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Mycobacteria Flashcards

1
Q

What factor seen in M. tuberculosis can lead to macrophage activation and TNF-alpha release?

A

Cord factor

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2
Q

Type of leprosy associated with Th2 predominance

A

Lepromatous = low cell mediated

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3
Q

Type of leprosy associated with high cell-mediated immunity

A

TH1 response = tuberculoid

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4
Q

Aside from mycolic acids, the high lipid content in M. tuberculosis cell wall is due to

A

Wax D

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5
Q

___ assay to check for M. tuberculosis drug resistance

A

Luciferase assay

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6
Q

What prevents phagosome-lysosomal fusion of M. tuberculosis?

A

exported repetitive protein (sulfatides)

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7
Q

What triggers cell-mediated immunity, delayed hypersensitivity reaction in M. tuberculosis

A

Tuberculin surface protein

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8
Q

In a M. tuberculosis granuloma, the central area is called

A

Langhan Giant Cells

surrounded by a zone of epitheloid cell

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9
Q

A positive PPD means that ___

A
  1. Current or active disease
  2. Past exposure but not necessarily active disease
  3. BCG vaccination
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10
Q

M. tb drugs that inhibit mycolic acid synthesis

A

Isoniazid

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11
Q

M. tb drug that inhibits arabinosyl transferase

A

Ethambutol

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12
Q

What interleukin mediates presentation of Mtb antigen by macrophage

A

IL-12

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13
Q

What CD4 level does Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex appear?

A

CD4 <50

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14
Q

M. leprae can be cultured in vitro in ____

A
  1. Mouse footpad

2. Armadillo

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15
Q

What are the reservoirs of M. lepae

A
  1. Humans

2. Armadillos

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16
Q

[Tuberculoid/Lepromatous]

few lesions
little tissue destruction
Few AFB in skin
Present CMI
Lepromin positive
A

Tuberculoid

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17
Q

[Tuberculoid/Lepromatous]

many lesions
Marked tissue destruction
Many AFB
Can highly transmit
CMI reduced
Lepromin negative
A

Lepromatous

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18
Q

What are the nerves commonly affected in Hansen disease?

A
  1. Ulnar and median nerve damage - clawed hand
  2. Common peroneal: foot drop
  3. Posterior tibial - plantar insensitivity and clawed toes
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19
Q

______ seen in lepromatous form, tender nodules or humps on both shins

A

Erythema Nodusum Leprosum

Tx: Thalidomide

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20
Q

What is the DOC for tuberculoid leprosy

A
  1. Dapsone

2. Rifampin`

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21
Q

What is the DOC for lepromatous leprosy?

A
  1. Dapsone
  2. Rifampin
  3. Clofazimine
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22
Q

[Etiology]

broken jaw or dental extraction

PE: hard, non-tender with swelling sinus tracts draining sulfur granules

A

Actinomyces Israelii

Tx: Pen G and drainage

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23
Q

What stain is used to identify Nocardia asteroides?

A

Fite-faraco

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24
Q

[Etiology]

Aerobic, filamentous gram-positive rod with aerial hyphae

manifest as mycetomas and lung and brain abscess (orange colony)

