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Flashcards in Nick's Foundation block Deck (210):
1

What does haematoxylin bind to? 

Acidic or anionic structures

1

What are the 3 types of granulocytes? 

Basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils

1

What is an immature RBC called? 

Reticulocyte

1

What is the average lifespan of a platelet cell?

8-10 days

1

What type of WBC is this?

Q image thumb

Basophil

1

What shape is the nucleus of a monocyte?

Kidney /bean shaped or eccentric oval

1

What type of WBC is this?

Q image thumb

Neutrophil

1

List the 4 main function of connective tissue

Structural support

Metabolic support

Immune defence

Tissue repair

1

Name 7 locations where simple columnar, non-ciliated epithelial cells are found

Stomach

Small intestine

Large intestine

Gall bladder

Bile ducts

Endocervix

Endometrium

1

Name 2 locations where simple columnar, ciliated epithelial cells are found

Bronchioles

Fallopian tube

1

What are the 7 causes of celll injury?

 Hypoxia 
Chemicals and drugs
Micro-organisms
Metabolic
Immune
Nutritional
Genetic

1

Describe 3 steps in fibrinoid  necrosis

1 Deposited immune cells in blood vessels

2 Fibrin leakage

3 Necrosis 

1

Define metastatic calcification 

Abnormal calcium deposits due to hypercalcaemia. 

1

What type of tissue is this?

Q image thumb

Smooth muscle

1

Name the 5 isotypes of Ig and what each is specialised for. 

IgM - First responder. Activates classical pathway of complement cascade.
IgA - present in mucosa.  Neutralises
IgG - Most common. Neutralises and opsonises.  Antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC); flag for NK cells
IgE - Elevated in parasitic infections and allergy.  Degranulation. 
IgD - rarest. Expressed on B cells

2

Which germ layer is muscle derived from? 

Mesoderm

2

What type of ttissue is this?

Q image thumb

Skeletal muscle

3

What colour does eosin stain? 

Pink/orange

3

Which WBC has a kidney-shaped nucleus?

Basophils OR Monocytes

3

Which WBC has a bilobed nucleus?

Eosinophils and basophils

3

Which three substances mediate vasodilation in inflammation?

Histamine, NO, prostaglandin PGE2

4

What is the function of glycoproteins of the basemenbt membrane?

They anchor integrins of epithelial cells to ECM of the underlying connective tissue

5

What is the structure of elastin?

Made of an elastin core surrounded by network of fibrilin myofibrils

6

Name these ligaments

Q image thumb

A Supraspinous ligament

B Ligamentum flavum

C Posterior longitudinal ligament

D Anterior longitudinal ligament

7

What are the 4 funcitons of surface epitheliia?

Protection

Selective barrier

Absorption

Secretion

7

Name these ligaments

Q image thumb

A Supraspinous ligament

B Ligamentum flavum

C Posterior longitudinal ligament

D Anterior longitudinal ligament

9

What type of fibres is elastin made of?

Thin and branched

10

An acidophilic tissue will have an affinity for which dye? 

Eosin

10

Name 6 locations where stratified squamous epithelium is found

Skin (keratinised)

Oral cavity

Oesophagus

Vagina

Anus

Ectocervix

11

Name 2 types of mononuclear monocyte

Lymphocyte and monocyte

11

What type of WBC is this?

Q image thumb

Eosinophil

13

Define autolysis

Why is it relevant to a pathologist?

How is it remedied?

 When cells are removed from body, they start to break down almost immediately (autolysis).

This would make it hard for pathologist to know whether the tissue was pathological before biopsy.

Treat with formalin to fix the tissue and prevent autolysis; or cool tissue to slow autolysis 

15

What is type III collagen also known as?

Reticulin

16

What type of WBC is this?

Q image thumb

Basophil

17

Which two forces (and in which direction) are responsible for oedema in inflammation?

1 Increased hydrostatic pressure

2 Decreased coloidal osmotic pressure

18

Define nucleocapsid

The capsid most closely associated with the viral nucleic acid.

Nucleic acid + capsid

19

What are transitional epithelia specialised for?

Stretch/elasticity

19

List 5 features of slow twitch fibres (Type I)

1 for running a marathon;

2 red because of many mitochondria;

3 aerobic respiration;

4 resist fatigue;

5 low tension developed.

