GI Flashcards
(358 cards)
1
Q
Which cells of the GIT release secretin?
A
S cells
1
Q
What is a normal ratio of villus height to crypt depth?
A
4:1
1
Q
What degree of amplification is achieved in the small intestine by the microvilli?
A
600
1
Q
What effect does caesarian section have on microbiota?
A
Restricts microbiota diversity
1
Q
What caues pancreatic release of alpha amylase?
A
Cholecystokinin
1
Q
Where is the final stage of peptide digestion?
A
At the brush border and in the enterocyte
1
Q
Which germ layer does the wall of the gut come from?
A
Mesoderm
1
Q
What do the names of proton pump imhibitors end with?
A
-prazole
1
Q
Which drugs were used to treat peptic ulcers before PPIs were invented?
A
H2 antagonists
1
Q
What is magnesium hydroxide used to treat?
A
Antacid treatment
1
Q
Where is the vomit centre?
A
dorsolateral reticular formation in floor of 4th ventricle in medulla oblongata
1
Q
Which receptors should be targetted for treatment of nausea associated with motion sickness?
A
Muscarinic and H1
1
Q
What do we call the macrophages on the inner walls of hepatic sinusoids?
A
Kupfer cells
1
Q
Some people who are overfed will not put on weight…why not?
A
They increase NEAT non-exercise activity thermogenesis eg fidgeting
1
Q
How is acute viral hepatitis differentiated from chronic hepatitis?
A
Acute infection shows elevated IgM
Chronic infection shows to IgG
1
Q
What percentage of regular IVDUs are HCV positive?
A
50-60%
1
Q
What are the most common viral causes of chronic hepatitis?
A
HBV and HBC
1
Q
How is chronic hepaptitis staged?
A
Degree of fibrosis
1
Q
What is the most common type of steatosis?
A
Macrovesicular
2
Q
How does the vagus nerve directly stimulate acid release in the stomach?
A
Vagal preganglionic cell ACh –> AChNR on post ganglionic –> releases ACh –> AChMR on Parietal cells –> HCl
3
Q
What percentage of diarrhoea is due to bacteria in developed countries?
A
18%
3
Q
Where does human papiloma virus like to infect?
A
Basal keratinocytes of transformational zone of cervix
3
Q
<!--StartFragment-->
What is the hallmark pathological feature of acute and chronic viral hepatitis?<!--EndFragment-->
A
Apoptosis
4
Q
What must be produced to cause haemolytic-uremic syndrome?
A
Shiga toxin aka verotoxin
4
Which intestinal lumenal transporter is inactivated during diarrhoea?
Na/Cl co-transporter
4
What type of muscle is in the esophageal wall?
Skeletal muscle proximally and smooth muscle distally
4
In which parts of the GIT are stem cells present?
All parts
4
What do Brunner's glands in the GIT do?
Secrete an alkaline mucous (mucous and bicarbonate) to neutralise acid from stomach
4
What do G cells of the GIT release?
Gastrin
4
What do we call delayed gastric emptying?
Gastrophoresis
4
What is the definition of chronic gastritis?
Stomach inflammation sustained for \> 3 months
4
What is the role of M cells in the GIT?
Located over lymphoid aggregates and let antigens and microbes into gut for access to adaptive immune system
4
What happens to dietary fibre?
Metabolised by bacteria in proximal colon to produce short chain fatty acids, which are then absorbed in distal small bowel and proximal colon
4
What percentage of live births have a birth defect?
3%
4
In the portal lobule model of the liver, what is at the centre?
Portal triad
4
Which hepatitis viruses have a vaccine?
A, B and D
4
How is HAV excreted?
In faeces
4
What colour is bilirubin?
Yellow
4
How is bilirubin trasnported in the blood?
Bound to albumin
5
Which bacteria uses Tir to gain entry to the host cell?
Enteropathogenic E. coli
6
What is the leading cause of liver transplant?
HCV
7
Infrequent or normal frequency, but much more watery with larger volumes would suggest what type of diarrhoea?
Diarrhoea of small intestine
7
Which state of Australia has the highest rates of hepatitis A?
Norther Territory
7
What is choledocholithiasis?
blockage of the bile duct
## Footnote
9
Where do hepatic sinusoids drain?
Central vein
10
What do parietal cells of the stomach produce?
HCl and intrinsic factor
11
What % of people with long-standing GORD develop Barrett's oesophagus?
