Gram Negative Flashcards
(130 cards)
1
Q
Cite examples of your aerobic diplococci
A
- N. gonorrhea
- N. meningitidis
- Moraxella
2
Q
How will you distinguis N. meningitides from N. gonorrhea?
A
Maltose utilization test
N. meningitidis = able to utilize maltos
3
Q
Maltose utilization negative
Aerobic diplococci
Gram negative
A
N. gonorrhoeae
4
Q
Cite examples of your gram negative coccobacilli
A
- Haemophilus influenzae
- Pasterurella
- Brucella
- Bortadella pertussis
- Francisella tularensis
5
Q
Cite examples of your oxidase positive gram negative comma-shaped rods
A
- C. jejuni (42 deg C)
- V. cholerae (alkaline media)
- H. pylori (urease producer)
6
Q
Cite examples of your fast lactose fermenters, bacilli, gram negative
A
- Klebsiella
- E. coli
- Enterobacter
7
Q
Cite examples of your slow lactose fermenters, bacilli, gram negative
A
- Citrobacter
2. Serratia
8
Q
Cite examples of your oxidase positive, bacilli, gram negative bacteria
A
P. aeruginosa
9
Q
How will you distinguish Shigella from Salmonella?
A
Check for the production of hydrogen sulfide on TSI Agad
Shigella - negative
Salmonella - present hydrogen sulfide
10
Q
Cite examples of your hydrogen sulfide producer, oxidase negative bacilli, gram negative
A
Salmonella
Proteu
11
Q
Cite examples of your non hydrogen sulfide producer, oxidase negative, gram negative bacilli
A
Shigella
Yersinia
12
Q
Gram negative diplococci that ferments glucose only
A
N. gonorrhea
Gonorrhea = Glucose only
13
Q
Gram negative diplococci that ferments maltose
A
N. meningitidis
Meningitides = Maltose only
14
Q
Thayer-Martin agar used to culture N. gonorrhea from unsterile sites contain what antibiotics?
A
- Vancomycin - inhibti G+
- Polymixin - inhibit G- excluding Neisseria
- Nystatin
Thayer Martin has VPN
15
Q
Gram negative kidney bean diplococci
A
N. meningitidis
N. gonorrhea
16
Q
[Diagnosis]
URTI,
military recruits, dormitories, camps, Hajj pilgimage
A
N. meningitidis
17
Q
What complement deficiencies make an individual susceptible to N. meningitidis?
A
C6-C9 deficiency
since they cannot form MAC
18
Q
N. meningitides is the most common cause of meningitis in what age group?
A
2-18 years od
19
Q
[Diagnosis]
Due to N. meningitides, multiorgan disease, DIC, petechial or purpuric rash
A
Meningococcemia
20
Q
What is the most severe form of meningococcemia?
A
Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome
Meningococcemia + Adrenal insufficiency
21
Q
What are the capsular polysaccharides included in the meningococcal strains
A
ACY W135
22
Q
Meningococcal vaccine is coupled with what other vaccine
A
Diphteria toxoid
23
Q
What is the DOC as chemoprophylaxis to patients with close contact to a confirmed meningcococcemia?
A
rifampin
24
Q
Which serogroup of N. meningitides is poorly immunogenic?
A
Serogroup B
25
[N. gonorrhea]
promote adherence of bacteria to epithelial cells
pili
26
[N. gonorrhea]
expression of this outer membrane proteins promote adherence and invasion into epithelial cells
Opa protein
gives it an opaque colonies in thayer martin
27
[N. gonorrhea]
usually co-infected with what organism
Chlamydia trachomatis
28
What is the most common cause of urethritis?
gonococcal
29
Most common cause of PID
gonococcal
30
Violin string adhesion associated with gonorrhea is called ___ syndrome
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome
31
What is the most common cause of septic arthritis in sexually active men?
N. gonorrhea
32
What is the DOC for gonorrhea?
Ceftriaxone + Doxycycline
due to C. trachomatis coinfection
33
What is the DOC to prevent conjuctivitis?
Erythromyin or silver nitrate
34
Antigenic variation in N. gonorrhea are due to what factors
1. Pili
2. Membran protein P. II
3. Lipo-oligosaccharide
35
What bacteria can cause culture negative subacute bacterial endocarditis in patients with preexisting heart disease
1. Eikenella corrodens
| 2. Kingella kingae
36
Organism that can cause subacute endocarditis that is culture negative
1. Haemophilus aphrophilus
2. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
3. Cardiobacterium hominis
4. Eikenella corrodens
6. Kingella kingae
HACEK
37
has polyribitol phosphate capsule
Haemophilis influenza tupe B
38
Poorly gram staining, gram negative respiratory rod, seen on silver stain
Legionella pneumophila
39
H. influenza can frown in a chocolate agar but requires what factor?
1. Factor X (hemin)
| 2. Factor V (NAD)
40
__ phenomenon happens around S. aureus colonies wherein S. aureus liberates factor V needed by H. influenzae
Satellite phenomenon
41
What is the most common cause of epiglottitis
Haemophilus influenza
This can also cause meningitis, otitis media, pneumonia
42
[Etiology]
thumb sign, cherry red epiglottis
Epiglotitis - H. influenzae
Tx: ceftriaxone
43
HiB vaccine is conjugated with diphtheria toxin given between ___ age
2 and 18 months of age
Conjugated vaccine elicits Tcell response
44
What enable B. pertussis to bind to ciliated epithelial cells of the bronchi?
