Unit 4 - Equine Enteric Flashcards

1
Q

What are the common infectious causes of diarrhea in neonate (<2 mo) foals?

A

Rotavirus
C. perfringens A
C. difficile
Salmonella enterica (any age)

All have acute presentation which is more common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the less common infectious causes of diarrhea in the neonate (<2 mo) foal?

A

Coronavirus
Cryptosporidium

All acute presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the infectious causes of diarrhea in older foals?

A

R. equi
Lawsonia intracellularis
Intestinal parasites

Chronic more common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the non-infectious causes of diarrhea in foals?

A

Foal heat diarrhea (acute)
Nutritional diarrhea
Septicemic diarrhea (acute)
Gastric ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F: More than 50% of foals will experience at least 1 episode of diarrhea before weaning.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the common infectious causes of diarrhea in adult horses?

A

Salmonella - acute & chronic
Neorickettsia risticii - acute
Clostridoides difficile - acute > chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the less common infectious causes of diarrhea in adult horses?

A

Coronavirus - acute

Intestinal parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the non-infectious causes of diarrhea in adult horses?

A
Inflammatory bowel disease
Toxicities
Grain overload
Systemic diseases - heart failure, liver failure
Sand enteropathy
Gastric ulcers
Lymphosarcoma
Microbiota abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a key issue of foal diarrhea?

A

Failure of passive transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the level of antibody per mL that is suggestive of normal complete passive transfer? Partial failure? Complete failure?

A

Normal, complete - >800 mg/dl
Partial failure - 400-800 mg/dl
Complete failure - <400mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the gold standard for measuring passive transfer?

A

Radial immunodiffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What assays are semi-quantitative for measuring passive transfer?

A

Lateral flow/ELISA-type immunoassays

Immunoturbidometric assays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does a Brix refractometer measure?

A

Total solids to estimate IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the gold standard for measuring colostrum quality?

A

Radial immunodiffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What factors can affect passive transfer?

A
Maiden mares or >16 years of age
Premature lactation
Sick mares
Dystocia
Poor mothering instinct
Death of mare
Twinning
Sick foals
Congenital defects in foals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What factors affect foal diarrhea?

A

Transportation of the mare prior to foaling
Lack of sanitation
Too much pre-partum nutrition of the mare
Too little post-partum nutrition of the mare
Excessive oral medications to the foal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the etiologic agent of Salmonellosis?

A

Salmonella enterica subspecies enterica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most salmonellosis infections are subclinical, however, what can lead to clinical disease?

A

Stressors such as concurrent infections, deworming, surgery, and transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How is Salmonella transmitted?

A

Fecal-oral or fomite transmission

Highly contagious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T/F: Salmonellosis is zoonotic.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T/F: Outbreaks of salmonellosis in equine facilities have led to shut down of entire facilities for months.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What clinical signs are associated with acute salmonellosis?

A

Diarrhea, fever, anorexia, +/- colic, +/- tachycardia, +/- tachypnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What will you see on a CBC in a patient with salmonellosis?

A

Leukopenia characterized by neutropenia +/- left shift, hemoconcentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What will you see on chemistry in a patient with salmonellosis?

