agglutination methods Flashcards

1
Q

visible expression of the aggregation of antigens and antibodies

A

Precipitation and agglutination

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2
Q

aggregation of soluble test antigens

A

Precipitation

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3
Q

soluble antigen + soluble antibody =

A

visible insoluble complex

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4
Q

whereby specific antigens (e.g., red blood cells) aggregate to form larger visible clumps when the corresponding specific antibody is present in the serum

A

Agglutination

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5
Q

In Agglutination…

_______ may be needed to indicate visibly that an antigen-antibody reaction has taken place (latex particles and colloidal charcoal)

A

Artificial carrier particles

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6
Q

easy to perform; most sensitive tests currently available

A

Agglutination

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7
Q

first agglutination tests were developed

A

1960s

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8
Q

types of agglutination

A
  1. Latex Agglutination
  2. Flocculation Tests
  3. Direct Bacterial Agglutination
  4. Hemagglutination
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9
Q

(1)

bound to the surface of latex beads (C-reactive protein)
forming visible cross-linked aggregates of latex beads and antigen

A

Antibody molecules

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10
Q

(1)

  • coated the latex particles (pregnancy testing, rubella antibody testing)
  • agglutinate into large visible clumps
A

Antigen

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11
Q

Variations of latex agglutination

A

Coagglutination
Liposome-enhanced Testing

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12
Q

(1)

  • Uses antibodies bound to a particle to enhance the visibility of agglutination
  • Highly specific method
  • Not as sensitive as latex agglutination
A

Coagglutination

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13
Q

detect minute amounts of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

A

LATEX AGGLUTINATION: PREGNANCY TESTING

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14
Q

a glycoprotein hormone secreted by the trophoblast of the developing embryo

A

hCG

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15
Q

first 6 to 8 weeks after conception: helps maintain the ______ and stimulate the production of ______

A

corpus luteum ; progesterone

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16
Q

hCG two noncovalently linked subunits

A

a unit and B subunit

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17
Q

identical to luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

A

a-unit

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18
Q

many pregnancy test kits contain ________ directed against the ______ to increase the _______ of the reaction

A

monoclonal antibody (MAb) ; β subunit ; specificity

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19
Q

level of hCG should double every ___ to ___ days

A

2 to 3

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20
Q

incubation of the patient’s specimen with anti-hCG, then addition of latex particles coated with hCG

A

Agglutination Inhibition

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21
Q

agglutination inhibition reaction results

A

(+) rxn: no agglutination (neutralizes the antibody)
(-) rxn: agglutination

If hCG is present, it neutralizes the antibody; thus,
no agglutination of latex particles is seen. If no
hCG is present, agglutination occurs between the
anti-hCG and hCG-coated latex particles.

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22
Q

latex agglutination that is rapid, direct, uses monoclonal Antibodies

A

Pregnancy Latex Slide Agglutination

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23
Q

Pregnancy Latex Slide Agglutination reaction results

A

(+) rxn: agglutination within 2 mins
(-) rxn: no agglutination

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24
Q

In pregnancy latex agglutination..

agglutination should be read within _______ to avoid erroneous results caused by _______