filamentous hemagglutinin
it is apili rod
45
Pertussis toxin can cause to increased sensitivity to histamin, increased insulin release, and peripheral lymphocytisis due to ___
ADP-riboxylation leading to increase in cAMP
46
Presence of this in B. pertussis inhibits phagocytosis, weakens neutrophils
Extracytoplasmic adenylate cyclase
47
What causes the whooping in patients infected with B. pertussis
Tracheal cytotoxin that damages ciliated cells
48
In B. pertussis, when dies whooping couch happens
at the peak of bacterial load or after it?
after the peak of the bacterial load
49
What is the DOC for pertussis?
Erythromycin
50
acellular Pertussis vaccine is combined with what other vaccines?
1. Diphtheria
2. Tetanus
DTaP
51
Legionella antigen can be detected by using this sample
Urine
52
what are examples of you facultative intracellular bacteria
1. Salmonella
2. Brucella
3. Mycobacteria
4. Listeria
5. Francicella
6. Legionella
7. Yersinia
Some Bugs May Live FacultativeLY
53
What protect L. pneumophila from macrophage superoxide and hydroperoxide oxidative burst?
1. Cu-Zn SOD
| 2. Catalase peroxidase
54
What promotes attachment and adhesion in Legionella?
1. Pili
| 2. Flagella
55
[Diagnosis]
pneumonia with confusion, non-bloody diarreha, hyponatremia, proteinuria, hematuria
Legionella
56
Pontiac fever is caused by
L. pneumophila
Tx: Azithromycin or Erythromycin
57
[Gram Neg: GUT]
lactose fermenter,
green sheen
E. coli
58
[Gram Neg: GUT]
lactose fermenter,
urease positive
ESBL
klebsiella pneumoniae
59
[Gram Neg: GUT]
comma shaped, motile, oxidase positive
V. cholerae
60
[Gram Neg: GUT]
Comma-shaped, microaerophilic, skirrow agar
c. jejuni
61
[Gram Neg: GUT]
comma-shaped, urease positive
H. pylori
62
[Gram Neg: GUT]
non-lactose fermenter, Gram neg rods
motile, oxidase negative, H2S producer
Salmonella
63
[Gram Neg: GUT]
non-lactose fermenter, Gram neg rods
Non-motile, oxidase negative, H2S non-producer
Shigella
64
[Gram Neg: GUT]
non-lactose fermenter, Gram neg rods
swarming, oxidase negative, H2S producer, urease
Proteus mirabilis
65
[Gram Neg: GUT]
non-lactose fermenter, Gram neg rods
oxidase positive, H2S non-producer, obligate aerobe
P. aeruginosa
66
What are your lactose fermenters
Citrobacter
Klebsiella
E. coli
Enterobacter
67
What virulence in E. coli is associated with pneumonia and neonatal meningitis
Kapsule
68
What E. coli enterotoxin cause cholera-like effect
ST and LT cause watery diarrhea
69
What E. coli enterotoxin causes bloody diarrhea?
verotoxin (shiga-like) toxin
Cholera-like = ST and LT
70
What are your enterobacteriaceae?
MESSY SPECK
```
Morganella
Escherichia
Shigella
Salmonella
Yersinia
```
```
Serratia
Proteus
Enterobacter
Citrobacter
Klebsiella
```
71
What is the most common cause of community acquired UTI?
E. coli
72
What is the second most common cause of neonatal meningitis?
E. coli
73
[E. coli strain]
Watery diarrhea, travel to developing country
ETEC
74
[E. coli strain]
Watery diarrhea in infants
EPEC
75
[E. coli strain]
Bloody diarrhea, HUS
EHEC
76
[E. coli strain]
Bloody diarrhea, no HUS
EIEC
77
[E. coli strain]
persistent watery diarrhea, patient with HIV
EAEC
78
What is the DOC for UTI caused by E. Coli
1. Ampicillin
| 2. Sulfonamides
79
What is the DOC for meningitis and sepsis caused by E. coli
3rd gen cephalosporin
80
__ test detect salmonella antibodies
Widal Test
81
Salmonella strain who's habitat is in the human colon only
S. typhi
82
Typhoid fever is due to what virulence factor in S. typhi?
