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USMLE Step 1: Part 1 COPY > USMLE Rx: Week of 06/27/16 > Flashcards

USMLE Rx: Week of 06/27/16 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the mechanism by which NO alleviates angina?

A

NO, at low doses, only dilates the veins; thus, it decreases preload and then decreases myocardial oxygen demand

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2
Q

Most types of kidney stones are radio-________. Cysteine is the main exception.

A

opaque

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3
Q

What kind of malignancy causes Horner syndrome?

A

Pancoast tumor

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4
Q

What antibody is found in those with myositis?

A

Anti-Jo-1

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5
Q

Another term for Heinz bodies is __________.

A

inclusion bodies

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6
Q

What is the most important prognostic factor for children with tetralogy of Fallot?

A

The degree of pulmonic stenosis

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7
Q

What drug leads to down-regulation of GnRH and thence down-regulation of FSH/LH?

A

Leuprolide

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8
Q

_________ inhibits 5-lipoxygenase.

A

Zileuton

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9
Q

What is the only antihypertensive agent that can be delivered transdermally?

A

Clonidine

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10
Q

What receptor does clonidine target?

A

Alpha-2

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11
Q

What drug is administered with methotrexate to avoid myelosuppression?

A

Folinic acid (a derivative of THF)

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12
Q

Of ACE, ARB, and loop diuretics, which are safe in pregnancy?

A

Only loop diuretics

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13
Q

Glossitis in a smoker can indicate _____________.

A

superior vena cava syndrome

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14
Q

Meningiomas will histologically demonstrate ___________.

A

psammomma bodies

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15
Q

ATP binding to myosin causes _____________.

A

myosin to detach from actin

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16
Q

What kind of lung disease does Goodpasture’s cause?

A

Restrictive

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17
Q

Fibromuscular dysplasia is the main cause of secondary hypertension in ___________.

A

children and young adults

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18
Q

What is the mnemonic for types of cancers that lead to psammoma bodies?

A 
2PM
Papillary thyroid cancer
Papillary serous cystadenoca ovary
Meningioma
Mesothelioma
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19
Q

The ____________ is the most commonly fractured carpal bone.

A

scaphoid

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20
Q

Fracture of the _________ is usually not noticeable immediately after the injury, but becomes apparent with avascular necrosis later on.

A

scaphoid

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21
Q

Again, what kind of lung cancer leads to cavitation?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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22
Q

Leiomyosarcoma leads to what kind of cells on histologic examination?

A

Spindle-shaped smooth muscle cells

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23
Q

What bleeding disorder can affect infants born at home?

A

Vitamin K deficiency (because vitamin K is given to all hospital-born infants); thus, PT and PTT are extended, and bleeding time and platelets are normal

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24
Q

Describe the histologic presentation of Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

Large nuclei, scant cytoplasm, rosette formation around fibrous centers

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25
Q

What two things can cause renal tubular acidosis?

A

Failure to reabsorb bicarb (such as by acetazolamide use) or failure to secrete hydrogen ions

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26
Q

Acetazolamide leads to what pH disorder?

A

Metabolic acidosis; inhibiting carbonic anhydrase in the proximal tubule leads to increased bicarb excretion

27
Q

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia is associated with ______-hydramnios.

A

poly

28
Q

Adults with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAHA) are treated with ________, while children respond better to ____________.

A

IVIG; corticosteroids

29
Q

Both ACEi and ________ can prevent diabetic nephropathy.

A

angiotensin-receptor blockers

30
Q

Recall that direct Coombs tests use patient _________, while indirect tests use patient _________ and donor __________. Both use anti-IgG antibody.

A

RBCs; serum; RBCs

31
Q

Prostate cancer commonly causes _________ in the bones.

A

osteoblastic deposition

32
Q

What is Courvoisier’s sign and what does it indicate?

A

Enlarged gall bladder; pancreatic process

33
Q

Trousseau’s sign is ________ and indicates ________.