A

3 minutes ; evaporation

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25
False-Positive Results (latex agglutination pregnancy testing)
- hCG injection (Pregnyl): can remain in the patient’s system for as long as 10 days - Chorioepithelioma - hydatidiform mole - excessive ingestion of aspirin - testicular tumor
26
False-Negative Results (latex agglutination pregnancy testing)
Testing before reaching detectable levels of hCG
27
(2) for antibody detection
FLOCCULATION TESTS
28
(2) soluble antigen + antibody =
formation of a precipitate of fine particles
29
used in syphilis serologic testing
FLOCCULATION TESTS
30
tests in the flocculation tests..
VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratories) Test RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin) Test
31
- antibody-like protein, reagin, binds to the test antigen, cardiolipin-lecithin–coated cholesterol particles, - produces the particles that flocculate
Venereal Disease Research Laboratories (VDRL) test
32
antigen, cardiolipin-lecithin–coated cholesterol with choline chloride, also contains charcoal particles that allow for macroscopically visible flocculation
Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) Test
33
Used to detect antibodies directed against the pathogens, test produced by the host to antigen determination on the surface of bacterial agent in response to infection within that bacterium.
Direct Bacterial Agglutination
34
(3) In a thick suspension of the bacteria, the binding of specific antibodies to surface antigens of the bacteria causes the bacteria to clump together in visible aggregates. This type of agglutination is called
Bacterial Agglutination
35
use of _______ enhances the aggregation of bacteria since most bacterial surfaces exhibit a _______ that causes them to repel each other
sterile physiologic saline ; negative charge
36
_______ is considered more sensitive than slide testing because it allows more time for the antigen-antibody reaction
tube testing
37
(4) detects antibodies to erythrocyte antigens
HEMAGGLUTINATION
38
HEMAGGLUTINATION specimen
contains Ab
39
- detect antibodies to antigens other than those present on the cells - used to cross-link antigens to the cells: chromic chloride, tannic acid, and glutaraldehyde
Indirect hemagglutination or passive hemagglutination (PHA)
40
______ is the clumping of particles that have antigens on their surface
Agglutination
41
Mechanisms of Agglutination
Sensitization Lattice Formation
42
- First phase - physical attachment of antibody molecules to antigens on the erythrocyte membrane - combination of antigen and antibody is a reversible chemical reaction - Elution: when physical conditions are purposely manipulated to break the antigen-antibody complex, with subsequent release of the antibody into the surrounding medium
Sensitization
43
In sensitization, combination of antigen and antibody is a _______
reversible chemical reaction
44
when physical conditions are purposely manipulated to break the antigen-antibody complex, with subsequent release of the antibody into the surrounding medium
Elution
45
Inert particles such as latex, RBCs, and bacteria have a NET NEGATIVE SURFACE CHARGE called the ________
zeta potential
46
a technique to reduce zeta potential that removes negatively charged sialic acid residues from cell surface membrane
Enzyme pretreatment of red blood cells
47
a technique to reduce zeta potential that increases electrical conductivity of environment
Addition of colloids (e.g., albumin)
48
a technique to reduce zeta potential which action is mechanical process to force red blood cells closer together.
Centrifugation
49
each antibody molecule must have at least 2 binding sites and that an antigen must be multivalent
Lattice hypothesis
50
Zone of equivalence=
detectable reaction
51
overcome by serially diluting the antibody-containing serum until optimum amounts of antigen and antibody are present in the test system
prozone phenomenon
52
small aggregates (clumps) are surrounded by excess antigen
postzone phenomenon
53
Repeat blood specimen should be collected _______ weeks later
1 or more
54
______ and _______ of antigenic determinants both affect agglutination
placement and number
55
If dissimilar antibodies with the same binding constant are directed against antigenic determinants located close to each other, antibodies will compete for space in reaching their specific receptor sites
Steric Hindrance
56
effect of antibody competition
antibody blocking
57
(4) pH of the medium used for testing:
optimum pH of 6.5 to 7.5
58
cold-reacting (thermal range, 4° C to 22° C)
IgM antibodies
59
warm-reacting, with an optimum temperature of reaction at 37° C
IgG antibodies
60
establishment of cross-links between sensitized particles RBCs) and antibodies, resulting in aggregation which is a slower process than the sensitization phase
Lattice Formation
61
Methods of enhancing agglutination
1. Centrifugation 2. Treatment with proteolytic enzymes 3. Use of colloids 4. AHG Testing