5-8%
12
How is hepatitis E virus transmitted?
Faecal-oral
13
How can antibiotics cause diarrhoea?
Broad spectrum antibiotics can alter gut microbiota and cause overgrowth of Clostridium difficile
13
Which cells secrete HCl in the stomach?
Parietal cells
13
A new drug is on the market, it is called braprazole. What type of drug is it likely to be?
Proton pump inhibitor
14
What is an omphalocele?
Failure of hernaited gut to retract into coelom before it closes over
14
Name two D2 antagonists used to treat nausea
Metoclopramide (maxolon)
Prochlorperazine (stemetil)
15
What is kernicterus?
Bilirubin-induced brain dysfunction
15
What is a councilman body?
Apoptotic hepatocyte
16
How is acute hepatitis defined in terms of blood tests?
Raised ALT \< 6 months
17
What gives urine its yellow colour?
Urobilin
18
Which two toxins does enterotoxic E. coli use?
Heat labile toxin (LT) and head sensitive toxin (ST)
19
What will the sight, smell and taste of food trigger?
Salivation, gastric acid secretion, pepsin secretion and relaxation of gastric corpus and fundus
20
What do we call a finger-like extension of the mucosa of the GIT?
Villus
20
What defines Marsh type 2 coeliac disease?
Crypts enlarge
20
What drug is a systemic antacid?
Sodium bicarbonate
21
What does the submucosa contain?
Dense, irregular connective tissue with nerves, small ganglia and blood vessels
21
How much can the stomach increase in size when full of food?
300-400%
21
What catalyses biliverdin --\> bilirubin?
Biliverdin reductase
22
Which genes are implicated in coeliac disease?
HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8
23
What is the degree of leptin synthesis proportional to?
Size of fat storage
24
Which zone of the acinar model is most vulnerbale to paracetemol toxicity?
Zone 3
24
What is the main form of cell death in chronic hepatitis?
Apoptosis
25
In regulation of eating, the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus projects to which other hypothalamic areas?
Paraventricular nuc.
Lateral hypothalamus
27
What is the main immediate treatment goal in diarrhoea and how is this achieved?
Replace fluids and electrolytes with oral rehydration
27
What type of epithelium is in the esophagus?
Stratified squamous, non-keratinizing
27
How does alpha amylase work?
Breaks alpha 1,4 linkages between glucose molecules
27
What happens to fatty acids and monoglycerides inside enterocytes?
They are formed into triglycerides in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum, then packaged into chylomicrons and secreted into lymphatics
27
What liver pathology is seen in alcoholic hepatitis?
Mallory bodies and hepatocyte swelling
27
How much does 1 standard rink raise BAC by?
0.015%
28
How is glucose absorbed by enterocytes?
SGLT1 Sodium-dependent glucose trasnporter 1
29
What is the lifespan of a hepatocyte?
150 days
30
What defines Marsh type 1 coeliac disease?
Increased lymphocyte:enterocyte ratio (\>30/100)
31
What is the normal ratio of T cells to enterocytes in the duodenum?
1:4
31
Which part of polypeptides do trypsin, elastase and chymotrypsins act on?
Interior bonds of peptides
32
Whih hepatitis viruses are most easily transmitted through contaminated food?
A and E
33
Where is alcohol absorbed?
30% in stomach
70% in gut
34
What stimulates G cells to release gastrin?
Amino acids
35
Which cells make bile?
Hepatocytes
36
Where does the last part of carbohydrate digestion occur?
Disaccharidases and isomaltases at the brush border of mucosal enterocytes
36
In the classic lobule model of the liver, what is at the centre?
Central vein
37
What hormone do enterochromaffin cells release?
Serotonin
37
Which enzyme conjugates bilirubin?
Glucuronyl transferase
39
What does low hemopexin indicate?
Haemolytic anaemia
40
What percentage of the liver's blood supply is from the portal vein?
75%
42
Where are Peyer's patches found?
Ileum
43
What does the allantois give rise to?
BLadder and urogenital tract
45
What is the main function of the muscularis mucosae layer of the GIT wall?
Mixing lumenal contents
45
How is fructose absorbed by enterocytes?
GLUT5
46
What would happen to a person without leptin receptors?
They would eat more and become obese
47
What is the average incubation period for HEV?
40 days
48
What percentage of the liver's oxygen supply is from the portal vein?
50%
50
What type of epithelium is present in the gall bladder?
