Unit 2 - Small Ruminant Respiratory + CNS? Flashcards

(85 cards)

1
Q

What type of breeders are sheep and goats?

A

Seasonally polyestrous - short day breeders

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2
Q

When does breeding of sheep and goats typically start?

A

In July

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3
Q

When is maximum fertility for sheep and goats approximately?

A

October

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4
Q

How long is gestation in sheep?

A

144-151 days

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5
Q

How long is gestation in goats?

A

150 days

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6
Q

What are the main small ruminant respiratory diseases?

A
Mannheimia haemolytica
Bibersteinia trehalosi
Pasteurella multocida
Histophilus somni (goats)
Mycoplasmas
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
Trueperella pyogenes
PI3
RSV
Adenoviruses
Reoviruses
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7
Q

What does Mannheimia haemolytica cause in lambs?

A

Neonatal lamb septicemia

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8
Q

What lesions will be found at post mortem in lambs with Mannheimia haemolytica infection?

A

Patchy or consolidated area in the lungs, hemorrhages on serosal surfaces, and areas of necrosis

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9
Q

What is the major predisposing factor to neonatal septicemia?

A

Poor ventilation

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10
Q

How is neonatal septicemia prevented?

A

Have good ventilation, bedding/cleanliness/moisture, and shearing ewes

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11
Q

How does shearing ewes aid in prevention of neonatal septicemia?

A

It reduces the moisture in the barn, makes teats more accessible, and allows for more ewes in lambing areas

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12
Q

How is neonatal septicemia treated?

A

Naxcel is approved for respiratory infections
Tilmicosin
LA200

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13
Q

What does Mannheimia haemolytica cause in feeder lambs?

A

Enzootic and sporadic pneumonia

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14
Q

What are the predisposing factors for feeder lamb pneumonia?

A

Crowding, processing, stress, and dust

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15
Q

What clinical signs are associated with feeder lamb pneumonia?

A

High fever, variable coughing, and rapid respiration

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16
Q

What will you find on necropsy in Mannheimia haemolytica pneumonia lambs?

A

Fibrino-hemorrhagic pneumonia, pleuritis, and pericarditis

Anterior and ventral areas in the lungs

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17
Q

How do you prevent respiratory disease in sheep and goats?

A

Decrease stress, crowding, dust, etc.
Improve air quality
Immunization for some agents

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18
Q

What antibiotics are approved in small ruminants?

A

Ceftiofur (Naxcel) - sheep and goat respiratory
Tilmicosin - sheep respiratory; kills goats
Procaine Pen-G- Sheep pneumonia
Aureomycin (doesn’t really work) - Campy abortion
Neomycin oral - enteritis in sheep and goats
Terramycin ophthalmic - sheep

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19
Q

What does Bibersteinia trehalosi cause in small ruminants?

A

Septicemia in feeder lambs

Respiratory disease in goats

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20
Q

What does Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae cause?

A

A chronic pneumonia/cough

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21
Q

What is M. ovipneumoniae often secondary to or vise-versa?

A

Mannheimia

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22
Q

What predisposes small ruminants to M. ovipneumoniae?

A

Poor ventilation

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23
Q

T/F: Persistent coughs can result in rectal prolapses in small ruminants.

A

True

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24
Q

How do you prevent and control M. ovipneumoniae?

