Unit 2 - Anaplasmosis, CNS, Tuberculosis, and Paratuberculosis

Question 1

What are the common bovine CNS diseases?

Answer 1

Listeriosis, rabies, thrombotic meningoencephalitis, polio, nervous coccidiosis, acetonemia, severe anemia, and lead or organophosphate posioning

Question 2

What clinical signs are indicative of a rabies infection?

Answer 2

Bellowing with an altered pitch
Aggression
Drooling, straining to defecate or urinate, relaxed rectum
Knuckling at fetlock, flaccid penis

Question 3

What do clinical signs of rabies mimic?

Answer 3

indigestion, esophageal foreign bodies, or milk fever

Question 4

If the brain is affected by rabies it is the _____ form. If the brainstem is affected by rabies it is the _____ form. If the spinal cord is affected by rabies it is the _____ form.

Answer 4

Furious, dumb, paralytic

Question 5

How is rabies diagnosed?

Answer 5

Send a bovine head to D-lab (if you can)

Question 6

To establish a negative rabies diagnosis, you have to have tissues from what two locations of the brain?

Answer 6

Cerebellum and brain stem (complete cross-section)

Question 7

Do cattle typically get rabies vaccines?

Answer 7

no

AVMA recommends if they are going to be around people frequently or if they are valuable animals then vaccinate

Question 8

What does the encephalitic form of listeriosis do?

Answer 8

Infects the brain stem following ascension of the trigeminal nerve

Question 9

What clinical signs are associated with listeriosis?

Answer 9

Depression, ataxia, disorientation
Tongue paralysis or paresis (unilateral)
Impacted food in the cheek
Unilateral ear droop
Trigeminal and facial nerve paralysis
Almost continuous salivation
Circling

Question 10

How is listeriosis diagnosed?

Answer 10

IHC or histopath

Question 11

How is listeriosis treated? Prognosis of treatment?

Answer 11

Penicillin or tetracycline

Only about 50% survival

Question 12

What could be used to treat listeriosis but isn’t approved by AMDUCA and may not work because the clinically affected probably aren’t eating anyway?

Answer 12

Chlortetracycline

Question 13

Where is anaplasmosis most common?

Answer 13

Southeast, intermountain west, and California

Question 14

What is the etiologic agent of anaplasmosis?

Answer 14

Anaplasma marginale

Question 15

How is Anaplasmosis treansmited?

Answer 15

Biting flies and ticks

Question 16

What can aid in the spread of anaplasmosis?

Answer 16

Dehorning, castrating, and vaccinating

Question 17

What clinical disease does anaplasmosis cause in calves?

Answer 17

Mild disease - they remain carrriers

Question 18

What clinical disease does anaplasmosis cause in yearlings?

Answer 18

Severe disease but usually recover

Question 19

What clinical disease does anaplasmosis cause in adults?

Answer 19

Most severe - mortalities can occur

Question 20

What clinical signs are associated with anaplasmosis?

Answer 20

Depression, anorexia, fever up to 106 F, anemia, icterus, emaciation, +/- hyperexcitabiltiy, and death

Question 21

How is anaplasmosis diagnosed?

Answer 21

Giemsa-stained blood smears, PCR, CF test, Rapid Card Agglutination Test

Question 22

When in infection duration are Geimsa-stained blood smears the best at diagnosing anaplasmosis?

Answer 22

Acute disease - not reliable in chronic infections

Question 23

The RCAT has (low/high) specificity and (low/high) sensitivity for anaplasmosis?

Answer 23

high; high

Question 24

What differentials should be considered with anaplasmosis?

Answer 24

Anthrax, babesiosis, bacillary hemoglobinuria, leptospirosis, and poisoning

Question 25

How is anaplasmosis treated?

Answer 25

Tetracycline, chlortetracycline in feed (it is approved)

Question 26

How is anaplasmosis controlled?

Answer 26

Control tick and fly population

Question 27

Is there a vaccination for anaplasmosis?

Answer 27

Not in the US - kind of There is one that is licensed in 26 states and Puerto Rico but there have been no USDA controlled clinical trials for efficacy

Question 28

What carries Theileria orientalis?

Answer 28

A tick - Haemaphysalis longicornis

Question 29

What does Theileria orientalis cause 1-8 weeks post exposure? Do they recover?

Answer 29

Anemia - they recover in 1-2 weeks but remain carriers

Question 30

What is the mortality rate of Theileria orientalis infection?

Answer 30

10%

Question 31

T/F: Johne's is reportable and quarantinable

Answer 31

False - it is reportable, but not quarantinable

Question 32

What is incorrect about this statement: The Johne's disease eradication program is no longer funded by the USDA and is designed to lessen the impact of Johne's disease.

Answer 32

It is a control program, not an eradication program

Question 33

Explain the (simplified) classification scheme for Johne's.