Simple columnar
52
What do chief cells of the stomach produce?
Proteases eg pepsinogen
54
Broad spectrum antibiotics can cause overgrowth of what in the gut?
Clostridium difficile
56
What does sessile mean?
A polyp that is not attached via a stalk
57
Where does fat digestion begin?
In the mouth with a lingual lipase
58
What is intrinsic factor essential for?
Absorption of VitB12
59
Where are monosaccharides absorbed?
Tips of villi in duodenum and jejunum
59
What does a rising IgG titre indicate in a viral hepatitis?
Acute infection
61
What % of gastric ulcers are due to Helicobacter pylori?
70%
62
What percentage of energy is expended on basal metabolism?
65-75%
63
What is fatty liver known as?
Steatosis
64
What are the side effects of magnesium hydroxide?
Diarrhoea
65
In dysentery caused by entamoeba histolytica, what will be noted in a stool sample sent for lab investigation?
Fewer bacteria, because ameoba eat bacteria
67
In which layer of the GIT are scattered immune cells found?
Lamina propria
68
What is growth hormone release inhibitor better known as?
Ghrelin
70
Define cirrhosis
Diffuse nodules of regenerating hepatocytes surrounded by bands of fibrosis
71
What pathology is seen in acute viral hepatitis?
Lobular dissaray and apoptosis
72
What is the average incubation period for HBV?
60-90 days
73
What divides the functional/physiological right from left lobes of the liver?
Middle hepatic vein
74
Which cells synthesise leptin?
Adipocytes
75
Where are colonic lymphatics?
In the submucosa
76
Does fat boy or skinny boy have a higher basal metabolic rate?
Fat boy
77
What is stage 4 chronic hepaptitis known as?
Cirrhosis
78
What are the 3 levels of anatomical structure that increase surface area in the small intestine?
Plica circulare, villi, microvilli
79
In what part of the stomach is pepsinogen II secreted?
Cose to pylorus
79
How is hepatitis C virus transmitted?
Percutaneous or permucosal
80
What is the problem in Crigler-Najjar syndrome?
Deficiency of UDP-glucuronyl transferase causes accumulation of toxic unconjugated bilirubin and kernicterus
81
What does low haptoglobin indicate?
Haemolytic anaemia
82
By what stage of the GIT is digestion pretty much complete?
Half way along jejunum
83
Which zone of the acinar model is most vulnerable to ischaemia?
Zone 3
84
What is the most significant pathway for alcohol conversion to acetaldehyde?
Alcohol dehydrogenase
85
What is the gold standard for diagnosis of coeliac disease?
Small bowel biopsy during gluten exposure
87
When does colon cancer become invasive?
When it breaches muscularis mucosae
90
What does pepsinogen do?
Hydrolyses bonds between an aromatic amino acid (phenylalanine and tyrosine) and another amino acid
91
What percentage of diarrhoea is due to viruses in developed countries?
40%
92
How many mls of water are excreted per day in the faeces?
100ml
93
What do I cells of the GIT release?
Cholecystokinin
94
What catalyses haem --\> biliverdin?
Haem oxygenase
95
What does pedunculated mean?
A polyp attached by a stalk
96
What do enterochromaffin cell-like cells release?
Histamine
98
What are the pacemaker cells of rhythmic gut movement?
Interstitial cells of Cajal
100
What defines Marsh type 3 coeliac disease?
Villi are shortened and blunted: villous:crypt ratio is
102
What is/are the key histological feature/s of the duodenum?
Brunner's glands, fewer goblet cells
104
What effects does distension of the stomach have?
Activates stretch receptors --\> vago-vagal reflexes --\> acid and pepsin secretion Stretch --\> hypothalamus --\> decrease appetite
106
How does diarrhoea cause death in the delayed phase?
Malnutrition
107
How big is a hepatic sinusoid?
0.7 x 2 mm
108
What shape are enterocytes?
Columnar
109
Which receptors should be targetted for treatment of nausea associated with exposure to toxins?
D2 and 5-HT3
110
What is the most common familial colorectal cancer syndrome?
Lynch syndrome
112
What type of nausea would a D2 antagonist be used to treat?
Chemical/toxin/drug associated
113
Which bacteria typically causes travelle's diarrhoea?
Enterotoxic E. coli (ETEC)
115
At what time point does hepatitis become chronic?
\> 6 months
116
What are the important receptors for motion sickness/dizziness/vertigo associated nausea?
