs): Mesenchymal lineage. Maintains bone (can resorb and secrete small amounts bone matrix in their immediately surrounding lacunae.
129
3) Identify this cell, provide its general lineage and primary function
OsteoCLASTS (OCLs): Monocyte lineage. Breakdown bone. Differentiation & activation is stimulated by OB production of RANKL
130
Designated by the asterisk, name the extracellular matrix components (organic and inorganic)
Osteoid (organic) Hydroxyapatite (inorganic)
131
Name the extracellular matrix designated by “1”and the cells that create and maintain this matrix:
Hyaline cartilage produced by chondrocytes
132
Name the anatomic region designated by “2”:
Subchondral bone plate
133
From a molecular and functional standpoint, briefly list the key differences between the extracellular matrix in 1 versus 2 and the inherent response of these tissues to injury
ECM of hyaline cartilage is hydrophilic and acts as a shock absorber, distributing compressive forces to the subchondral bone. It also provides a smooth, gliding surface for moving articulations. Remember hyaline cartilage of the growth plates serves as a template for ECO. Subchondral bone serves to anchor the overlying hyaline articular cartilage to bone via the Articular-Epiphyseal complex (junction of mineralized cartilage & subchondral bone plate). Interconnecting trabeculae serve to transfer forces sustained during movement to the really strong compact (ie osteonal) bone that forms the diaphyseal cortices.
134
Identify the type of bone response featured in this image.
woven
135
Name the type of bone response featured in this image.
Lamellar bone (it also happens to be trabecular)
136
Briefly list the architectural and functional differences between the two types woven vs lamellar
Woven bone is hypercellular, disorganized and weaker in comparison to lamellar bone. WB forms during rapid growth & repair.
137
Describe how bone responds to injury
Excellent healing/regenerative response if vascular supply is adequate. Can form lamellar or woven (band-aid) bone depending on stimulus. Complete bone healing can produce bone as strong or stronger than original bone.
138
Describe how cartilage responds to injury
Poor healing or regenerative response. Can heal small defects with fibrocartilage. Often default pathway is degeneration with loss of proteoglycan matrix decreased water binding & shock absorption loss of cells & matrix, chondrones advanced lesions result in cartilage erosions & ulcers
139
List the 4 zones of EO
1) Resting
2) Proliferative
3) Hypertrophy
4) Ossification
140
What cells remove hypertrophied (dying) chondrocytes so that capillaries and osteoblasts can follow and line longitudinal spicules of mineralized cartilage with woven bone?
Osteoclasts
141
What cells remodel primary trabeculae into fewer trabeculae that are thinner and stronger (eg secondary & tertiary trabeculae)?
Osteoclasts
142
What cells secrete RANKL (osteoclast differentiation and activation factor)?
Osteoblasts
143
6-month-old Saanen goat ”rescue” presented for obstructive urolithiasis
Given the history and clinical findings, the skeletal lesion is characteristic of what general etiology/ies?
Degeneration
Genetic
Infectious
Nutritional
Neoplastic
Toxic
genetic
infectious
toxic
This malformation (missing or severely shortened humerus) is termed phocomelia and is characterized by aplasia or severe dysplasia of one or more segments of the appendicular skeleton. It often results from a genetic defect (in humans this can be autosomal recessive syndrome that also includes other congenital defects involving urogenital, cardiac, and nervous system), but especially in large animals we need to think of Teratogenic viruses and potential exposure to teratogenic toxins. The take home point is that any time you identify one congenital malformation, you should keep your eyes out for additional ones! Although this is an important concept, contents from this case (ie this slide and the previous one) will not be exam material.
144
Provide the general medical term for the disease that results in disproportionate dwarfism; where is the primary anatomic location of the lesion (eg cells, cartilage template, bone matrix)?
Chondrodysplasia
145
Briefly describe the clinical manifestation of Chondrodysplasia
Chondrodysplasia results in abnormally shortened and misshapen bones of the appendicular skeleton and can predispose to early DJD from the incongruency.
