Virology - Microbio Handout Flashcards

(209 cards)

1
Q

DNA virus that is not icosahedral

A

Poxvirus

All DNA virus are icosahedral

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2
Q

RNA virus that is not helical

A

Rhabdovirus - bullet shape

Only RNA virus have helical symmetry

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3
Q

RNA virus wuth icosahedral symmetry

A
  1. PIcorna
  2. Toga
  3. Calici
  4. Hepevirus
  5. REovirus
  6. Flavivirus
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4
Q

[Viral protein]

attachment to host cell

A

surface protein

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5
Q

[Viral protein]

interaction between nucleocapsid and envelope

A

matrix protein

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6
Q

The viral envelope is a lipid membrane that is derived from ___ cell

A

host cell

acquired through budding

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7
Q

Virus that acquired their envelope from nuclear membrane

A

Herpesvirus

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8
Q

Examples of Naked Viruses

A
  1. Calici
  2. Picorna
  3. Reo
  4. Parvo
  5. Adeno
  6. Papilloma
  7. Polyoma

NAKED CPR PAPP

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9
Q

Name the Naked DNA viruses

A
  1. Papilloma
  2. Adeno
  3. Parvo
  4. Polyo

PAPP

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10
Q

Name the naked RNA viruses

A
  1. Calici
  2. Picorna
  3. Reo
  4. Hepe

CPRH

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11
Q

___ space between the nucleocapsid and envelope

A

Tegument

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12
Q

All viruses are haploid except

A

Retrovirus

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13
Q

Name the RNA virus with segmented genome

A
  1. Bunya
  2. Orthomyxo
  3. Arena
  4. Reo

BOAR

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14
Q

To transcribe negative strand to positive strand, these viruses carry what enzyme

A

RNA-dependent polymerase

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15
Q

__ stranded RNA viruses looks like a mRNA thus it can be translated by the host RNA

A

Positive strand

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16
Q

What are your negative stranded RNA virus?

A
  1. Arena
  2. Bunya
  3. Para
  4. Ortho
  5. Filo
  6. Rhabdo

Always Bring Polymerase Or Fail Replication

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17
Q

Which DNA virus has a single stranded DNA genome?

A

Parvo

Most DNA viruses have both positive and negative strand

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18
Q

This double-stranded DNA has a complex structural protein which look like a box

A

Pox = box

All dsDNA have icosahedral symmetry

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19
Q

Between negative and positive strand, which strand is used for transcription to mRNA?

A

Negative strand

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20
Q

[Virus life cycle]

Cite the life cycle of the virus

A
  1. Adsorption
  2. Penetration and Uncoating
  3. Synthesis (DNA/RNA)
  4. Assembly
  5. Release
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21
Q

[Receptors used by viruses]

CMV

A

integrins (heparan sulfate)

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22
Q

[Receptors used by viruses]

EBV

A

CD21

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23
Q

[Receptors used by viruses]

HIV

A
  1. CD4
  2. CXCR4
  3. CCR5
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24
Q

[Receptors used by viruses]