Muscarinic and H1
117
Where do HBV and HCV replicate?
Hepatocytes
118
In what form does hyperbilirubinaemia in the newborn cause neurotoxicity?
Kernicterus
119
What type of drug is ranitidine?
H2 antagonist
120
In a hepatic sinusoid, what is the gap between endothelium and hepatocytes?
Space of Disse
121
What is the quality of diarrhoea of small intestine?
Infrequent or normal frequency, but much more watery with larger volumes
122
What's a good antibiotic for anaerobic organisms?
Metronidazole
124
Which nerve mediates peristalsis along the esophagus?
Vagus
126
Which parts of the GIT have serosa as their outer layer?
Parts of the gat not attached to anything --\> secretes fluid to stop them sticking
128
How much water does the small intestine absorb per day?
8.5 L/day
130
In haemolysis, what is the intermediate product betwen haem and bilirubin?
Biliverdin
132
How is a bile duct discriminated from a portal vein and hepatic artery on microscopy?
Bile duct has columnar epithelium
133
Which GIT cells secrete intrinsic factor?
Parietal cells
135
Where is vitamin B12 absorbed?
Terminal ileum
136
What degree of amplification is achieved in the small intestine by the villi?
30x
138
What % of gastric ulcers are due to NSAIDs?
25%
138
What are the important receptors for the chemoreceptor trigger zone?
D2 and 5-HT3
139
How is hepatitis D virus transmitted?
Percutaneous or permucosal
140
Frequent stools of low volume would suggest what type of diarrhoea?
Diarrhoea of colon
141
Which hepatitis is most easily transmitted perinatally?
HBV
143
What is a rare but potential side effect of H2 antagonists?
Gynecomastia
144
What colour of soft drink/lolly will be be sweeter, even with the same amount of sugar?
Red
146
How is entamoeba histolytica transmitted?
Faecal-oral spread
148
What causes damage to hepatocytes in viral hepatitis?
The immune response
149
What is achalasia?
Failure of smooth muscle of lower esophageal sphincter to relax causing dysphagia
150
What percentage of oxygenation does blood in the hepatic sinusoids contain?
20%
151
What is a prebiotic?
A dietary supplement that promotes beneficial bacteria
153
Between which layers of the GIT wall are the myenteric ganglia?
Between circular layer and longitudinal layer of muscularis externa
154
Where do hepatitis viruses A and E replicate?
In hepatocytes and in intestinal epithelia
156
What causes the secretion of pancreatic lipolytic enzymes?
Cholecystokinin
158
??? --\> ROH + H2O + NADP+
RH + NADPH + H+ + O2 --\>
161
What is the prevalence of coeliac disease?
1%
162
Which enzyme breaks down alpha 1,6 bonds in polysaccharides?
Isomaltase
163
How is giardia intestinalis transmitted?
Faecal-oral
164
Which cells in the GIT release somatostatin?
D cells
165
Which glands in the GIT secrete an alkaline mucous (mucous and bicarbonate) to neutralise acid from stomach?
Brunner's glands
168
What forms does conjugated bilirubin take?
Bilirubin mono-glucuronide and
bilirubin di-glucuronide
170
Familial adenomatous polyposis is due to a mutation in which gene?
APC
171
What does secretin trigger?
Secretion of bicarbonate rich solution from pancreas
172
What is colitis?
Inflammation of the bowel
173
What liver pathology does paracetemol toxicity cause?
Coagulative necrosis predominantly in zone 3
174
Which GI cells release gastrin?
G cells
175
Which cells proteases in the stomach?
Chief cells
176
What are 2 commonly used H1 antagonists for motion sickness?
Promethazine
Pheniramine
177
Which nerve mediates the cephalic phase of digestion?
Vagus
178
What is the antonym of mesenchymal?
Epithelial
179
What are the layers of the GIT?
1 Epithelium 2 Lamina propria 3 Muscularis mucosae 4 Submucosa 5 Muscularis externa - innter circular layer 6 Muscularis externa - longitudinal layer 7 Serosa/adventitia
180
What does the mesobephric duct become?
The vas deferens
181
How much water can the colon absorb in a day?
4-5 L/day
182
How is hepatitis A virus transmitted?
Faecal-oral route
183
What % of pancreas is endocrine?
1-2%
184
What do S cells of the GIT release?
Secretin
185
What % of people infected with HCV will clear the virus?
30%
186
What is/are the key histological feature/s of the ileum?