62
method of enhancing agglutination.. - physically forces the cells together - overcome the problem of distance by subjecting sensitized cells to a high gravitational force
Centrifugation
63
method of enhancing agglutination.. alters the zeta potential or dielectric constant
Treatment with proteolytic enzymes
64
method of enhancing agglutination.. antigens may be so deeply embedded in the membrane surface
AHG testing
65
Observation of agglutination: gently shaking the test tube containing the serum and cells and viewing the lower portion, the button
Graded Agglutination Reactions
66
Because agglutination is a reversible reaction, the test tube must be treated delicately, and _______
hard shaking
67
False appearance of clumping
Pseudoagglutination
68
Pseudoagglutination rarely occur because of _____
Rouleaux Formation
69
Rouleaux formation can be encountered in patients with .....
high or abnormal types of globulins in their blood (multiple myeloma or after receiving dextran as a plasma expander)
70
To disperse the pseudoagglutination, a few drops of ______ can be added to the reaction tube, remixed, and reexamined. (PS: performed after pseudoagglutination is suspected)
physiologic NaCl (saline)
71
grading agglutination reactions... D: no aggregates
Negative
72
grading agglutination reactions... D: A few isolated aggregates; mostly free-floating cells; supernatant appears red
Mixed field
73
grading agglutination reactions... D: Tiny aggregates barely visible macroscopically; many free erythrocytes; turbid and reddish supernatant.
Weak (±)
74
grading agglutination reactions... D: A few small aggregates just visible macroscopically; many free erythrocytes turbid and reddish supernatant
1+
75
grading agglutination reactions... D: Medium-sized aggregates; some free erythrocytes; clear supernatant.
2+
76
grading agglutination reactions... D: Several large aggregates; some free erythrocytes; clear supernatant.
3+
77
grading agglutination reactions... D: All erythrocytes are combined into one one solid aggregate; clear supernatant.
4+
78
In Microplate Agglutination Reactions, _____ and _____ allows for the performance of a large number of tests on a single plate
hemagglutination and solid-phase adherence assays
79
a compact plate of rigid or flexible plastic with multiple wells
microplate
80
- ______ well has been used most often in immunohematology - volume capacity of each well: ______
- U-shaped well - approx 0.2 mL
81
In microplate agglutination reactions.. Samples and reagents are dispensed with ________ pipettes
small-bore Pasteur pipettes
82
In microplate agglutination reactions.. After the specimens and reagents are added to the wells, they are mixed by _______ of the plates. The microplate is then _______ for an immediate ______
gentle agitation ; centrifuged ; reading
83
After centrifugation, the cell buttons are resuspended by _________ or by using a __________ which is a shaker provides a more consistent and standard resuspension of the cells.
gently tapping the microplate ; flat-topped mechanical shaker
84
Microplate Agglutination Reactions Results
(+) rxn: particles settle in a diffuse uneven button (-) rxn: smooth compact button
85
Reading agglutination.. Cells: No Agglutinates Supernate: Dark, Turbid, Homogenous
Grade: 0
86
Reading agglutination.. Cells: Many tiny agglutinates, Many free cells, May not be visible without microscope. Supernate: Dark, Turbid
Grade: w+
87
Reading agglutination.. Cells: Many small agglutinates, Many free cells Supernate: Turbid
Grade: 1+
88
Reading agglutination.. Cells: Many medium-sized agglutinates, Moderate number of free cells. Supernate: Clear
Grade: 2+
89
Reading agglutination.. Cells: Several large agglutinates, Few free cells Supernate: Clear
Grade: 3+
90
Reading agglutination.. Cells: One large, solid agglutinate and No free cells Supernate: Clear
Grade: 4+
91
In immunofixation electrophoresis.. ______________: exhibit faintly staining bands
Hypogammaglobulinemia
92
In immunofixation electrophoresis.. _________: show darkly staining bands in the gamma region
polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia
93
In immunofixation electrophoresis.. __________: dark and narrow bands in specific lanes
presence of monoclonal antibody
94
In direct bacterial agglutination.. __________: rapid screening test useful in diagnosing typhoid fever
Widal test
95
employs particles that are coated with antigens not normally found on their surfaces
Passive, or Indirect, agglutination
96
the particles used in Passive, or Indirect, agglutination
Erythrocytes, Latex and Gelatin
97
found that IgG was naturally adsorbed to the surface of polystyrene latex particles.
(1955) Singer and Plotz
98
In Passive, or Indirect, agglutination.. ______ is attached to the carrier particle
Antigen
99
have been used to detect rheumatoid factor, antibodies to Group A Streptococcus antigens, and antibodies to viruses such as rotavirus, cytomegalovirus, rubella, and varicella-zoster
