Gram Positive Flashcards
(139 cards)
1
Q
What are your gram positive, aerobic bacilli?
A
- Listeria
- Bacillus
- Corynebacterium
2
Q
What are your gram positive, anaerobic bacilli
A
Clostridium
Propionibacterium
3
Q
What are your gram positive, aerobic, branching filaments
A
Nocardia
weakly acid fast
4
Q
What are your gram positive, anaerobic, branching filaments
A
Actinomyces
not acid fast
5
Q
Catalase positive facultative cocci
A
Staphylococcus
6
Q
Catalase negative facultative cocci
A
Streptococcus
7
Q
Catalase positive, coagulase positive cocci in clusters
A
S. aureus
8
Q
Catalase positive, coagulase negative, novobiocin sensitive cocci in clusters
A
S. epidermidis
9
Q
Catalase positive, coagulase negative, not novobiocin sensitive cocci in clusters
A
S. saprophyticus
10
Q
[Hemolysis in streptococci]
green, partial
A
alpha hemolysis
11
Q
[Hemolysis in streptococci]
comple, clear
A
beta hemolysis
12
Q
[Hemolysis in streptococci]
no hemolysis, grows in bile
A
gamma hemolysis
13
Q
to differentiate viridans and S. pneumoniae
A
Optochin Sensitivity
Bile solubility
14
Q
Optochin sensitive,
alpha hemolytic
catalase negative cocci
A
S. pneumoniae
15
Q
Optochin insensitive
Alpha hemolytic
Catalase negative
cocci
A
Viridans streptococci
16
Q
How will you differentiate S. agalactiae and S. oyogenes?
A
Bacitracin
17
Q
Bacitracin sensitive
beta hemolytic
coagulase negative
cocci
A
Group A
S. pyogenes
Bacitracin = beta
18
Q
Bacitracin insensitive
Beta hemolytic
Catalase negative
cocci
A
Group B S agalactiae
Beta=Bacitracin= group B is negative bacit
19
Q
How will you differentiate S. bovis from E. faecium and E. faecalis?
A
Growth in 6.5% NaCl
20
Q
Grows in 6.5% NaCl
Gamma hemolysis
Catalase negative
cocci
A
Group D (Enterococcus)
E. faecium
E. faecalis
21
Q
Does not grow in 6.5% NaCl
Gamma hemolysis
Catalase negative
cocci
A
S. bovis
22
Q
The gold color of staphylococcus is due to the pigment:
A
staphyloxanthin
23
Q
What are the immunomodulators of S. aureus
A
- Protein A
- Coagulase
- Cytotoxin
- PV Leukocidin
- Catalase
- Penicillinase
24
Q
What are the compounds found in S. aureus that plays a role in tissue penetrans?
A
- Hyaluronidase
- Fibrinolysin
- Lipase
25
Which is an immunomodulator found in S. aureus
Hyaluronidase or Coagulase
Coagulase
26
What are the toxins produce by Staphylococcus
1. Exfoliatin
2. Enterotoxin
3. TSST-1
4. Alpha toxin
27
Toxin found in S. aureus that can cause marked necrosis of the skin and hemolysis
Alpha toxin
28
Toxin in S. aureus that can cause epidermal separation
Exfoliatin
29
What is the most common cause of acute endocarditis?
S. aureus
preferentially infects Tricuspid valve
30
___ abscess os a sequestered focus of osteomyelitis arising in the metaphyseal area of a long bone infected by S. aureus
Brodie abscess
31
S. aureus presents as acute onset gastroenteritis due to presence of ____
preformed heat-stable enterotoxin
32
___ disease
caused by exfoliatin found in S. aureus that cleaves desmoglein
Ritter disease (SSSS)
separation of epidermis at stratum granulosus
33
Lyell disease is distringuished from SSS since the separation occurs at the ____
Dermo-epidermal junction
Lyell Disease = TEN
34
[Diagnose]
fever, hypotension, strawberry tongue, desquamating rash, multiorgan involvement
Blood CS negative
Toxic Shock Syndrome
35
What is the DOC for MSSA?
1. Nafcillin
2. Oxacillin
3. Dicloxacillin
36
What is the DOC for VRSA?
Linezolid
37
Component of S. aureus that prevents complement actiation
Protein A
38
Bacteria that are novobiocin senstiive
Novo resistant Saprophyticus
Novo sensitive epidermidis
39
____ that adheres well to foreign bodies and form biofilms (like in prosthetic joints amd vpl shunts)
S. epidermidis
Tx: Remove prosthetic device, treat with vancomycin
40
What is the second most common cause of UTI in sexually active women?
nitrite negative
S. saprophyticus
DOC: TMP-SMX
41
___ test
measures hydrolysis of 1-pyrrolidonyl beta naphthylamide and release of beta napththylamine
PYR test
Postive in S. pyogenes
42
Bacitracin sensitive organisms
Bacitracin
B Resistant
A Sensitive
Remember: BRAS
43
What is the spreading factor of S. pyogenes?