Peyer's patches, more goblet cells, shorter villi
188
What type of epithelium is present in the anal canal?
Stratified squamous, non-keratinised
190
How is chronic hepatitis graded?
Degree of interface inflammation
191
Which cells of the GIT release defensins?
Paneth cells
192
How does enteropathogenic E. coli infect enterocytes?
It inserts Tir (translocated intimin receptor) into host cell via type 3 secretion. Tir is then expressed on host cell membrane. EPEC is then able to bind to Tir via intimin.
193
What will most labs do to investigate a faeces sample from a GI infection?
Microscopy and culture
194
What is the most effective treatment for recurrent C. difficile pseudomembranous colitis?
Faecal transplant
195
What do Harris-Benedict equations estimate?
Energy expenditure
196
What is/are the key histological difference/s between small intestine and large intestine?
Small intestine has villi; large intestine does not. Large intestine has more goblet cells
197
How does diarrhoea cause death in the acute phase?
Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
198
Through what does bile flow in liver lobules?
Through canaliculi to bile ducts
200
What are the most common classes of cause of unintentional weight loss?
Malignancy
GI disease
Endocrinological
Anorexia nervosa
Infection
202
How are most infections from toxoplasma gondii acquired?
Undercooked meat
204
What gives faeces its brown colour?
Stercobilin
206
What inactivates pepsin?
Neutral pH
208
Name 2 proton pump inhibitors
Omeprazole and esomeprazole
209
What is a probiotic?
A live organism that promotes health when ingested in sufficient quantities
210
Oral rehydration mixtures typically contain what?
NaCl, KCl, NaHCO3, glucose
212
What colour is urobilinogen?
Clear
213
What is the chief function of the muscularis externa in the GIT wall?
Movement of contents along gut
214
What % of the world is HCV positive?
3%
216
What is ERCP?
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
217
How much alcohol is in a standard drink?
10g
218
What effects does early-life exposure to hepatitis viruses have on clinical course?
Less severe acute infection and higher chance of chronic infection
219
What is the difference between a gastric erosion and acute gastric ulcer?
Erosion is limited to mucosa, whereas an acute ulcer penetrates into the submucosa
220
What are the 2 most common causes of steatosis?
Alcohol and obesity
222
Which immunoglobulin is most common in the gut?
IgA
223
What do D cells in the GIT release?
Somatostatin
225
What degree of amplification is achieved in the small intestine by the folds of Kirkring?
3x
226
Which hormone is released from the stomach in a fasted state and stimulates appetite?
Ghrelin
228
What type of cells infiltrate in interface inflammation of chronic hepatitis?
Lymphocytes
229
How much water is excreted in faeces per day?
About 100 ml/day
230
What do we call the GI control systems that are activated prior to eating?
Cephalic phase of digestion
231
What are the three classes of anti-diarrhoeal agents?
Anti-motility. Anti-secretory. Binding agents.
232
What is the average incubation period for HAV?
30 days
233
Which pathogen typically causes antibiotic-associated diarrhoea?
Clostridium dificille
234
Name 6 examples of when you would treat diarrhoea with antibiotics.
Cholera. Systemic infection. Immunocompromised. Severe shigella infections. Protazoal infections. Pseudomembranous colitis.
235
What percentage of absorption of products of digestion is done in the small intestine?
85%
236
Which reflex mediates signals from the upper GIT that regulate upper GIT functions such as swallowing and acid secretions?
Vago-vagal reflex
237
Which part of the villus is secretory in the small intestine?
Crypts
238
RH + NADPH + H+ + O2 --\>
ROH + H2O + NADP+
240
Are gut bacteria predominantly aerobic or anaerobic?
99.9% are anaerobic
241
What do we know about clostridium species?
Gram positive
Rod
Anaerobe
Spore forming
242
How long does an acute HAV infection typically last?
2-3 weeks
243
Which organ is most commonly defective at birth?
Heart
244
Which protein transports conjugated bilirubin into the bile canaliculus?
cMOAT (aka MRP-2)
245
What is the problem in Dubin-Johnson disorder?
Genetic defect in cMOAT causes accumulation of non-toxic conjugated bilirubin
246
What is the most common form of hiatus hernia?
Sliding
247
What changes to liver architecture may there by after extensive repair?
More fibrous and different lobular structure
248
What are the effects of gastrin?