Latex agglutination tests
100
- antibody is attached to a carrier particle - often used to detect microbial antigens
Reverse Passive Agglutination
101
based on competition between particulate and soluble antigens for limited antibody combining sites
Agglutination inhibition
102
(+) R in agglutination inhibition
no agglutination
103
agglutination inhibition, involves _____ complexed to proteins; the _________ is then attached to a carrier particle
haptens ; hapten–protein conjugate
104
use the same principle, except RBCs are the indicator particles
Hemagglutination inhibition
105
involves measuring the number of residual nonagglutinating particles in a specimen
particle-counting immunoassay (PACIA)
106
These particles are counted by means of a ______ in an optical particle counter similar to the one that is designed to count blood cells.
laser beam
107
Measurements are made by looking at the rate at which the number of unagglutinated particles decrease, called a ______ or the total number of unagglutinated particles left at the end, known as an ________
rate assay ; end-point assay
108
An _________ exists between the number of unagglutinated particles counted and the amount of unknown antigen in the patient specimen
inverse relationship
109
physical preservation of serum
refrigerate for 72 hours at 4 to 6 degree celsius
110
chemical preservation of serum
add 0.001g merthiolate powder per mL serum or 5% phenol or tricresol at 0.1 mL per mL serum
111
physical inactivation of serum to remove complement
heat serum at 56 degree celsius for 30 mins
112
physical inactivation of serum for VDRL
heat serum at. 60 to 62 degree celsius for 3 to 4 mins
113
chemical inactivation of serum
choline chloride
114
soluble ag/ small ag
Ag = antigen
115
measurement of precipitation by light scattering = at fluid
Turbidimetry Nephelometry
116
measure turbidimetry/cloudiness
turbidimetry with the use of spectrophotometer
117
measure light scattered in a particular angle
nephelometry with the use of nephelometer
118
- no current used - uses agar/agarose because no negative charge
precipitation by passive immunodiffusion at solid/semi-solid medium
119
precipitation by passive immunodiffusion at solid/semi-solid medium advantage
cheap, simple
120
precipitation by passive immunodiffusion at solid/semi-solid medium disadvantage
longer turn around time (TAT)
121
- single diffusion, single dimension - the antibody you incorporated into agarose at test tubes - semi-quantitative - end: presence of precipitin line - thicker line = increased concentration
Ouidin Test
122
- Single Diffusion, Double Dimension - Uses plate with antibody - Quantitative: diameter is directly proportional to concentration - (+) R = precipitin ring
Radial Immunodiffusion (RID)
123
2 methods in RID
Fahey and McKelvey Method (Kinetic Diffusion) Mancini Method (Endpoint Diffusion)
124
- Measure diameter before the completion of the reaction. - Diameter is proportional to log of concentration.
Fahey and McKelvey Method (Kinetic Diffusion)
125
- measures diameter after the completion of the reaction - square of diameter is proportional to concentration - IgG: 24 hours - IgM: 50 to 72 hours
Mancini Method (endpoint diffusion)
126
- Qualitative ; 1st generation test for HBsAg - both Ag and Ab is moving
Ouchterlony Technique (Double diffusion, Double dimension)
127
Ouchterlony Technique (Double diffusion, Double dimension) pattern
Identity = smooth curve Partial Identity = spur formation Non-identity = cross/intersect
128
____ separates molecules using electric current
Electrophoresis
129
Precipitation by Electrophoretic Techniques
1. Rocket Electrophoresis (Laurell Technique) 2. Immunoelectrophoresis (IEP) 3. Immunofixation Electrophoresis 4. Counter Immunoelectrophoresis
130
- one dimension electroimmunodiffusion - RID + electrophoresis - total distance of antigen migration and precipitate directly proportional to antigen concentration. - (+)R: resembles rocket - increased peak = increased concentration
Rocket Electrophoresis (Laurell Technique)
131
Rocket Electrophoresis (Laurell Technique) advantage and disadvantage
adv: decreased TAT dadv: expensive, complex
132
- described by Grabar and Williams - useful for ID of monoclonal protein (Bence Jones) - double diffusion + electrophoresis
Immunoelectrophoresis (IEP)
133
1st diffusion: separate component trough + antisera 2nd diffusion: towards the trough
Immunoelectrophoresis (IEP)..
134
Immunoelectrophoresis (IEP) disadvantage
interpretation of the test result is complex
135
Immunoelectrophoresis (IEP) (+)R
ppt toward the trough
136
canal-like structure
trough
137
- replaced IEP - to identify and characterize serum and urine CHON - antisera is directly added to the medium - described by Alper and Johnson - ex. western blot
Immunofixation electrophoresis
138
ag and ab = placed on the well directly opposite to each other.
Counter electrophoresis
139
antibody is towards the ___ antigen is towards the ___
cathode ; anode