A

Hypoproteinemia, acidosis, and electrolyte derangements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How do patients with chronic salmonellosis present?
They are asymptomatic carriers that have chronic diarrhea
26
What is the rule of thumb when diagnosing salmonellosis?
A horse with diarrhea and fever or neutropenia has salmonellosis until proven otherwise
27
How is salmonellosis diagnosed antemortem?
Fecal PCR or culture
28
What is the gold standard for ruling out current Salmonella infection?
Repeat fecal samples (3-5) collected 12-24 hours apart
29
At necropsy, what should be cultured to identify Salmonella?
Intestinal tract or lymph nodes
30
How do you treat salmonellosis?
Supportive care - IV fluids, NSAIDs, polymyxin B, antibiotics, laminitis prevention
31
How is salmonellosis prevented and controlled in equine hospitals?
Isolate and test all clinical suspects Routine screening of patient population Strict attention to hygiene and disinfection
32
How is salmonellosis prevented and controlled on the farm?
Quarantine all horses returning from shows and other events Sanitize feeding and cleaning equipment between animals Vaccination
33
What is the label claim for the Salmonella vaccination?
Aid in prevention of endotoxin-mediated disease
34
What is the etiologic agent of Potomac Horse Fever?
Neorickettsia risticii
35
When is the highest incidence of PHF?
In late summer and early fall
36
What intermediate hosts are associated with PHF?
Trematodes, freshwater snails, and aquatic insects
37
How is PHF transmitted?
Ingestion of feed or water contaminated with aquatic insects especially mayflies and caddis flies
38
What does Neorickettsia risticii infect?
Circulating macrophages
39
What clinical signs are associated with acute cases of PHF?
Fever, anorexia, depression, ileus, injected mucous membranes, +/- colic Diarrhea 24-72hrs after clinical signs
40
What abnormalities will be on CBC in a patient with PHF?
Leukopenia, neutropenia +/- left shift, hemoconcentration
41
What abnormalities will be on chemistry in a patient with PHF?
Hypoproteinemia, acidosis, electrolyte derangements
42
What clinical signs are associated with chronic PHF?
Laminitis and abortion
43
T/F: PHF is not fatal.
False - it can be due to endotoxemia and laminitis
44
How is PHF diagnosed?
Seasonal timing and geography is highly suggestive Often initiate treatment prior to receiving test results PCR Paired serology
45
What is the preferred method of PHF diagnosis?
PCR with feces and/or whole blood
46
What increase in titers is indicative of PHF?
4-fold increase
47
How is PHF treated?
Supportive care - IV fluids, NSAIDs, laminitis | Antibiotics - oxytetracycline (response in 1-3 days)
48
How is PHF prevented and controlled?
Vaccination | Insect control
49
T/F: Vaccinated individuals against PHF can still develop disease.
True - the vaccine is just thought to lessen the severity of disease
50
What is the administration protocol for the PHF vaccine?
Initial 2 dose series - 3-4 weeks apart | Booster yearly or every 3-4 months prior to high risk period
51
What is the etiologic agent of Rotavirus?
Rotavirus A
52
T/F: Tramission of Rotavirus can cross species.
True
53
T/F: Almost all horses are exposed to Rotavirus in early life.
True
54
When do most clinical infections of Rotavirus occur?
In foals that are < 2 months
55
How is Rotavirus transmitted?
Fecal-oral
56
Rotavirus is a ____ dependent disease.
Dose
57
What clinical signs are associated with rotavirus infection?
Diarrhea
58
What types of diarrhea can Rotavirus cause?
Osmotic or secretory diarrhea
59
How does Rotavirus cause osmotic diarrhea?
The virus destroys small intestinal villi resulting in malabsorption and thus osmotic diarrhea
60
How does Rotavirus cause secretory diarrhea?
The enterotoxin causes chloride secretion which in turn results in secretory diarrhea
61
How is Rotavirus diagnosed?
PCR, ELISA, and Latex agglutination
62
How is Rotavirus treated?
Supportive care - IV fluids, NSAIDs, +/- broad spectrum abx
63
How is Rotavirus prevented and controlled?
General sanitation and biosecurity principles | Vaccination
64
What is the administration protocol for the Rotavirus vaccination?
Immunize mares 3x late in each gestation (8, 9, 10 months)
65
What is the etiologic agent of Coronavirus?
Equine coronavirus (ECoV) - beta coronavirus
66
Coronavirus has been recently identified as a primary causative agent of _____ diarrhea.
Adult
67
There is a high seroprevalence of Coronavirus in _____ breeds.
Draft
68
How is Coronavirus transmitted?
Fecal-oral transmission, fomites
69
What clinical signs are associated with coronavirus?
Acute necrotizing enteritis (small > large intestines) | Acute onset - fever, anorexia, lethargy, soft formed to diarrhea to scant feces to colic, +/- encephalopathy
70
What CBC abnormalities are associated with a coronavirus infection?
Leukopenia and neutropenia
71