Causes parietal cells to release acid
249
Define dysentery
Blood, pus and mucous in faeces
250
What effect will injection of neuropeptide Y have on eating?
Increase
251
What is endangered with a fracture of the medial epicondyle of the elbow?
Ulna nerve
252
Define mesenchymal cells
Cells that lost contact with each other
and move independently and alone
253
Injecting cocaine and amphetamine regulated transcirpt (CART) will have what effect on eating?
Decrease
255
What is the most common genetic mutation that can cause obesity?
MC4R
Melanocortin 4 receptor
256
How do proton pump inhibitors work?
Irreversible inhibition of H+/K+ ATP ase
257
How do prostaglandins protect the mucosa from injury?
Promote HCO3- secretion, inhibit acid secretion, maintain blood flow
258
What is gastrophoresis?
Delayed gastric emptying
259
Define coeliac disease
Immunologically mediated disease... in genetically susceptible individuals... driven by gluten... which results in chronic inflammation... of the small bowel mucosa
260
What blood test is indicative of acute HBV infection?
Anti-HBc IgM
261
What is a very common non-human host of giardia intestinalis in Australia?
Possum
262
What % of duodenal ulcers are due to Helicobacter pylori?
92%
263
What are the most common pathogenic agents in dysentery?
Enteroinvasive E. coli/Shigella Entamoeba histolytica
264
Which hepatitis viruses tend to cause chronic disease?
HBV and HCV
265
What effects does CCK cause as a hormone?
Contractions of gall bladder to force bile down into duodenum. Releases digestive enzymes from pancreas. Stimulates satiety centre in hypothalamus
266
How can you distinguish an artery from its partner vein?
Usually smaller and more tortuous
267
All derivatives of endoderm are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Epithelial tissues
268
What catalyses acetaldehyde --\> acetate
Aldehyde dehydrogenase
269
What happens to goblet cell frequency along the course of the GIT?
Increases
270
What are the side effects of sodium bicarbonate?
Alkalosis
Kidney problems
Oedema
271
What is the most commonly used H2 antagonist?
Ranitidine
272
What will be seen in the stool of an invasive diarrhoea?
Blood and pus
273
Blood, but not pus, in diarrhoea suggests which organism?
Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli
274
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ consists of an open chain of four pyrrole rings
Bilirubin
275
What happens with withdrawal of antacids?
Rebound acidity
276
Where is alanine transferase located?
Cytoplasm of hepatocytes
277
What is the most common cause of liver cancer?
HBV
278
What is the gold standard for measuring energy expenditure?
Double labeled water (Deuterium/oxygen 18)
279
How do antacids work?
Neutralise stomach acid
280
What activates cholesterol esterase?
Bile
281
What catalyses trypsinogen --\> trypsin?
Enterokinase and trypsin
282
What is the role of smooth ER in hepatocytes?
Fat and steriod metabolism
283
What effects does somatostain have in the GIT?
Inhibits histamine release from enterochromaffin cell-like cells Inhibits HCl release from parietal cells
284
Bilirubin consists of an open chain of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
four pyrrole rings
285
What do we call a fertilized ovum?
Zygote
286
What are the American (more stringent) criteria for Barrett's esophagus?
Evidence of columnar epithelial lining in esophagus; AND
Evidence of goblet cells in esophagus
287
What is the function of paneth cells?
Secrete anti-microbial peptides (defensins)
288
What do paneth cells release?
Defensins
289
What is the average incubation period for HCV?
6-7 weeks
290
Which germ layer does the epithelium of the gut come from?
Endoderm
291
How is hepatitis B virus transmitted?
Percutaneous or permucosal
292
Elevated ALT levels in hepatitis indicate what?
Replicating virus
293
What percentage of faeces is bacteria?
60-70%
294
Inflammation around the portal tract is known as what?
Interface inflammation
295
What would happen to energy intake if all microbiota were removed from a person?
Energy intake would need to increase
296
Which enzyme activates IL-1?
IL-1 converting enzyme (ICE) aka caspase 1
298
Which cells of the GIT release cholecystokinin?
I cells
299
What is the pathological hallmark feature of steatohepatitis?
Hepatocellular ballooning degeneration
300
Where does pinworm live?
Anus
301
Pharmacologically, what are the two most important inputs to the vomit centre?
Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)
Vestibular input
302
Which protease acts at the carboxy terminals of peptides?
Pancreatic carboxypeptidase
303
What is koilocytosis?
