HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTIONS Flashcards

(108 cards)

1
Q
  • normal but exaggerated or uncontrolled immune response to an antigen
  • Can produce inflammation, cell destruction, or tissue injury
A

Hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

1967: _____ was discovered which can be specific for hundreds of different allergens

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

any altered reaction to external substances

A

Allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

refers to immediate hypersensitivity mediated by IgE antibodies

A

Atopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Ag that trigger allergic reactions

A

Allergens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

HYPERSENSITIVITY OF REACTION..

Reaction: Anaphylactic
Antibody: IgE
Complement Involved: No
Cells involved: Mast cells, basophils, granules
Cytokines involved: Yes
Comparative description: Antibody mediated, immediate
Mechanism of tissue injury: Allergic and anaphylactic reactions
Examples: Anaphylaxis, Hay Fever, Asthma, Food Allergy

A

Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Reaction: Cytoxic
Antibody: IgG, possibly other immunoglobulins
Complement Involved: Yes
Cells involved: Effector cells (macrophages, polymorphonuclear leukocytes)
Cytokines involved: No
Comparative description: Antibody dependent: complement or cell mediated
Mechanism of tissue injury: Target cell lysis; cell-mediated cytotoxicity
Examples: Transfusion reactions, Hemolytic disease of newborn, Thrombocytopenia

A

Type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Reaction: Immune complex
Antibody: Antigen-antibody complexes (IgG, IgM)
Complement Involved: Yes
Cells involved: Macrophages, Mast Cells
Cytokines involved: Yes
Comparative description: Immune complex mediated (immune complex disease)
Mechanism of tissue injury: Immune complex deposition, inflammation
Examples: Arthus reaction, Serum sickness, Systemic lupus erythematosus

A

Type III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Reaction: T cell-dependent
Antibody: None
Complement Involved: No
Cells involved: Antigen-specific T cells
Cytokines involved: Yes (T cell cytokines)
Comparative description: T cell-mediated, delayed type
Mechanism of tissue injury: Inflammation, cellular infiltration
Examples: Allergy or infection, Contact dermatitis

A

Type IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

TYPE 1 REACTIONS…

life threatening ________

A

anaphylactic reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

TYPE 1 REACTIONS…

allergies

A

food allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

TYPE 1 REACTIONS…

Demonstrates a ___________ tendency

A

strong familial or genetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

TYPE 1 REACTIONS…

acute allergic reactions caused by molecules released by mast cells/basophils when an allergen interacts with membrane-bound IgE

A

Immediate hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Acute allergic reactions result from the release of _______, _______, _______, and _______ when an allergen interacts with IgE that is bound to mast cells or basophils

A

preformed granule-associated mediators, membrane-derived lipids, cytokines, and chemokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

granules contain a complex of heparin, histamine, and zinc ions

A

mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Histamine, leukotriene C4, IL-4, and IL-13 major mediators of allergy and asthma which are all formed by ____ which are release quantities after stimulation with _______

A

Basophils ; IL-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

IL-3 strongly induces messenger ribonucleic acid (mRNA) for _______, a major effector of granule-mediated cytotoxicity.

A

granzyme B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

clinical response to immunologic formation and fixation between a specific antigen and a tissue-fixing antibody.

A

Anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

anaphylaxis is mediated _____ antibody

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

clinically similar to anaphylaxis and can result from immunologically inert materials that activate serum and tissue proteases and the alternate pathway of the complement system.

A

Anaphylactoid reactions (anaphylaxis like):

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Anaphylactoid reactions are not mediated by __________; instead, offending substances act directly on the _______

A

antigen-antibody interaction ; mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

exposure (skin, nose, or airway) to an allergen produces allergen-specific IgG antibodies

A

Atopic Reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

hallmark of allergic disease (Atopic Reaction)

A

infiltration of affected tissue by Th2 cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Type I Reactions: Signs & Symptoms