Answer 33

All herds are considered infected Herds that are classified at levels 1-3 are at the highest risk Herds that are classified at levels 4-6 are at the lowest risk Herds that are not in the program are defined as maximum risk herds

Question 34

What testing is done for Johne's?

Answer 34

PCR Liquid cultures ELISA, AGID, CF -- not on vax animals

Question 35

What tests need to be done for super shredders?

Answer 35

qPCR or agar culture with colony counts They can excrete as many organisms as thousands of lower shedding cows

Question 36

How often are herds tested if they are in levels 1-3 for Johne's? 4-6?

Answer 36

1-3: annual | 4-6: 2 years

Question 37

What samples can be used to detect Johne's?

Answer 37

Feces, serum, tissues, milk

Question 38

In herds of 300 or less, what is the testing protocol for Johne's?

Answer 38

All cows 36 months or greater of age need to be tested

Question 39

What does a Johne's certified veterinarian do in the Johne's control program?

Answer 39

Provide client education Conduct testing Develop a risk assessment for each farm enrolled Develop a management plan to lessen the risk of spread

Question 40

What is the etiologic agent of Johne's?

Answer 40

M. avium subsp. paratuberculosis

Question 41

What biosecurity measures need to be taken against Johne's?

Answer 41

Additions from only low risk herds Minimize exposure of young stock to manure Minimize exposure of feed, water, equipment to manure Minimize exposure to infected animals Manage colostrum

Question 42

T/F: You should not keep calves from Johne's positive cows.

Answer 42

True - there is transplacental transmission (even though it is not of concern apparently... )

Question 43

What dairy calf management measures need to be taken against Johne's?

Answer 43

Clean, dry maternity area separate from other cows Immediate weaning of calf Colostrum needs to be from a single cow that is negative or a healthy low-risk cow Calves should be fed milk replacer or pasteurized milk

Question 44

What beef herd management needs to be taken against Johne's?

Answer 44

Clean, dry calving area Minimize cow and calf density Feeding practices and equipment that minimize exposure of feed to manure Colostrum from a single source Raise weaned replacements separate from older animals Test cows and bulls and cull positives

Question 45

Where does immunization against Johne's have the biggest impact?

Answer 45

In heavily infected herds - it has been demonstrated that the vaccine can dramatically reduce the rate of fecal shedding

Question 46

T/F: The Johne's vaccination is readily available on the market

Answer 46

False- you must obtain it through the state veterinarian

Question 47

Where should the Johne's vaccination be injected and at what age?

Answer 47

<1 month into the brisket

Question 48

What causes bovine tuberculosis?

Answer 48

Mycobacterium bovis

Question 49

How is bovine tuberculosis diagnosed?

Answer 49

Caudal fold test - used by practicing veterinarians Comparative cervical Single cervical Necropsy and culture

Question 50

The Bovine Tuberculosis _______ program is a state-federal cooperative program where caudal fold testing is done in ______ (population) in ___ year intervals. Testing is also done prior to ____ or _______ inter-or intra-state. Inspection for lesions is done at ______.

Answer 50

``` Eradication Dairies 3 Sale or shipment Slaughter ```

Question 51

Once reactors to the caudal fold test are found, what must be done?

Answer 51

The comperative cervical test is done within 10 days to differentiate between other mycobacterium. If this is positive, the herd moves onto the following step: Quarantine the herd, test all animals and slaughter positives (or depopulate) There must be 2 consecutive negative tests at 60-90 day intervals plus a negative test 6 months later

Question 52

What is a tuberculosis accredited free state?

Answer 52

There has been no evidence of tuberculosis for 5 consecutive years

Question 53

What is a tuberculosis accredited free herd?

Answer 53

They annually have 2 consecutive negative tests on all animals over 24 months of age and any purchased animals under 24 months of age

Question 54

What test is done for cervids (looking for tuberculosis)?

Answer 54

Cervid TB Stat-Pak test | Single Cervical Test

Question 55

Who can perform Cervid TB Stat-Pak tests?

Answer 55

Trained veterinarians

Question 56

What cervids is the Cervid TB Stat-Pak test approved for?

Answer 56

Elk, red deer, white-tailed deer, fallow deer, and reindeer

Question 57

If you do a Cervid TB Stat-Pak test, the cervids are handled (once/twice). If you do a single cervical TB test for cervids, they have to be handled (once/twice).

Answer 57

once, twice

Question 58

How many times do non-negatives need to be handled when you do the single cervical TB test for cervids?

Answer 58

4x

Question 59

If you have a non-negative result with the Cervid TB Stat-Pak test, what is done?

Answer 59

The same serum is used to test with the cervid dual path platform (DPP test).

Question 60

T/F: You cannot do the Stat-Pak and follow up with the single cervical.

Answer 60

True

Question 61

T/F: You cannot do the single cervical test and follow up with the Stat-Pak or DPP

Answer 61

True