146
Osteogenesis imperfecta is an autosomal recessive heritable osteodysplasia that produces a defect in which important organic component of bone?
Type 1 collagen
147
Briefly describe the clinical manifestation of OI.
Osteopenia with poor quality bone & pathologic fractures. Also affects dentin of the teeth & collective tissues → joint laxity.
148
These are the distal femurs from a 2-year-old gelding Thoroughbred is presented for progressive bilateral 2-3/5 degrees hind limb lameness localized to the stifle joints. There was moderate effusion within both femoropatellar joints, but the swelling was not hot. Synoviocentesis yielded slightly watery, clear yellow synovial fluid that contains moderate increases in macrophages and lymphocytes.
How would you describe the lesions?
There are bilaterally symmetrical wedge-shaped depressions in the articular cartilage surface that partially extend to the subchondral bone and are partially filled with roughened white-tan cartilaginous tissue. There is mild generalized cartilage thinning over both trochlear ridges and intertrochlear groove.
149
These are the distal femurs from a 2-year-old gelding Thoroughbred is presented for progressive bilateral 2-3/5 degrees hind limb lameness localized to the stifle joints. There was moderate effusion within both femoropatellar joints, but the swelling was not hot. Synoviocentesis yielded slightly watery, clear yellow synovial fluid that contains moderate increases in macrophages and lymphocytes
Given the gross appearance and clinical history, what is your diagnosis?
Name the disease process that would eventually result from these lesions (hint- it’s the reason the horse was euthanized)?
Bilaterally severe osteochondritis dissecans.
DJD
150
These lesions represent a defect in which developmental process in bone formation
EO: Endochondral ossification
151
This is a pelvic radiograph from a 9-year-old miniature horse mare who was severely (grade 5/5) lame right hind and euthanized for a severely displaced femoral neck fracture with luxation of the coxofemoral joint.
fed high phos diet
Are the fractures traumatic or pathologic?
Which historical and histologic features support this diagnosis?
pathologic
Numerous activated OCLs bone lysis with fibrous replacement and paucity of osteoblasts. This is likely caused by the high phosphorous diet resulting in bilateral parathyroid gland hyperplasia and PTH-activation of OCLs and differentiation of FBs over OBs bone resorption with fibrous replacement and pathologic fractures
152
Based on location, what general classification of fracture is this?
traumatic Salter Harris (growth plate fracture)
153
The owner elects conservative management (external coaptation & cage rest). Based on fracture configuration, which 2 complications of fracture healing are most likely if internal fixation is not performed?
What other complication could this dog develop based on trauma to the growth plate cartilage?
Fibrous non-union/malunion & DJD
This dog could also develop limb shortening or angular limb deformity associated with the growth plate trauma.
154
Cartilage has a good repair response to injury (circle): TRUE OR FALSE
false
155
List 4 common etiologies of joint injury
1. Congenital instability/incongruency
2. Traumatic instability/incongruency
3. Overuse
4. Infectious/inflammatory arthritis
156
A 5-year-old German Shephard dog (see images next slide) is presented with severe bilateral hindlimb lameness. Physical exam localizes decreased range of motion and pain to the coxofemoral joints. Based on signalment and physical exam findings, which specific underlying disease do you most suspect?
Canine Hip Dysplasia
157
Radiographs (next slide) reveal shallow acetabular cups with flattened femoral heads, and lesions compatible with severe (end-stage) degenerative joint disease. A gross image of one of the coxofemoral joints extracted at autopsy is provided (next slide).