A

Localized Reaction
Generalized Reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
occurs as an immediate response to mediators released from mast cell degranulation
Localized Reaction
26
Local reactions can consist of _____ and ______ at the site of antigen exposure or angioedema of the bowel after ingestion of certain foods.
urticaria and angioedema
27
Skin reactions are characterized be the appearance of ____ and ____ at the site of the introduction of the allergen. This phenomenon is the _____ of the skin test to diagnose an allergy or confirm sensitivity to a specific antigen.
redness and itching; basic principle
28
produced by mediators (cytokines and vasoactive amines (e.g., histamine)) from mast cells
Generalized Reaction
29
Anaphylactic reactions in generalized reaction are ____ in onset (also dramatic)
rapid
30
______ release leads to constriction of bronchial smooth muscle, edema of the trachea and larynx, and stimulation of smooth muscle in the GI tract (causes vomiting and diarrhea).
Histamine
31
In generalized reaction, the resulting breakdown of cutaneous vascular integrity results in ________ and ______; _____ causes a reduction of circulating blood volume and a progressive fall in blood pressure, leading to shock.
urticaria and angioedema ; vasodilation
32
Progression of allergic disease experienced by atopic children
Allergy March
33
In allergy march the formation of IgE antibodies begins _____
early in life
34
TYPE 1 REACTIONS TESTING
SKIN TESTING PATCH TEST IMMUNOCAP
35
- performed by a skin puncture test (SPT) - assist in the identification of foods that may provoke IgE-mediated, food-induced allergic reactions or a patch test. - cannot be considered diagnostic of FA
Skin Testing
36
in skin testing, placing a drop of a solution containing a possible allergen on the skin. Then a series of ______ or _____ allows the solution to enter the skin.
scratches or needle pricks
37
positive reaction in skin testing
red, raised and itchy area on the skin
38
used for the evaluation of contact food allergiesv
patch test
39
patch test is used to detect ________
contact dermatitis
40
In patch test, taping a patch that has been soaked in the allergen solution to the skin for _______
24 to 72 hours.
41
in vitro quantitative measurement of IgE in human serum
ImmunoCAP
42
considered to be the gold standard for the analysis of allergen- specific IgE.
ImmunoCAP
43
Antibody-Dependent, Complement-Mediated Cytotoxic Reactions
Type II Reactions
44
- interaction of IgG or IgM antibody with cell-bound antigen - result in the activation of complement and destruction of the cell (cytolysis) to which the antigen is bound
Type II Reactions: Antibody-Dependent, Complement-Mediated Cytotoxic Reactions
45
refers to the adverse consequences of incompatibility between patient and donor erythrocytes.
Transfusion Reactions
46
most common cause of immediate hemolytic reactions
transfusion of ABO group–incompatible blood
47
most serious and potentially lethal transfusion reactions
Immediate Hemolytic Reactions
48
In Immediate Hemolytic Reactions, reactions can occur with the infusion of as little as ________ of incompatible blood
10 to 15 mL
49
Immediate Hemolytic Reactions, occur during _____ or immediately after blood has been ____
infusion ; infused
50
Immediate Hemolytic Reactions demonstrate _____ and ____ hemolysis
extravascular and intravascular hemolysis
51
delayed hemolytic reaction manifests ____ days after transfusion
7 to 10 days
52
delayed hemolytic reaction occurs in the _____ spaces
extravascular spaces
53
In delayed hemolytic reaction, ________; does not activate complement or activates it very slowly, ______ occurs
IgG antibody–coated erythrocytes ; extravascular hemolysis
54
from excessive destruction of fetal RBCs by maternal antibodies
Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn
55
Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn is characterized by ____ and _____
anemia and jaundice
56
In HDFN, most frequent form of ABO incompatibility occurs when the mother is type ____ and the baby is type __ or type __, usually type ____
O ; A or B ; A.
57
directed against self antigens on RBCs
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia
58
Cold autoagglutinins (IgM) react best at room temperature or lower.
Cold Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia.
59
warm autoagglutinins (IgG) represent most cases of autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Warm Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia
60
In Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia, source of antigen exposure may be _____, antibodies can be formed to _____ or _____
unknown ; microorganisms or drugs
61
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia reacts best at ____ temperature
37 degree celsius
62
Autoantibodies can attack and damage components of solid tissues, as in _________.
Goodpasture’s syndrome
63
In Goodpasture's syndrome, ___ autoantibodies bind a glycoprotein in the ______ of the kidney’s glomeruli and the lungs
IgG ; basement membrane
64
___________ activates complement that can trigger an inflammatory response.
Anti–basement membrane antibody
65
Type II Hypersensitivity and Antibodies That Affect Cell Function
- antibodies bind to cells and affect their function - stimulate the target organ function without causing organ damage. - Wegener’s granulomatosis: stimulation of cells by autoantibody leads to tissue damage
66
stimulation of cells by autoantibody leads to tissue damagev
Wegener’s granulomatosis
67
performed to detect transfusion reactions, HDFN, and autoimmune hemolytic anemia
direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
68
In DAT, If there is an __________ caused by IgM, only the C3d assay would be positive.
