Unit 4 - Equine Skin and FAD Flashcards

(86 cards)

1
Q

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var. equi is a natural inhabitant of what?

A

the soil

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2
Q

How is Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var. equi transmitted?

A

Via any break in the skin or biting insects

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3
Q

What are the three forms of disease/clinical signs caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var. equi?

A

External abscesses (Pigeon fever)
Internal abscesses
Ulcerative lymphangitis

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4
Q

What age group of horses are predisposed to pigeon fever?

A

young

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5
Q

What lesions are associated with pigeon fever?

A

Large pectoral abscesses and on the ventral abdomen

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6
Q

Where do internal abscesses due to Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var. equi typically localize?

A

On the liver, lung, spleen, and kidney

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7
Q

Ulcerative lymphangitis is characterized by what?

A

Severe cellulitis of one or more limbs

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8
Q

How is Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var. equi diagnosed?

A

Bacterial culture of lesions, peritoneal fluid, or draining tracts
Evidence of chronic infection on CBC
Synergistic hemolysis inhibition

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9
Q

How are the external abscesses caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var. equi treated?

A

Surgical drainage ofmature abscesses
Many abscesses will rupture and heal on their own
Antibiotics only in complicated cases

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10
Q

T/F: There is a low chance of recovery associated with pigeon fever.

A

False - it is high

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11
Q

How are internal abscesses and ulcerative lymphangitis caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var. equi treated?

A

Long term (minimum 4-6 weeks) of antibiotic therapy

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12
Q

How is Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var. equi prevented and controlled?

A

Isolate infected animals
Contain abscess drainage
Fly control
Vaccination

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13
Q

What is the etiology of sporothricosis?

A

Sporothrix schenckii

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14
Q

What does sporothricosis present similarily to?

A

ulcerative lymphangitis

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15
Q

Where does Sporothrix schenckii grow?

A

In organic material - silvers and thorns

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16
Q

How is sporothricosis introduced?

A

Via trauma

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17
Q

What clinical signs are associated with sporothricosis?

A

Multiple abscesses along lymphatic vessels

Typically affects a single limb

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18
Q

How is Sporothricosis diagnosed?

A

Cytology
Culture
Lack of response to antibiotic therapy

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19
Q

What will you see on cytology in patients with sporothricosis?

A

Cigar bodies - elongated yeast cells

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20
Q

How is sporothricosis treated?

A

Sodium iodide with Ketoconazole (or similar drugs) OR amphoteracin B

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21
Q

What are the infectious causes of folliculitis/dermatitis?

A

Dermatophilosis
Dermatophytosis
Bacterial pyoderma
Parasitic - chorioptic and psoroptic mange

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22
Q

What are the most common etiologic agents of dermatophytosis?

A

Trichophyton equinum
T. mentagrophytes
Microsporum gypseum

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23
Q

What are the common etiologic agents of dermatophytosis if there is interaction with other infected animals?

A

T. verrucosum

M. canis

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24
Q

How does dermatophytosis colonize?