For each anatomic structure, list THREE common lesions of DJD (gross or histologic) in:
**Synovial membrane/joint capsule/synovial fluid**:
1) Synovial effusion with reduced viscosity of synovial fluid +/- hemarthrosis
2) Synovial membrane hypertrophy/hyperplasia
3) Joint capsule fibrosis (there may or may not be bone metaplasia w/in jt capsule)
**Cartilage**
Roughening/ Fissuring
2) Dullness/yellowing (from loss of water and PG matrix)
3) Thinning/Erosion→ ulcers (seen as decreased joint space on a radiograph)
**Subchondral bone**:
1) (Osteo)sclerosis- seen as increased subchondral radiopacity on a radiograph
2) Osteophytosis- seen as nodular bony exostoses or enlarged subchondral bony margins on a radiograph
3) Subchondral bone cysts (end-stage lesions)- seen as focal subchondral radiolucency surrounded by thin sclerotic rim
158
Name the term for “polishing” of subchondral bone due to bone-on-bone contact and friction
Eburnation
159
Inflammation/infection of bone that DOES NOT involve the marrow cavity is called:
Osteitis
160
Inflammation/infection of bone that DOES involve the marrow cavity is called:
Osteomyelitis
161
Inflammation/infection that involves the growth plates and adjacent bone is called:
Metaphyseal) Physitis & Epiphysitis
162
True or false: Fibrin and high numbers of neutrophils are commonly present in arthrocentesis samples from joints with non-septic degeneration
False. While lymphocytes, plasma cells and macrophages can be present, the presence of neutrophils and fibrin typically indicates a septic process.
163
Define sequestrum and predisposing causes
A necrotic “island” or fragment of necrotic bone can act as a foreign body & can become persistently infected. Predisposing causes include focal bone trauma that causes loss of blood supply (ie bone infarcts) or bone infection (osteomyelitis).
164
Briefly define pannus:
A red-velvety membrane composed of fibrovascular tissue and macrophages the extends from the synovial margins and covers articular cartilage surface. The membrane blocks access to nutrients and the inflammatory molecules/enzymes results in more rapid degenerative changes/loss of the underlying articular cartila
165
You examine a 14-day-old foal with a history of patent urachus and umbilical infection (omphalitis). 2-days ago, the foal developed severe (4/5) LH lameness warm effusion in the left tarsocrural (hock) joint. Arthrocentesis reveals Opaque, yellow, turbid fluid with flecks/strands/mats of fibrin and reduced viscosity (see photo of synovial fluid to right).
You suspect the origin of this joint infection is
Hematogenous
Direct Inoculation/Extension
Hematogenous
166
These infections often result from (circle one): ADEQUATE or INADEQUATE colostrum intake, which is called ---
inadequate
Failure of Passive Transfer
167
name 3 sites of origin of infection for neonates
Respiratory tract
Gastrointestinal tract
umbilicus
168
A 10-year-old Labrador Retriever presents with acute forelimb lameness and painful swelling localized to the distal radius
Radiographs identify a poorly demarcated radiolucent foci containing irregular radioopaque foci centered within the distal metaphysis, extending to the distal diaphysis and epiphysis with a mildly displaced articular fracture (arrowheads)
The radiolucent foci indicate:
The radiopaque foci indicate:
Osteolysis
Osteoproliferation (neoplastic and reactive)
169
A 10-year-old Labrador Retriever presents with acute forelimb lameness and painful swelling localized to the distal radius
Radiographs identify a poorly demarcated radiolucent foci containing irregular radioopaque foci centered within the distal metaphysis, extending to the distal diaphysis and epiphysis with a mildly displaced articular fracture (arrowheads)
What is the likely diagnosis?
Based on your diagnosis, what is the biological behavior?
How would you confirm the diagnosis?
Osteosarcoma
Malignant- locally aggressive and invasive with rapid distant metastasis (lungs, lymph nodes, other organs and other bones)
Bone Biopsy (target the lytic foci) identifying neoplastic osteoblasts producing tumor osteoid matrix.
170
Bone Biopsy (target the lytic foci) identifying neoplastic osteoblasts producing tumor osteoid matrix.
Histocytic Sarcoma
171
True or false: malignant primary bone neoplasms are common in horses.
False. Primary bone tumors in horses are typically benign- although depending on location the local invasion and associated bone destruction can have serious consequences on quality of life, sometime necessitating euthanasia.