autoimmune hemolytic anemia
69
used to determine the presence of an unexpected antibody
indirect AHG assay
70
Goodpasture’s syndrome can be diagnosed by finding antibodies to glomerular basement membrane in patient serum on _______ or ______ examination of a _____ biopsy
indirect immunofluorescence or direct fluorescent ; renal tissue
71
caused by the deposition of immune complexes in blood vessel walls and tissues (repeated exposure)
Type III Reactions
72
Repeated antigen exposure leads to _______ with the production of an ____________.
sensitization ; insoluble antigen-antibody complex
73
As these complexes (insoluble antigen-antibody complex) are deposited in tissues, the complement system is _____, macrophages and leukocytes are _____, and _________ occurs.
activated ; attracted ; immune-mediated damage
74
skin conditions in type III reactions
allergic vasculitis; erythema nodosum
75
Pulmonary reactions
Farmer's Lung Bathtub Refinisher's Lung Epoxy Resin Lung Plastic Worker's Lung
76
hypersensitivity pneumonitis which is a reaction to thermophilic actinomycetes found in moldy hay
farmer’s lung
77
Toluene diisocyanate cause ________
bathtub refinisher’s lung
78
phthalic anhydride causes ________
epoxy resin lung
79
trimetallic anhydride causes _________
plastic worker’s lung
80
local immune complex diseases in type III reactions
Farmer’s lung, Arthus reaction
81
circulating immune complex disease in type III reactions ______
Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis; SLE
82
other reactions that may occur in type III reactios
Serum Sickness
83
Immune complexes (in type III reactions) usually cleared by mechanisms involving _____
complement
84
Type III reactions are caused by ____, ____ and possibly other antibody types.
IgG, IgM
85
_________ develops within 1 to 2 weeks after initial exposure or repeated exposure by injection of heterologous serum protein
Acute serum sickness
86
hallmark of serum sickness
protracted interaction between antigen and antibody in the circulation, with the formation of antigen-antibody complexes in an environment of antigen excess.
87
autoimmune disorder characterized by autoantibodies that form immune complexes with autoantigens
SLE
88
SLE is deposited in the _________
renal glomeruli
89
In SLE, _____ (inflammation of capillary vessels in the glomeruli) develops.
glomerulonephritis
90
inflammation of capillary vessels in the glomeruli
glomerulonephritis
91
Type III Reactions: Testing ______ of tissue biopsy specimens can be used to observe the deposition of immune complexes in tissues
Fluorescent staining
92
quantitation of complement (____ and ____ components) is also a Type III Reactions Testing
C3 and C4
93
moderated by the link between T lymphocytes and phagocytic cells
Type IV Cell-Mediated Reactions
94
involves antigen-sensitized T cells or particles that remain phagocytized in a macrophage and are encountered by previously activated T cells for a second or subsequent time
Delayed-type hypersensitivity
95
in Delayed-type hypersensitivity... T cells respond _____, or by the release of______, to exhibit _______ and ________
directly ; lymphokine ; contact dermatitis and allergies of infection
96
in Delayed-type hypersensitivity... immunologic mechanisms ________
contact sensitivity
97
in Delayed-type hypersensitivity... Rejection of ________
foreign tissue grafts
98
in Delayed-type hypersensitivity... elimination of tumor cells bearing _______
neoantigens
99
____ can be a physiologic reaction to pathogens that are difficult to clear, such as _____ and _____. This triggers the most extreme _____
DTH ; hepatitis B virus and Mycobacterium tuberculosis ; DTH reactions
100
DTH reactions also take place against _______. In insulin-dependent (type 1) diabetes, T cells respond to ________, damaging the islets and eventually preventing insulin secretion.
autoantigens ; pancreatic islet cell antigens
101
________ is secreted by macrophages and T cells and stimulates much of the damage in DTH reactions.
Tumor necrosis factor-α (TNF-α)
102
The hallmark of occupational type IV hypersensitivity is _____ caused by _____
allergic contact dermatitis ; metals
103
Latex contains low-molecular-weight soluble proteins that cause IgE-mediated allergic reactions
Latex Sensitivity
104
- Latex allergy can give rise to a broad range of symptoms. Glove wearers may experience _____ or _____, contact dermatitis that ranges from nonspecific pruritus to _____, _____, _____. - These symptoms and the irritant contact dermatitis are caused by the _______ and _______ used in glove manufacturing, not by the latex itself.
- type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity ; nonspecific pruritus ; eczematous, red, weepy skin. - accelerators and chemicals
105
skin test for testing of exposure to tuberculosis (TB) is a classic example of a _________
delayed hypersensitivity reaction
106
Testing for Delayed Hypersensitivity.. small amount of antigen is injected under the skin (intradermally) with a fine-needle syringe. Site is observed at ____ and. _____ hours for the presence of _____ (lesion ≥10 mm in diameter)
48 and 72 ; induration
107
The test is based on the principle that soluble antigens from M. tuberculosis induce a reaction in individuals who have acquired or been exposed to the tuberculosis microorganism or a related organism at some time but It does not mean that _____
the person has tuberculosis.
108
In cases of persistent dermatitis, a ______ may be performed. An _____ containing the suspected allergen is applied to the skin. The skin is checked for redness with ____ or _____, indicating a positive test result, over _____.
patch test ; adhesive patch ; papules or tiny blisters ; 48 hours