A

migratory thrombophlebitis; pancreatic adenocarcinoma

34
Q

The dorsal root carries the _________ neurons.

A

sensory (“Feel my dorsal Fin”)

35
Q

Family adenomatous polyposis results from __________.

A

inherited mutation of the APC tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 5 (“five letters in polyp”)

36
Q

Those with FAP are at increased risk of ____________ tumors.

A

medulloblastomas (called Turcot syndrome)

37
Q

“How well a test rules out…” = __________.

A

sensitivity (TP / (TP + FN))

38
Q

Stratified squamous epithelium in the lung indicates _________.

A

squamous cell carcinoma; there should only be simple squamous in the lung (in the alveoli, to be specific)

39
Q

Which nerve is affected in Horner’s syndrome?

A

Preganglionic sympathetic

40
Q

“One-carbon transfers” = ____________.

A

methylation reactions

41
Q

“In-frame deletions” = ______________.

A

non-frameshift deletions

42
Q

Genetically differentiate Duchenne’s and Becker’s.

A

Duchenne’s is a frameshift (out-of-frame deletion) and Becker is a non-frameshift (in-frame) deletion.

43
Q

Because alpha-one-antitrypsin deficiency affects the liver, patients can also have __________.

A

coagulation disorders

44
Q

Describe the features of acute intermittent porphyria.

A

Genetic deficiency of porphobilinogen deaminase, an enzyme needed in the heme-synthesis pathway; as a result, heme synthesis products accumulate in the blood. When the enzyme ALA is overactive (such as occurs when people take inducers like phenobarbital or have a hypoglycemic event), the blood is flooded with heme synthesis products.

Symptoms: PPPP
Pain in the abdomen
Port-wine urine
Polyneuropathy
Psychiatric distress
45
Q

Which antiviral drug can cause hemolytic anemia?

A

Ribavirin

46
Q

Post-strep syndrome causes what type of kidney disorder?

A

Nephritic

47
Q

What is the best treatment for polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

Steroids

48
Q

Prednisone is a glucocorticoid _________.

A

agonist

49
Q

With positive-pressure ventilation, _______ will be reduced in zone 1.

A

blood flow (because the increased alveolar pressure presses on the arterioles)

50
Q

“Necrotizing vasculitis” = _____________.

A

microscopic polyangiitis

51
Q

Those with ASDs can have ______________.

A

embolizing strokes

52
Q

What is known to increase risk of DLBCL?

A

Immunosuppression

53
Q

What two risk factors are most associated with laryngeal carcinoma?

A

Smoking (the highest risk) and alcohol use

54
Q

What two labs are elevated in those with sarcoidosis?

A

ACE levels and calcium

55
Q

In areas of higher prevalence, PPV ________ and NPV ____________.

A

increases; decreases

56
Q

Describe the layout of diaphysis, metaphysis, and epiphysis.

A

Diaphysis is closest to the middle of the bone; epiphysis is closest to the end of the bone; and metaphysis is in between.

57
Q

Name the most common tumors of the diaphysis, metaphysis, and epiphysis.

A

Diaphysis: Ewing’s
Metaphysis: osteosarcoma
Epiphysis: giant cell

58
Q

Increasing the amount of 2,3-BPG __________ the oxygen curve.

A

right-shifts (decreasing it left-shifts)

59
Q

Sensitivity = _______________.

A

TP / (TP + FN)

60
Q

__________ accumulates as brown atrophy in cells as a result of wear and tear.

A

Lipofuscin

61
Q

Alkaline phosphatase is a marker of ___________.

A

bone formation

62
Q

Hepatitis can cause ______________ renal failure.

A

prerenal (because of dilated splanchic vein and subsequent increase in RAAS

63
Q

What will lymph node biopsy demonstrate in a patient with SLL/CLL?

A

Cells with very little cytoplasm and purple, round nuclei

USMLE Step 1: Part 1 COPY (243 decks)

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