20

What is the size of a virus?

0.02 - 0.04 um

=  20 - 40 nm

20

What is the function of  myoepithelial cells?

surround some exocrine glands to squeeze out contents

21

What type of WBC is this?

Q image thumb

Monocyte

23

Explain the physiologic basis of muscle contraction 

 

Nerve impulse depolarises cell membrane. 

T tubules conduct AP from membrane to SR.  

AP causes SR to release Ca2+

Actin and myosin detach and reattach to each other, pulling Z discs closer together to shorten sarcomere.

24

What colour will an eosinophilic structure stain? 

Pink/orange

25

What is the main function of elastin and give 3 examples of tissue it is found in

Provides recoil to certain tissues, esp skin, lungs and large arteries such as aorta

26

Which germ layer(s) is/are epithelia derived from? 

All 3 (endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm)

26

Which germ layer(s) is/are connective tissue derived from? 

Mesoderm

28

What is the function of  pericytes?

wrap around capillaries to regulate blood flow 

28

What type of tissue is this?

Q image thumb

Cardiac muscle

29

What is the maximum resolving power of a light microscope and of an electron microscope?

0.2 um

0.2 nm

30

What are the 3 features of dysentery?


Blood, pus and mucus in stool

31

Q image thumb

A Levator scapulae

B Trapezius

C Rhomboid

D Latisimus dorsi

32

How many genes in the human genome?

21,000 to 25,000

33

CD4+ T cells are also known as what type of T cell?

Helper T cells

33

List 5 features of fast twitch (Type IIb) fibres

 

1  for sprinting/lifting weights;

2 white because few mitochondria;

3 anaerobic respiration;

4 fatigable;

5 high tension developed

35

Where is ciliated, pseudocstratified columnar epithelium found?

Respiratory tract

36

Where is bradykinin derived from?

Plasma proteins

37

What is the main function of collagen?

 Provides tensile strength

37

Transaminases in the blood indicates what?

Liver damage

38

What are the 3 causes of hypoxia?

1 ischaemic,

1 failure of gas exchange at lung,

2 failure of blood carrying O2

39

Fatty necrosis is classically seen in which condition?

Acute pancreatitis

41

Where is type 4 collagen found?

Basement membrane

42

What are the 2 main differences between the gram positive and the gram negative bacterial cell wall?

Gram negative bacteria have a smaller/thinner peptidoglycan layer and they have an additional outer/superficial plasma membrane.  

43

What is the difference between exudate and transudate?

What is the key pathophysiological reason for this difference?

Transudate is buidup of fluid in interstital compartment, whereas exudate is also rich in proteins and cells.

Key difference is that exudate is formed when interendothelial gaps develop and allow extravasation of proteins

44

What type of bacteria is this?

Q image thumb

Spirochete

45

What type of cell is this?

Q image thumb

Lymphocyte

45

What is the funciton of the bacterial flagella?

Locomotion

46

What are parenchymal cells of an organ? 

The functional cells in an organ

47

A raised neutrophil count indicates what?

acute inflammation, especially seen in bacterial infections

48

What type of bacteria is this?

Q image thumb

Diplococci

49

What is the diameter of a platelet cell?

2-4 um

51

Cerebral infarction typically shows which type of necrosis?

Liqueficative

53

Where will lymph from the back drain to?

Axillary lymph nodes

54

What are  simple squamous epithelia specialised for?

 

Diffusion and protection from abrasion

55

Thoracic vertebrae: in what plane are their articular facets and what movement does this permit?

Coronal

Rotation in coronal plane

57

Q image thumb

A Annulus fibrosus

B Nucleus pulposus

58

Caseouos necrosis is classically seen in which disease?

Tuberculosis

59

Q image thumb

A image thumb
60

List 4 examples of PAMPs

Lipopolysaccharide

Flagellin

Peptidoglycan

Viral DNA

61

What colour does Haematoxylin stain? 

Blue

62

Which are the only cells that can produce antibodies? 

B cells/plasma cells

63

Lumbar vertebrae: in what plane are their articular facets and what movement does this permit?

Sagittal

Flexion/extension

64

What are the 3 most common sites of microbe entry? 

The GI tract, skin and respiratory tracts

65

Which 3 criteria are used to define a virus family?