A

Improve air quality

There is no immunization available

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25
How is M. ovipneumoniae treated?
You can try antimicrobials, but the damage has already been done
26
What does M. capricolum subsp. capripneumoniae cause?
Contagious caprine pleuropneumonia (CCPP)
27
CCPP is a very ______ respiratory disease. Transmission is ______. CCPP is characterized by a severe __________ that is confined to the ______ cavity.
Aggressive Rapid Pleuropneumonia Thoracic
28
What clinical signs are associated with peracute Mycoplasma mycoides subspecies mycoides LC infection in goats?
High fever, opisthotonus, death within 1-3 days, polysynovitis, and CNS signs in young kids
29
What clinical signs are associated with acute to subacute cases of M. mycoides subsp. mycoides LC in goats?
Polysynovitis and polyserositis | Fibrinous interstitial, broncho-or pleuropneumonia +/- mastitis
30
What differential should be considered with peractue forms of M. mycoides LC infection?
CAEV
31
What differential should be considered with acute to subacute forms of M. mycoides LC infection?
CCPP
32
What clinical disease has C. abortus been associated with in small ruminants?
Respiratory disease, conjunctivitis, and polyarthritis Abortions as well, but we will get to that later
33
T/F: Ovine adenovirus causes severe respiratory disease in sheep
False - it produces a mild or inapparent disease in lambs that is most likely to predispose them to an infection with another agent
34
What does Parainfluenza 3 cause?
Acute respiratory disease in sheep
35
T/F: The bovine vaccine provides some protection against PI-3 in small ruminants
True
36
T/F: Respiratory syncytial virus is a serious respiratory pathogen where death is sudden and immunity is rare
False - Up to 50% of sheep have antibody | It may predispose small ruminants to respiratory disease
37
What does Respiratory syncytial virus do on a cellular level?
Syncytia in alveoar macrophages
38
What does Reovirus cause?
Experimental rhinitis, conjunctivitis, diarrhea with development of catarrhal or purulent pneumonia, pleuritis and pericarditis
39
What causes ovine progressive pneumonia (OPP)?
Non-onogenic lentivirus
40
What clinical signs are associated with OPP?
Progressive loss of condition, emaciation, and dyspnea Fatal once they develop clinical signs Hard bag Encephalitic disease - slowly progressive ataxia, head tilt, and trembling of the lips
41
What lesions does OPP cause?
Massive lymphocytic infiltration of the lungs that may weigh 2-3x normal
42
How is OPP diagnosed?
Clinical signs, AGID test, cELISA, and PCR
43
What OPP diagnostic method is good for screening whole flocks?
AGID
44
What OPP diagnostic method may miss early infections?
cELISA
45
What OPP diagnostic method detects viral RNA and is expensive?
PCR
46
How is OPP prevented/controlled?
Test and cull | Prevent colostral transmission from positive ewes to lambs
47
How is caprine arthritis-encephalitis (CAEV) spread?
Colostrum and milk
48
What population of goats gets the encephalitic form of CAEV?
Young kids - you first see clinical signs 1-4 months of age
49
What lesions does the encephalitic form of CAEV cause?
Loss of white matter architecture and replacement with gitter cells, lymphocytes, and debris
50
What clinical signs does the encephalitic form CAEV cause?
Ataxia, posterior paresis, tremors, abnormal posture, tetraparesis or paralysis They may be stunted and have interstitial pneumonia
51
What population of goats get the arthritic form of CAEV?
Adults > 1 year of age
52
What lesions does the arthritic form of CAEV cause?
Proliferative synovitis - villous hypertrophy, synovial cell hyperplasia, and infiltration by mononuclear cells Less severe CNS
53
How is CAEV diagnosed?
``` Characteristic lesions cELISA IHC AGID PCR ```
54
How do you treat the CNS form of CAEV? Arthritic form?
CNS - not very successful | Arthritic - supportive care and good nutrition
55
How do you control CAEV?
Test and cull | Prevent colostral transmission
56
What is the etiologic agent of pulmonary adenomatosis?
Type D Retrovirus
57
What population of small ruminants is affected by pulmonary adenomatosis?
Sheep of all ages - slow onset, CS of all ages are susceptible Rare in goats
58
How is pulmonary adenomatosis transmitted?
Via virus in nasal secretions
59
What clinical signs are associated with pulmonary adenomatosis?
Progressive respiratory signs with fatal secondary pneumonia
60
What lesions are associated with pulmonary adenomatosis?
Lungs that are extensively infiltrated with tumors
61
How is pulmonary adenomatosis diagnosed?
Clinical signs | Histopath - adenocarcinomas from type 2 alveolar epithelial cells
62
How do you treat pulmonary adenomatosis?
There is no treatment
63
How is pulmonary adenomatosis controlled?
Slaughter
64
What causes enzootic nasal adenocarcinoma in sheep? Goats?
Sheep - ENTV1 | Goats - ENTV2`
65
How are enzootic nasal tumor viruses spread?
By contact with nasal secretions of infected animals
66
T/F: Enzootic nasal adenocarcinomas tend not to metastasize, but are routinely fatal.
True
67
How are enzootic nasal adenocarcinomas diagnosed?
Radiograph or endoscopic exam PCR IHC
68
What codons determine the susceptibility of a sheep to developing the most common strains of Scrapie?
Codon 136 and 171
69
What genotypes for codon 136 are susceptible to Scrapie? Not susceptible?
AV and VV AA is not susceptible
70
What genotypes for codon 171 are susceptible to scrapie? Not susceptible?
QQ, QH, and HH are susceptible RR, RQ, and RH are not susceptible
71
In what population of sheep are variant scrapie strains found?
In sheep with 'resistant' genotypes
72
How may variant scrapie strains arise?
From spontaneous mutation
73
Goats with serine at codon ______ and lysine at ______ have been recognized as more resistant or immune to scrapie.
146, 222 Those w/o are highly susceptible
74
How is scrapie transmitted?
Transplacental | Contact with fetal membranes is considered to be the highest risk factor
75
What disease is similar to Scrapie, transmits easier, and can be transmitted via the fecal-oral route, urine, saliva, carcass decomposition, and possibly semen transmission?
Chronic Wasting Disease of Deer and Elk
76
Why are extensive decontamination methods required to control CWD?
Because prions can build up in confinement facilities
77
What clinical signs are associated with Scrapie?
``` Insidious onset of subtle behavior changes Rubbing wool off behind elbows and base of tail Nibbling of the legs Ataxia/unsteadiness Hopping gait Wasting Unable to rise Blindness ```
78
How is Scrapie prevented and controlled?
Use RR rams and S146/K122 bucks Do not add ewes to a flock unless genotyped Slaughter and proper disposal of positive sheep Trace-back
79
What initiates the scrapie flock certification program?
Sheep producers
80
Who controls the scrapie eradication program?
State-federal cooperative program
81
What are the basic rules for scrapie animal ID tags?
An ID is required for the following: When sheep leave a farm All sheep over 18 months of age All ewe lambs not sold directly to slaughter All breeding animals except low-risk commercial goats Goats in contact with sheep Sheep and goats going to exhibitions/fairs except wethers When in doubt - tag
82
How is scrapie diagnosed?
Clinical signs Histopath on the brain stem and spinal cord Blood test IHC on rectal biopsy
83
How does the Protein Misfolding Cyclic Amplification (PMCA) work?
The sample is mixed with normal brain tissue If present, prion protein acts as a template and chains of abnormal protein form Sample is exposed to ultrasound to break up protein chains Sample has many more templates and is allowed to form new chains (amplification)
84
What sampling programs are available for Scrapie?
Regulatory Scrapie Slaughter Surveillance Vets and owners can submit samples for testing Scrapie Flock Certification program
85
Is the US scrapie free?
Not according to OIE