How is coronavirus diagnosed?
PCR on feces - best time is 3-4 days after onset of clinical signs
72
How is coronavirus treated?
Supportive care only - fluids, electrolytes, NSAIDs
73
T/F: Vaccination for coronavirus provides life-long protection.
False - there is no vaccine
74
How is coronavirus prevented and controlled?
General sanitation and biosecurity principles | Known positive animals should be isolated for 3 weeks
75
What is the etiologic agent of clostridial enteritis?
C. perfringens A and C in foals | C. difficile in foals and adults
76
How is clostridial enteritis transmitted?
Fecal/oral, fomites
77
What clinical signs are associated with C. perfringens clostridial enteritis?
Acute onset - hemorrhagic diarrhea with sepsis, colic, dehydration, shock Can progrss to necrotizing colitis and typhlitis
78
What clinical signs are associated with C. difficile clostridial enteritis?
Acute onset of diarrhea with sepsis
79
What history is often associated with C. difficile clostridial enteritis?
A history of antibiotics or hospitalization
80
How is clostridial enteritis diagnosed?
Demonstrate large numbers of gram positive rods in feces or from affected areas of the intestines PCR Culture and genotyping Commercial ELISA for C. difficile
81
How is clostridial enteritis treated?
Aggressive supportive care - IV fluids, electrolytes, biosponge, antitoxin (extralabel) Antibiotics - Metro and/or penicillin in foals with C. perfringens, metro in adults with C. diff
82
How is clostridial enteritis prevented and controlled?
Vaccination - extralabel General sanitation and biosecurity principles Hyperimmune plasma Probiotics
83
What is the etiologic agent of proliferative enteropathy?
Lawsonia intracellularis
84
T/F: Lawsonia intracellularis is an obligate intracellular pathogen.
True
85
How is L. intracellularis transmitted?
Fecal-oral
86
What cells does L. intracellularis infect?
Crypt epithelial cells in the ileum
87
What age group is most commonly affected by proliferative enteropathy ?
Foals 3-4 months to 7-9 months of age
88
What clinical signs are associated with proliferative enteropathy?
Ventral edema, diarrhea, weight loss (all due to protein losing enteropathy) Fever, lethargy, anroexia Poor doer - rough hair coat, pot bellied appearance, concurrent infections Acute necrotizing colitis
89
What lesion can lead to perforation and death associated with proliferative enteropathy?
Erosion and ulceration of intestine
90
What CBC abnormalities are consistent with a patient with proliferative enteropathy?
Anemia and leukocytosis
91
What chemistry abnormalities are consistent with a patient with proliferative enteropathy?
Hypoproteinemia, increased CK
92
How is proliferative enteropathy presumptively diagnosed?
Based on signalment, clinical signs, hypoproteinemia, and thickened small intestines and abdominal ultrasound
93
How is proliferative enteropathy confirmed?
PCR on feces | Serology (Immunoperoxidase monolayer assay
94
How is proliferative enteropathy diagnosed at necropsy?
IHC staining
95
How is proliferative enteropathy treated?
Early treatment is key! | Antibiotics and supportive care (colloids)
96
How is proliferative enteropathy prevented and controlled?
Extra-label vaccination | Monitoring - 1-2x monthly serum TP and serologic status testing
97
Colibacillosis is not usually considered a primary pathogen in foal _____ disease.
enteric
98
What does colibacillosis cause in neonates?
Joint infections, omphalophlebitis, and septicemia
99
What is the primary disease process that Rhodococcus equi causes?
Pyogranulomatous pneumonia
100
What non-respiratory disease can R. equi cause in horses and what age group?
May cause enteric disease in 2-6 mo foals
101
T/F: Extrapulmonary infections due to R. equi are associated with increased mortality.
True
102
How do you treat R. equi enteric infections?
The same as with respiratory infections - macrolide + rifampin
103
What is the etiologic agent of Actinobacillosis?
Actinobacillus equuli
104
Actinobacillosis is also known as what?
Sleepy foal disease
105
T/F: A. equuli is a common organism found in the intestinal tracts of many horses
True - mares may also carry it in their genital tracts
106
What are the clinical signs of actinobacillosis in neonates?
Early septicemia (1-4 days of age) - lethargy, anorexia, diarrhea, joint infections, abscesses in multiple organs, sudden death
107
What does actinobacillosis cause in adults?
Peritonitis, endometritis, endocarditis
108
How is actinobacillosis diagnosed?
Culture
109
What antemortem samples should be used for diagnosis of actinobacillosis?
Blood, joint
110
What post mortem samples should be used for diagnosis of actinobacillosis?
Kidney, lung, liver
111
How is actinobacillosis treated?
Antibiotics - gram negative septicemic coverage
112
How is actinobacillosis prevented and controlled?
Adequate passive transfer | Good sanitation at foaling