  1   Kind of nucleic acid (ss or ds RNA or DNA)
2 Strategy of replication
    3 Morphology of the virion (symmetry of capsid, naked vs enveloped)

67

Q image thumb

A = Z disc

B = myosin = thick filament

C = actin = thin filament

D = Sarcomere

68

What type of WBC is this?

Q image thumb

Monocyte

69

What type of WBC is this?

Q image thumb

Neutrophil

71

Define metaplasia 

One differentiated cell type (epithelial or mesenchymal) is reversibly replaced with another cell type

72

On what basis did Woese classify all living things? 

Ribosomal RNA

72

Name 5 features of the bacterial genome that are different from the human genome

1) A single chromosome

2) in a nucleoid with no nuclear membrane

3) single double-stranded DNA that is looped and supercoiled,

4) No introns or exons;

5) bacteria may also have plasmids;

73

Define dystrophic calcification and give an example 

 

Abornal calcium depostits dye to damaged or necrotic tissue that has not been completely removed (eg atherosclerotic plaques)

74

What type of tissue is this?

Q image thumb

Cardiac muscle

75

In which 4 locations are simple squamous epithelia found?

Endothelium,

mesothelium,

alveoli,

glomerulus

76

What is the function of microvilli? 

Increase surface area for absorption and secretion

76

Elevated CRP levels indicates what?

What does CRP stand for?

Acute inflammation

C reactive protein

78

Define virion

The virus particle

79

What is the diametre of an RBC?

7.2 microns

81

What type of tissue is this?

Q image thumb

Cardiac muscle

82

What is involution?

A decrease in cell number due to reduced functional demand

82

What does a high lymphocyte count indicate?

Viral infection

83

What is the lifespan of an RBC?

120 days

84

Explain the 3 levels of structure in a peripheral nerve

1 Single axon ( often wrapped in myelin) wrapped in endoneurium. 

2 Bundle of axons form a fascicle, surrounded by perineurium.

3 Bundle of fascicles form a peripheral nerve.  Nerve surrounded by epineurium.  

85

What type of bacteria is this?

Q image thumb

Staphylococci

86

What are the functions of histamine in inflammation?

1 Vasodilation

2 Endothelial contraction --> increased permeability of microcirculation

87

Define partial agonist

A drug that  fails to produce maximal effects even when all receptors are bound by the drug

89

CD8+ T cells are also known as what type of T cell? 

Cytotoxic T cells

90

What are the 8 cardinal features of pain?

Site

Quality

Severity

Time course

Context

Relieving factors

Aggravating factors

Associated features

92

What are the 2 main functions of the bacterial cell wall?

1) Prevents osmotic lysis

2) Gives bacteria its shape

93

What is the structure of collagen?

Formed by a triple helix of polypeptides called alpha chains

94

What type of tissue is this?

Q image thumb

Cardiac muscle

96

What is the gold standard for identifying a virus?

VIral cultivation

98

Give 2 examples of dense regular connective tissue

Tendons and ligaments

100

What are the three essential features of a receptor?

1 A biological macromolecule or complex ...

2 That binds to another molecule ....

3 and affects activity within a cell

100

Define potency

Potency is the amount of drug required to produce 50% of the maximal response the drug is capable of inducing

101

What are the 3 main components of the bacterial peptidoglycan cell wall?

 N-acetyl-glucosamine, N-acetyl-muramic acid and a short peptide chain

101

Define PAMPs

Molecular patterns found on micro-organisms, but not humans, that are recognised as non-self by cells of the innate immune system

102

What are simple columnar epithelia specialised for?

 

 

secretion and absorption

103

Define the viral envelope

Lipid membrane surrounding either the capsid or nucleocapsid that is formed by the host cells' membrane (not present in all viruses)

Contains virus-encoded glycoproteins

104

Between which 2 layers is the basement membrane found?

Epithelium and underlying connective tissue

105

Describe the 4 steps in the mechanism of cell wall damage activating inflammation

1 Cell membrane damage activates phospholipase A2

2 Membrane lipids -->  arachadonic acid

3 AA --> PG

4 PG --> leukotrienes 

107

What shape is a bacillus bacteria? 

Rod

108

Which structures do posterior rami innervate?