Hyaluronidase
44
What activates plasminogen in Streptococcus?
Streptokinase
45
What virulence enzyme present in
| S. pyogenes that degrades DNA in exudates or necrotic tissue
DNAse or Streptodornase
46
What virulence enzyme present in
| S. pyogenes that inactivates complement C5A
C5A peptidase
47
What toxin in S. pyogenes that cause scarlet fever?
Erythrogenic toxin
48
What toxin found in S. pyogenes that is highly antigenic that causes antibody formation?
Streptolysin O
Oxygen-labile
49
Toxin of S. pyogenes that is oxygen-stable and is similar to TSST?
Pyrogenic Exotoxin
50
Toxin of S. pyogenes that is oxygen-stable that is a protease that rapidly destroys tissue
Exotoxin B
51
What is the major virulence factor for group A strep which inhibits the activation of complement and protects the organism from phagocytosis
M protein
52
___ is the titer used to document antecedent pharyngitis
ASO
53
___ is the titer used to document antecedent strep skin infection
Anti-DNAse B
54
____ presence of this decrease the efficacy of streptokinase in managing MI
Anti-streptokinase
55
In impetigo contangiosa, neturophils accumulate in ___
beneath stratum corneum
56
Superficial infection of S. pyogenes that extends to dermal lymphatics
Erysipelas
57
Deeper skin infection caused by S. pyogenes extending to SQ facilitated by hyaluronidase
Cellulitis
58
Necrotizing fasciitis due to S. pyogenes is facilitated by
Exotoxin B
NecFas = deep SQ tissue, but not hyaluronidase
59
Quincy abscess due to S. pyogenes is seen in which part of the body
Retropharyngeal
60
[Diagnosis]
fever, strawberry -like, centrifugal sandpaper-like centrifugal rash, pastia lines, desquamation
Scarlet fever
61
___ is the method of susceptibility to scarlet fever by injection into the skin of 0.1 cm3 of scarlet fever toxin
Dick Test
Dick = Scarlet
62
___ is the method od diphteria toxin susceptibility testing
Schick test
Schick = Diptherria
63
Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome is milder than S. aureus TSS. This is due to what toxin ___
Blood culture are often positive
Pyrogenic Exotoxin A
64
Antibodies developing due to S.pyogenes infection is due to what toxin ____
M proteins
65
What is the most common cause acute rheumatic fever?
S. pyogenes
DOC: pen G
66
[Diagnose]
Hematuria, hypertension, periorbital edema after tonsillitis
PSGN
67
Rheumatic fever is a classified as what type of hypersensitivityreaction?
Type II = IgG and IgM mediated
68
PSGN is what type of hypersensitivity reaction/
Type III = Immune complex
69
What are the predisposing factors for S. agalactiae infection?
1. Intrapartum fever >38 degC
2. PROM >18h
3. Vaginal colonization
4. Complement deficiency
70
All pregnant women should be screened for GBS colonization at ___ weeks
35 to 37 weeks AOG
71
Streptococcus that can cause UTI due to indwelling urinary catheter and urinary tract instrumentation
GDStrep
72
___ cause endocardities in patients who underwent GIT surgery
E. faecalis
73
Marantic endocarditis in patients with abdominal malignancy is due to ____
S. bovis
DOC: Penicilin + gentamicin
74
Cephalosporins are not active agains what microbes
1. Enterococci
2. Listeria monocytogenes
3. MRSA
75
Lancet shaped, G+
S. pneumonieae
76
Optochin sensitive streptococcus
Optochin
Viridans Resistant
Pneumonia Sensitive
OVeR PaSS
77
What are your encapsulated bacteria?
1. S. pneumoniae
2. K. pneumoniae
3. H. influenzae
4. P. aeruginosa
5. N. meningitidis
6. S. typhi
7. B group strep
78
What substance plays a role in colonization of S. pneumoniae?