Vi capsular antigen
83
S. typhi preferentially multiply to ____ before invading the reticuloendothelial system
peyer patches
84
Chronic carrier state of S. typhi is due to invasion of what organ
gallbladder
85
[Culture source of salmonella]
best source in ALL stages of Salmonella infection
Bone marrow
86
[Culture source of salmonella]
week 1 on disease: stepwise fever, anorexia, malaise, relative BRADYcardia, bacteremia
blood
87
[Culture source of salmonella]
Week 2, abdominal pain, bloating constipation, rose spots, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice
urine
88
[Culture source of salmonella]
patients present with bleeding, ileitis, pneumonia
stool
89
[Culture source of salmonella]
chronic carrier state
bile
90
Patients with sickle cell anemia are most commonly infected with this bacteria causing septicemia
Salmonella
91
[Etiology of Osteomyelitis]
Burn patient
P. aeruginosa
92
[Etiology of Osteomyelitis]
IV drug users
1. S. aureus
| 2. P. aeruginosa
93
[Etiology of Osteomyelitis]
Sickle cell anemia
1. Salmonella choleraesius
94
Shigella preferentially invades which part of the GIT?
distal ileum and colon
95
How many bacilli is needed for Shigella to cause symptoms
200
Invasion is due to M cells
96
What shigella strain is the most common cause of bacillary dysentery?
Duval's bacillus
Shigella sonnei
97
What shigella strain is presents with the most severe form of bacillary dysentery?
Can cause epidemic dysentery
Shigella dysenteriae type 1
98
[Spectrum of shigella]
Fever, abdominal cramps then bloody diarrhea
Bacillary dysentery
Tx: Ciprofloxacin
99
Shooting star motility
Vibrio
100
Strain of vibrio that is seen in salwater
1. V. parahaemolyticus
| 2. V. vulnificus
101
In Vibrio infection, what enhancement to the intestinal mucosa?
mucinase
102
What strain of vibrio causes pandemics?
V. cholerae O1 biotype El Tor
103
What GPCR is affected by pertussis toxin?
Gi
It inhibits G1 leading to increased cAMP
Cholera, stimulate Gs, leading to increased cAMP
104
DOC for V. parahaemolyticus and V. vulnificus
1. Minocycline + FQ OR
| 2. Minocyline + Cefotaxime
105
What is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis?
C. jejuni
Tx: Erythromycin
106
C. jejuni infection mimics what inflammatory bowel disease?
IBD
107
C. jejuni is associated with Reiter syndrome which presents as
1. Urethritis
2. Uveitis
3. Arthritis
108
What are your urease positive bacteria?
1. Proteus mirabilis
2. Klebsiella pneumoniae
3. H. pylori
4. Ureaplasma urealyticum
109
H. pylori preferentially damages what cells of the gastric mucosa?
goblet cells
110
What is produced by H. pylori to neutralize stomach acid?
Ammonia from urea
111
What are the diseases associated with H. pylori infection?
Gastric CA
| MALT lymphomas
112
What is the most common cause of pneumonia in alcoholics?
K. pneumoniae
113
What is the characteristic sputum of K. pneumoniae?
Thich
Blooddy
"currant-jelly" sputum
114
"Swarming motility"
Proteus mirabilis
Tx: TMP-SMX
115
Urease in proteus can lead to stone formation due to ___
ammonia alkalinizing the uring
struvite stone formation
116
What is the composition of struvite stone (associated with Proteus mirabilis)
Magnesium-ammonium-phosphate
117
Grape-like odor, pyocyanin, obligate aerobe
P. aeruginosa
118
Exotoxun A of P. aeruginosa inactivates ___ of the cell
EF 2
119
What facilitates P. aeruginosa exotoxin transfer?
Type III secretion system
120
Pyocyanin produced by P. aeruginosa damages ___ cells
cilia, mucosal cells
121
What is the etiology of malignant otitis externa in diabetics?
P. aeruginosa
122
Shanghai fever presents with mild form of typhoid. It is due to
P. aeruginosa
123
What is the THIRD most common cause of nosocomial UTI?
P. aeruginosa
124
What causes ecthyma gangrenosum
P. aeruginosa
125
What are your anti-pseudomonal drugs: Cephalosporin
1. Ceftazidime
| 2. Cefepime
126
in refractory pseudomonas aeruginosa infection, what medication is added?
Rifampicin
127
___ pleomorphic gram negative bacillus, isolated in hospital environment and hospitalized patients; colonized IV solution; seen in organs
Acinetobacter baumanii
128
___ ubiquitous gram negative bacillus, neonatal meningitis.
nonfermenting, nonmotile, oxidase positive, gram negative aerobic bacillus
Elizabethkingia meningosepticum
129
___ may be confused with pseudomonas species
catalase and oxidase positive, motile, gram negative rod, oxidizes xylose and glucose
Achromobacter xylosoxidans
130
___ anaerobic, gram negative, spreads to blood or peritoneum during bowel trauma, perforation or surgery
foul smelling discharge
B. fragilis
has LPS but low endotoxic activity
Tx: metronidazole, Clinda or cefoxitin