Superficial/intrinsic back muscles

Overlying skin of the back

Facet joints

110

Define cellulitis

An infection of the deep layers of the skin and subcutaneous tissues by bacteria

111

Pink on an H and E slide indicates what kind of compound? 

Cationic and eosinophilic

113

What colour will an acidophilic structure bind? 

Pink/orange

114

Define abscess 

A localised collection of pus and necrotic tissue surrounded by inflamed tissues

115

What type of blood cell is this?

Q image thumb

Megakaryocyte

116

What type of tissue is this?

Q image thumb

Skeletal muscle

117

Describe the mechanism of exudate formation

1 Vasodilation

2 Increased hydrostative pressure in capillary

3 Increased permeability of capillary wall due to contaction or retraction of endothelial cells

4 Escape of protein- and cell-rich fluid into interstitial comparment

5 Decrease in colloidal osmotic pressure

118

What type of WBC is this?

Q image thumb

Neutrophil

119

Define efficacy

• Efficacy is the probability of a drug activating a receptor once bound
• Aka the degree to which a drug is able to produce maximal effects

120

Define pharmacokinetics

What the body does to the drug

121

What does Increased eosinophils indicate?

allergy and parasitic infections

122

In immunology, what does PRR stand for?

Pattern recognition receptor

124

What are the 3 types of fibre in connective tissue?

Collagen

Elastin

Reticulin

125

Name these structures

Q image thumb

A Vertebral body

B Lamina

C Spinous process

D Transverse process

E Pedicle

126

What type of cell is this?

Describe 3 features that support your answer

Q image thumb

Skeletal muscle

Striated

Multi nucleate

Peripheral nuclei

127

What are the 2 primary lymphoid organs?

Bone marrow and thymus

128

What is the function of  myofibroblasts?

pull together damaged connective tissue to promote wound healing.

130

Blue on an H and E slide indicates what kind of compound? 

Acidic or anionic

131

What is the function of reticulin?

It creates a supportive network for delicate organs such as the liver

133

List the 3 secondary lymphoid organs

Spleen

Lymph nodes

Mucosal associated lymphatic tissue

134

Define eedema.  

Excessive fluid in interstitial compartment or body cavities

135

What do naked viruses lack?

An envelope

136

What are the 4 main functions of the basement membrane?

1) controls epithelial growth

2) selectively permeable barrier to nutrients

3) structural support

4) links epithelium to underlying tissue

138

Which germ layer(s) is/are neurones derived from? 

Ectoderm

139

What type of cell is this?

Q image thumb

Neutrophil

141

What is the function of collagen type VII

Links basement membrane to underlying connective tissue

142

What are 3 functions of the bacterial capsule?

increases virulence

protects against phagocytosis

prevents dehydration..  

143

Define pharmacodynamics

What the drug does to the body

145

What type of collagen is basement membrane predominantly made of?

Type IV collagen

146

What type of WBC is this?

Q image thumb

Eosinophil

147

What type of bacteria is this?

Q image thumb

Streptococci

147

What does DAMPs stand for?

Damage associated molecular patterns

148

What is the funciton of epithelial cilia?

Rhythmic beating for movement of eg mucus out of respiratory tract or ovum along fallopian tube

149

How long after entering tissue until neutrophils die?

Within hours

150

Which vitamin is required for collagen synthesis?

Vitamin C

152

List 3 places where type 1 collagen is found

Bone, tendons and ligaments

153

What is the size of a bacterium?

1-2 um

154

List 7 examples of permanent resident cells in connective tissue

Fibroblasts, myofibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells, osteoblasts, chondrocytes, adipocytes

156

What are stromal cells? 

Supportive cells in an organ

158

Define atrophy 

A reduction in tissue or organ size due to decrease in cell size and number and thus decreased metabolic activity

159

A decrease in cell number due to reduced functional demand is termed what?

Involution

160

In inflammation, which 3 substances causes an increase in inter-endotheilal gaps?

Histamine, bradykinin and leukotrines

161

Define hyperplasia 

Increase in cell number resulting in increased organ size/mass

162

List 5 ways in which necrosis and apoptosis differ

 

                               Necrosis                Apoptosis

Reversibility         Yes, if early               No

Inflammation         Yes                            Minimal

 

Area                        Large                        Small # cells

Cell swelling        Yes                                No

 

Cell membrane    Disrupted                 Intact

 

 

 

163

What does eosin bind to? 