IgA protease
79
What substance present in S. pneumoniae reacts with CRP
c-substance
80
[Diagnose]
Cough
blood-tinged, pink or rusty sputum
Pneumonia
S. pneumonia
most common cause of pneumonia
DOC: pen G
81
S. pneumoniae vaccin is conjugated with what carrier protein
Diphtheria toxoid
82
Viridans mutans enter the bloodstream during ____
dental procedures
83
Viridans step are known to cause damage in heart valves due to the presence of ___-
glycocalyx
84
Viridans mutans that can cause subacute bacterial endocarditis (most common cause of subacute and native valve endocarditis)
S. sanguis
85
Viridans mutans that can cause brain abscess
S. intermedius
86
box car shape
B. anthracis
87
Aerobic, motile, reheated fried rice
B. cereus
88
tennis racket like, anaeribic
C. tetani
89
Anaerobic, bulging cans
C. botulinum
90
Anaerobic, gas forming, lecithinase
C. perfringes
91
Anaerobic, pseudomembranous colitis
Clostridiodes difficile
92
chinese characters, curved, aerobic, non motile
C. diphtheriae
93
tumbling motility
aerobic, curved
L. monocytogenes
94
___ dry, ground glass surface and irregular edges with projection along lines of inoculation of B anthracis
Medusa head morphology
95
Woolsorters disease
B. anthracis
96
[B. anthracis virulence factors]
calmodulin-dependent adenylate cyclase
edema factor
97
[B. anthracis virulence factors]
inhibit signal transduction in cell division
lethal factor
98
[B. anthracis virulence factors]
mediates entry of the EF and LF
protective antigen
99
In inhalational anthax, what lymph nodes are massively enlarged
mediastinal
100
What is the DOC for cutaneous anthrax
ciprofloxacin
101
Most common cause of death is pulmonary hemorrhage in these organisms
1. Anthrax
2. Leptospirosis (Weil's)
3. Congenital syphilis
102
Toxin found in B. cereus that cause cholera-like enterotoxin
Heat-labile enterotoxin
103
Rapid onset vomiting after ingestion of B. cereus is due to what type of toxin
heat-stable toxin
104
Diarrhea after intake of fried rice is due to what toxin found in B. cereus?
heat-labile
105
Tetanospasmin cleaves proteins involved in the release of glycine from what cels in the spinal cord
Renshaw cells
106
Tetanospasmin cleaves GABA release by cleaving ____
synaptobrevin 2
107
What organism is seen in alkaline vegetables like green beans, pepper, mushroom that produces toxin?
C. botulinum
108
The flaccid paralysis in botulinum toxin ingestion has a __ _ pattern
Descending
109
Botox is a commercial preparation of what botulinum toxin
Toxin A
110
What are the bulbar signs of food-borne botulism
1. Diplopia
2. Dysphonia
3. Dysarthria
4. Dysphagia
111
What are the initial symptoms of C. botulinum?
muscle aches, trismus, myalgia
112
At the presynaptic terminal, tetanus toxin inhibits ___
release of GABA, resulting to rigidity
113
At the NMJ, tetanospasmin ____ release
blocks NT release, this weakness and paralysis
114
[Daignose]
symmetric descending flaccid paralysis, absence of fever, intact sensorium
Botulism
115
Infant botulism can happen after ingestion of household dust or honey because there is __-
absence of competitive bowel microbes
116
___ double hemolysis on blood agar
C. perfringes
117
Gas gangrene due to C. perfringes is due to ___
1. alpha toxin (lecithenase)
118
Exotoxin in stool of this organism is detected by cytopathic effect in culture
Clostridioides difficile
119
What drugs are associated with C. difficile overgrowth?
1. Clindamycin
2. 2nd and 3rd generation cephalosporin
3. Ampicillin
120
In C. difficile, these toxins inhibits GTPases leading to apoptosis of enterocytes
1. Exotoxin A (enterotoxin)
2. Exotoxin B (cytotoxin)
This results to pseudomembrane
121
What bacteria is implicated in flare ups of UC
C. difficile
122
What is the DOC for C. difficile?
Vancomycin
123
___ is associated with toxic shock syndrome associated with septic abortion
S. sordellii
124
Box-car shaped rods but lipase negative, lecithinase positive
C. perfringes
125
Horse-barn odor, ground glass appearing colonies
C. difficile
126
In potassium tellurite, corynebacterium grow as ____ colones
dark black
127
Loeffler's medium is used for C. diptheriae. the stain used is
methylene blue
128
What test is used to detect toxigenicity of C. diphtheriae
Modified Elek Test
129
C. diptheriae has an exotoxin that inhibits protein synthesis by adding ADP ribose to ___
Elongation factor 2
130
Which exotoxin of C. diphteriae has ADP ribosylating activity?
Subunit A
131
Which exotoxin of C. diphteriae binds the toxin to cell surface?
Subunit B
132
What encosed C. diphtheriae exotoxin
beta-prophage
133
What are the characters of diphteria?
```
ADP-ribosylation
Beta-prophage
Corynebacterium
Diphteriae
Elongation
Factor 2
Granules are metachromatic
```
134
V or L shape; paradoxical growth in cold temperature
L. monocytogenes
135
___ toxin of L. monocytogenes that interacts with E-cadherin
Internalin
136
___ toxin of L. monocytogenes that helps it escape from phagosome
listeriolysin
137
___ toxin of L. monocytogenes that helps the bacteria propel through the membrane of one human cell into anotehr
Actin rockets (actin polymers)
138
What are the characteristics of early onset neonatal listeriosis or granulomatosis infantiseptica?
1. Late miscarriage or birth complicated by sepsis
2. multiorgan abscess
3. disseminated granulomas
139
What is the DOC for L. monocytogenes?
Ampicillin