A

Nocardiosis

Nocardia asteroides

Tx: TMP-SMX + drainage

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25
What is the smallest free living organism?
Mycoplasma pneunoniae can cause walking pneumonia Tx: erythromycin or azithromycin
26
What is the culture media for M. pneumoniae
Eaton agent Needs cholesterol and nucleic acid
27
What is the microscopic finding of M. pnuemoniae
1. Fried egg appearance OR | 2. Mulberry appearance
28
What causes the attachment and inhibits ciliary motion of M. pneumoniae?
TLR2 protein (P1 adhesin)
29
__ is the only bacteria with sterol in membrane
M. pneumoniae
30
T. pallidum cant be cultured in vitro since ___
lacks krebs cycle
31
Childhood Syphilis can present with
1. Interstitial keratitis 2. Hutchinson Teeth 3. Eight nerve deafness
32
What stage of syphilis can you classify Neurosyphilis that is asymptomatic
Secondary
33
What are the components of neurosyphilis?
1. Tabes dorsalis 2. Argyll-Robertson pupil or prostitues pupil 3. Dementia paralytica
34
Argyll-Robertson Pupul presents as
1. Able to accommodate when looking at near objects | 2. Does not constrict with light
35
[Stage in Syphilis] Endarteritis obliterans
Tertiary
36
___ sign unilateral enlargement of the sternoclavicular portion of the clavicle, leads to detachment
Higoumenakis sign
37
Synovitis in Congenital syphilis is termed
Clutton Jint
38
[Stage in Syphilis] Condyloma lata
Secondary
39
[Stage in Syphilis] aortitis
tertiary
40
Best screening test for syphilis
Non-treponemal (VDRL/RPR)
41
Test for confirmation of syphilis
Treponemal antibody test TPEIA
42
What are the causes of false positive VDRL results
1. Viruses - EBV, Hep 2. Drugs - marijuana 3. Rheumatic fever, RA 4. Lupus, Leprosy
43
____ influenza-like symptoms few hours after receiving penicillin
Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
44
What is the largest medically-important bacteria
Borrelia burgdorferi
45
What stain is used to for B. burgdorfori
Aniline dyes (Giemsa or Wright stain)
46
What are the animal reservoirs of B. burgdorfori
1. White-footed mouse | 2. White-tailed deer
47
What tick transmits B. burgdorfori?
Deer ticks Ixodes scapularis Ixodes pacificus
48
[Stage og Lyme Disease] Erythema chronicum migrans
Stage 1
49
[Stage og Lyme Disease] AV block
Stage 2
50
[Stage og Lyme Disease] Onion skin, acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans
Late Stage
51
What are the SSx of Lyme disease
1. Bells palsy 2. Arthritis 3. Kardiak block 4. Erythema chronicum migran
52
What is the DOC for Lyme disease
1. Doxycycline
53
"Sheperd's crook'
L. interrogans
54
Leptospires enter the human body by penetrating thorugh ___
intac mucous membrane
55
The meningitis and glomerulonephritis in Leptospirosis is due to
Immune complex deposition
56
Best source to detect organism in early stages of letospirosis
Bood, CSF
57
What is the gold standard to detect leptospirosis?
LeptoMAT
58
What is the CXR finding in leptospirosis with pulmonary involvement?
Snow-flake lesions
59
Asceptic meningitis due to leptospirosis coincides with ____
appearance of Ab titers
60
What is the triad of Weild Syndrome?
Jaundice Bleeding Uremia
61
Chlamydia trachomatis grow in ____
Cycloheximide culture
62
What are your obligate intracellular bacteria
1. Ricketssia | 2. Chlamydia
63
___ form of Chlamydia that is inactive, extracelular and enters via endocytosis
``` Elementary body Extracellular Enactive Enters via Endocytosis ```
64
____ form of Chlamydia that is metabolically active, and intracellular
Reticulate Body
65
What is the most common cause of STD overall?
Chlamydia
66
___ inclusions associated with Trachoma/Chlamydia Trachomatis
Halberstadter-Prowazek Inclusion Round to oval near the nuclei of cinjunctival epithelial cells in trachoma
67
Trachoma can lead to ____
chronic infection and keratoconjunctivitis then to blindness
68
Most common cause of non-gonoccocal urethritis in males
C. trachomatis
69
Neonatal pneumonia due to C. trachomatis can present as
1. Stricking tachypnea 2. Paroxysmal cough (staccato cough) 3. Abscence of fever 4. Eosinophilia
70
__ test to check for C. tranchomatis (LGV) by intradermal injection of antigen
Frei test
71
__ cause atypical pneumonia and associated with atherosclerosis
C. pneumoniae

Infectious Disease (OSI type) (24 decks)

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