A

It requires some abrasion to skin to allow entry

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25
What clinical signs are associated with dermatophytosis?
Regions of alopecia, frequently round, erythemic, crusted margins Located on the head, neck, forelimbs, under saddle/girth
26
How is dermatophytosis diagnosed?
Culture is the best bet
27
How is dermatophytosis treated?
``` Most cases are self-limiting Can treat topically with antifungals or lime sulfur +/- systemic therapy Separate from herd Disinfect equipment ```
28
What is the etiologic agent of dermatophilosis?
Dermatophilus congolensis
29
How does Dermatophilus congolensis enter the body?
Skin abrasion and moisture
30
T/F: The crusts from dermatophilus infected individuals are contagious
True
31
What is another name for dermatophilosis?
Rain rot
32
What lesions are associated with dermatophilosis?
Papules that progress to thick crusts with an erosive underside (paint brush lesions)
33
How is dermatophilosis diagnosed?
Direct examination of crusts | Giemsa stain
34
How is dermatophilosis treated?
Dry environment Crust removal Topical chlorhexidine +/- systemic therapy with abx
35
What is the etiologic agent of vesicualr stomatitis?
Vesicular stomatitis virus
36
Where is vesicular stomatitis endemic?
In North, Central, and South America
37
During what time of year is vesicular stomatitis common?
Spring to summer months - waterways
38
How is vesicular stomatitis transmitted?
Via biting insects and direct contact once on property
39
T/F: Vesicular stomatitis is zoonotic..
True
40
What clinical signs are associated with vesicular stomatitis?
Excessive salivation with vesicles on the inner surface of the lips, gums, and tongue - occasional crusting on muzzle, lips, nostrils, ears, coronary band, sheath, ventral abdomen
41
How is vesicular stomatitis diagnosed?
Report any suspicious lesions to the state vet PCR from lesions Serology
42
How is vesicular stomatitis treated?
supportive care
43
How is vesicular stomatitis prevented and controlled?
Quarantine of any identified premises Isolate any new horses for 21 days Insect control programs Individual feeders
44
What transmits African horse sickness?
Biting midges
45
What serves as reservoirs for African horse sickness?
Donkeys, mules, zebras, elephants, camels, and dogs
46
what complicates the prevention of African horse sickness?
The antigenic variants
47
Where is African horse sickness endemic?
Sub-Saharan Africa
48
What cell does African horse sickness attack and what does that result in?
Vascular endothelium resulting in edema
49
What are the forms of African horse sickness?
Pulmonary, cardiac, mixed, mild
50
What clinical signs are associated with the pulmonary form of African horse sickness?
Severe pulmonary edema, frothing at the nares, high fever, and 95% case fatality rate
51
What clinical signs are associated with the cardiac form of African horse sickness?
Pronounced edema of the head and neck, hydropericardium, and high case fatality rate
52
What clinical signs are associated with the mild form of African horse sickness?
Fever only
53
How is African horse sickness diagnosed?
Clinical signs Virus isolation PCR if available Serology
54
Is African horse sickness treatable?
Not really - supportive care is the best you can do because it is highly fatal
55
How is African Horse sickness prevented and controlled?
Strict importation rules Control biting midges Screening/netting at night Vaccination
56
What is the reservoir of Hendra virus?
fruit bat
57
How is Hendra virus transmitted between horses?
Direct contact only with respiratory secretions
58
T/F: Hendra virus is highly fatal and zoonotic
True
59
What clinical signs are associated with Hendra virus?
Fever, respiratory distress, and death Severe bilateral pulmonary edema Potential for neurologic signs
60
Where does Hendra virus replicate? How does it spread?
Replicates in respiratory epithelium first, then spreads hematogenously to other organs
61
How is Hendra virus diagnosed?
RNA virus - RT-PCR | Serology
62
How is Hendra virus treated?
No treatment - euthanized to protect human health
63
What is the etiologic agent of glanders?
Burkholderia mallei
64
T/F: Burkolderia mallei lives in the soil and is zoonotic.
False - it is zoonotic but it is an obligate parasite of equidae and dies out in the environment fairly quickly
65
How is Burkholderia mallei discharged from a horse?
Draining nodules and nasal mucosa
66
How is glanders transmitted?
Feed, water, and direct contact
67
What is a key to glanders transmission?
Recovered carriers
68
What equidae species tend to develop chronic glanders? acute disease?
Chronic - horses | Acute - donkeys and mules
69
What are the forms of glanders?
Respiratory and cutaneous
70
What are the respiratory clinical signs of glanders?
Pneumonia Small nodules on the nasal and pharyngeal mucosa that ulcerate and drain Ulcers will heal and scars form (stellate scars)
71
What are the cutaneous clinical signs of glanders?
Nodules on skin, subcutaneous tissues, and lymph nodes | Lymphangitis
72
What form of glanders do humans get?
Primarily cutaneous but can get respiratory
73
How is glanders diagnosed in acute cases?
Culture or PCR of lesions | Postmortem lesions and culture
74
How are carriers of glanders detected?
Serology - CF (official test for import), ELISA, AGID | Mallein intradermal skin test
75
How is glanders treated?
It is not recommended - don't want carriers
76
How is glanders prevented and controlled?
Test and slaughter is preferred - no vaccination
77
What is the etiologic agent of dourine?
Trypanosoma eqiperdum
78
T/F: Dourine is common in all hooved species.
False - only in equidae
79
How is dourine transmitted?
venereally
80
Where is dourine found?
Central and S. America, N. Africa, and the Middle East
81
When is the onset of dourine?
Up to 20 weeks
82
What acute signs are associated with dourine?
Initial low-grade fever and urethral or vaginal discharge Edema, swelling, and ulceration of external genitalia Occasional abortion
83
What chronic signs are associated with dourine?
Peculiar raised plaques in skin of the flank that disappear and are replaced by plaques in other areas (pathognomonic) CNS signs - incoordination, ataxia, paralysis Loss of condition and progressive weakness
84
How is dourine diagnosed?
Clinical signs Serologic testing Real-time PCR
85
How is dourine treated?
Use of trypanosomal drugs is possible... but not practical
86
How is dourine prevented and controlled?
Slaughter of all CF positive carrier animals