A ring around nucleus
305
What is the defining feature of enterohaemorrhagic E. coli?
It produces shigatoxin
306
Barrett's esophagus infers what relative risk for esophageal adenocarcinoma?
30-60
307
Particularly offensive smelling diarrhoea stool suggest what type of organism?
Anaerobic
308
What is a commonly used antimuscarinic drug for motion sickness?
Hyoscine hydrobromide
309
What is the largest internal organ?
Liver
310
Where do central veins drain to?
Hepatic vein
311
Which enteroendocrine cells release serotonin?
Enterochromaffin cells
312
What type(s) of collagen are found in the liver?
1 and 3
313
What type of epithelium is present in the small intestine?
Cilliated simple columnar
314
What is the pathogen in cholera?
Vibrio cholerae
315
What is the last macronutrient to pass through the pylorus after a meal?
Fat
316
How much alcohol can a person typically clear in 1 hour?
1 standard drink = 0.015% BAC = 10 g alcohol
317
What stimulates D cells to release somatostatin?
Luminal acid
318
What effects do artificial sweeteners have on GI activity?
Bind to L cell receptors to increase glucose absorption
319
What is the quality of diarrhoea of colon?
Frequent stools of low volume
320
How much water does the colon absorb per day?
1.4 L/day
321
What are the extra-intestinal complications of entamoeba histolytica?
Liver or brain abscesses
322
How do goblet cells contribute to immunity?
Secrete mucins, lysozyme and lactoferrin
323
With sustained alcohol intake, what is induced to high levels and provides an alternative pathway for EtOH metabolism?
CYP2E1 aka MEOS Microsomal Ethanol Oxidising System
324
What colout is bile?
Dark green to yellowish brown
325
How much bile can the human liver produce per day?
Close to 1 litre per day
326
What is family of molecules, composed of a steroid structure with four rings, a five or eight carbon side-chain terminating in a carboxylic acid?
Bile salts
327
What are the most important bile acids in humans?
Cholic acid, deoxycholic acid, and chenodeoxycholic acid
328
What percentage of bile salts are reasorbed and were are they reasbosrbed?
95% are reabsorbe din the terminal ileum
329
Which hormones regulate pancreatic juice secretion?
Secretin and cholecystokinin
330
Which cells of the pancreas secrete bicarbonate?
Duct cells
331
Which cells of the pancreas produce digestive enzymes?
Acinar cells
332
What is the predominant component of bile?
Cholesterol
333
Which 3 substances can trigger exocrine secretions from the pancreas?
ACh (from vagus), CCK and secretin
334
What activates pancreatic lipase?
Co-lipase
335
Define cirrhosis
Nodules of regenerating hepatocytes surrounded by bands of fibrosis tissue
336
Which hepatitis viruses can cause cirrhosis?
B and C
337
Which chronic liver diseases can lead to cirrhosis?
All of them
338
Which cells are stimulated to cause fibrosis in cirrhosis?
Stellate cells
339
What is a potential consequence of splenomegaly in cirrhosis?
Thrombocytopenia
340
What is the most common cause of portal hypertension?
Cirrhosis
341
How is portal hypertension defined?
Increase of \>8mmHg in the portal vein
OR
Increase of \>5mmHg in pressure gradient between portal vein and hepatic vein
342
What are the 3 cardinal consequences of portal hypertension?
Splenic enlargment. Ascites. Varices at sites of porto-systemic anastamoses
343
What are the 3 main points of anastomosis between the portal and systemic venous systems?
Esophagus. Rectum. Umbilicus
344
Which liver enzymes are located in hepatocyte cytoplasm?
AST, ALT, LD
345
Which liver enzymes are associated with the biliary membrane?
GGT and ALP
346
Which enzyes are released with hepatocellular damage?
AST and ALT
347
Is ALT or AST more specific to liver damage?
ALT
348
Where is ALT present?
Cytosol of hepatocytes
349
Where is AST present?
Cytosol and mitochondria of liver, muscle and blood cells
350
What is suggested if AST \> ALT?
Acute liver damage
351
What is suggested if ALT \> AST?
Chronic or resolving liver damage
352
Which of AST and ALT has a longer half life?
ALT
353
What does elevated GGT levels suggest?
Biliary disease
354
What is the most common cause of raised liver enzymes?
Obesity
355
Pain from an ulcer in the duodenum is made _______ with eating
Better
356
Pain from an ulcer in the stomach is made _______ with eating
worse