Cationic tissue (ie positively charged)

164

In the peptidoglycan wall of the bacterium, how are the peptide chains connected?

Pentapeptide bridges

165

What is the key feature of each of the 3 muscle types on light microscopy of a longitudinal section?

1 Skeletal = single nucleus at periphery of cell

2 Cardiac = central nuclei in branching fibres

3 Smooth = central elongated nuclei

166

What type of WBC is this?

Q image thumb

Monocyte

167

A basophilic tissue will have an affinity for which dye? 

Haematoxylin

169

What colour will a basophilic structure stain? 

Blue

170

Where is type II collagen found?

cartilage 

171

Describe laminar blood flow and the relative positions of WBCs, platelets and RBCs 

Larger components of blood are in centre of lumen, thus WBC > RBC > platelets from centre to periphery.

172

Which WBC has a multil-lobed nucleus?

Neutrophils

173

What does PAMPS stand for?

Pathogen associated molecular patterns

174

Describe 3 steps in the pathophysiology of stasis in inflammation

1 Plasma fluid leaves vascular circulation, slowing blood flow

2 RBCs conglomerate

3 Laminar flow is altered and WBCs are marginated

175

What groups did Woese divide all living things into?

Eukarya, archaea and bacteria.

176

At what vertebral level does the spinal cord stop?

L1/L2

177

List the 5 commonest patterns of necrosis

Coagulative

Liquefecation

Casseous

Fat necrosis

Fibrinoid

178

Define hypertrophy 

Increase in cell size, organ size and functional activity

180

Where is histamine derived from?

Mast cells in pre-formed granules

181

 In which two locations are simple cuboidal epithelia found?

 

Thyroid follicles and renal tubules

182

What type of WBC is this?

Q image thumb

Monocyte

183

What is the function of  desmosomes/adherens junctions between epithelial cells?

Strong mechanical attachments between cells, linking their cytoskeletons

184

Which is the largest WBC?

Monocyte

185

What type of WBC is this?

Q image thumb

Basophil

186

What type of bacteria is this?

Q image thumb

Diplobacillus

187

What are the 3 main groups of plasma proteins? 

Globulins, albumin and coagulants

188

Name the 6 types of atypical connective tissue

 Bone.
Cartilage.
Blood.
Adipose.
Haematopoietic.

Lymphatic

189

Where is bradykinin derived from?

Plasma proteins

190

Q image thumb

A Articular facet for head of rib

B Superior/inferior articular facet

C Articular facet for tubercle of rib

191

What are stratified squamous epithelia specialised for?

protection from abrasion

192

Erector spinae muscles:

How would you identify them by palpation?

What movements do they support?

Between spinous process and ribs

Extension/flexion of the back

193

What is the function of  communicating/nexus/gap junctions between epithelial cells?

Allows passage of small molecules for communication

194

Coagulative necrosis is typical of which damage to what type of organs?

Typical of infarction of solid organs (but not brain).

195

What type of WBC is this?

Q image thumb

Eosinophil

196

What type of bacteria is this?

Q image thumb

Streptobacilli

197

Define capsid

The protective protein coat shell around the viral genome and forming the core of the virus particle

198

Define affinity and how it is measured

• Affinity is the probability or strength of a drug binding to its receptors
• Measured with equilibrium dissociation constant

KA =  drug concentration required for 50% occupancy of receptors

199

What shape is the nucleus of a fibroblast?

Elongated

200

What type of WBC is this?

Q image thumb

Neutrophil

201

What is the function of  tight/occluding junctions between epithelial cells?

To seal the intercellular space to prevent passage of substances between cells

202

Which is the most abundant WBC?

Neutrophil

203

What type of tissue is this?

Q image thumb

Smooth muscle

204

What type of tissue is this?

Q image thumb

Smooth muscle

205

What does SARS stand for?

Severe acture respiratory syndrome

206

What shape is a coccus bacteria? 

Spherical

207

How many pairs of chromosimes does a human have?

23 pairs

208

What is the ECM of connective tissue composed of?

Ground substance and fibres

209

How is haematocrit calculated? 

volume RBC/volume blood