Parvovirus B19

A

P antigen on RBC

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25
[Receptors used by viruses] Rabies
Nicotinic AChR
26
[Receptors used by viruses] Rhinovirus
ICAM-1
27
What are examples of your virulence factors?
1. Cytokine decoys (bind to and block cytokines) 2. Virokines 3. Antigenic variants
28
Presence of IgM in serologic test means that the there is ___ infection
Current
29
Presence of IgG in serology means that there is ___ infection
past
30
What is the gold standard in viral diagnosis?
Presence of viral DNA or RNA
31
What are examples of your live vaccines?
MISS CRY 1. MMR 2. Influenza 3. Smallpox 4. Sabin polio 5. Chicken pox 6. Rotavirus 7. Yellow fever
32
What are examples of your killed vaccines?
1. Rabies 2. Influenza (injected) 3. Salk polio 4. Hep A
33
[DNA virus] Cite examples of DNA virus
1. Hepadna 2. Herpes 3. Herpes 4. Adeno 5. Pox 6. Parvo 7. Polyoma 8. Papilloma
34
All DNA viruses have double stranded DNA except
Parvovirus
35
All DNA viruses have linear DNA except
1. Hepadna 2. Polyoma 3. Papilloma
36
All DNA viruses are icosahedral except
Pox
37
All DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus except
Pox
38
[DNA Virus] causes 5th disease
Parvovirus B19
39
[Diagnose] bright red cheek rash fever coryza sore throat
Parvovirus 5th Disease
40
[DNA Virus] can cause aplastic crisis especially in children with sickle cell anemia, thalassemia, spherocytosis
Parvovirus Chronic B19 infection can cause pancytopenia
41
[DNA Virus] can cause hydrops fetalis 2nd trimester
parvovirus B19
42
[DNA Virus] only virus with fiber
adenovirus
43
[DNA Virus] adenoviridae can cause ___ cystitis
hemorrhagic cystits
44
[DNA Virus] Adenoviridae is Cowdry type ___ intranuclear inclusions
Type B
45
[DNA Virus] HPV affects what genes?
Gene E6 = inhibit p53 | Gene E7 = inhibit Rb
46
[DNA Virus] HPV strain that can cause skin and plantar warts
HPV 1-4 Tx if Skin: liquid nitrogen Tx if plantar: salicylic acid
47
[DNA Virus] HPV strain that can cause condyloma acuminata
HPV 6, 11 Tx: podophyllin
48
[DNA Virus] can cause cervical, penile, anal CA
HPV 16, 18, 31, 33
49
[DNA Virus] Can cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy in patients with AIDS
JC polyoma virus Demyelinating, affects oligodendrocytes - deficit speech, coordination, memory
50
[DNA Virus] can cause hemorrhagic cystitis and nephropathy in patients with solid organ (kidney) and bone marrow transplant
BK polyoma virus
51
[DNA Virus] Cause stomatitis, herpes labialis temporal lobe encephalitis
HSV1
52
[DNA Virus] cause herpes genitalis
HSV 2
53
[DNA Virus] infectious mononucleosis
EBV
54
[DNA Virus] cause congenital mononunucleosis
CMV
55
[DNA Virus] can cause kaposi sarcoma
HHV 8
56
[DNA Virus] Site of latency of HSV 1
trigeminal ganglia
57
[DNA Virus] Site of latency of HSV 2
lumbosacral ganglia
58
[DNA Virus] Giving of acyclovir to patients with HSV will lead to __
1. Shortens duration 2. Reduce extent of shedding 3. No effect on the latent state
59
[DNA Virus] VZV becomes latent in which part of the body?
dorsal root ganglia
60
[Diagnose] Vesicular centrifugal rash dewdrop on a rose petal cause reye syndrome
varicella Tx: acyclovir
61
[Diagnose] facial nerve paralysis after a varicela infection
Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
62
[DNA Virus] CMV virus is cultured where
shell tubes Owl's eye
63
[DNA Virus] CMV has a __ heterophil test
negative
64
What are the features of congenital CMV infection? most common cause of congenital abnormalities
1. Microcephaly 2. Seizures 3. Deafness 4. Jaundice 5. Purpura
65
What is the DOC for CMV?
Ganciclovir CMV is largely resistant to acyclovir
66
[DNA Virus] EBV preferentially infects what lymphocytes?
B lymphocyte
67
[DNA Virus] "Kissing disease"
Infectious mononucleosis = EBV
68
[DNA Virus] what is a rare complication of infectious mononucleosis?
splenic rupture
69
[DNA Virus] What are the associated malignancies in EBV common in african people?
Burkitt Lymphoma
70
[DNA Virus] What CA is associated with EBV infection that is common in chinese people?
NPCA
71
[DNA Virus] CA in HIV patients that is associated with EBV infection
Hairy Leukoplakia
72
[DNA Virus] rose-clored macules appear AFTER a high fever with erythematous papules on soft palate and base of uvula
HHV-6 = Roseola = Exanthem Subitum = 6th disease
73
Nagayama spots refer to?
erythematous papules on soft palate and base of uvula
74
[DNA Virus] red or purple patches on the skin
Kaposi = HHV 8
75
[DNA Virus] Classic kaposi sarcoma affects middle aged and elderly men of what race
Mediterranean/Ashkenazi Jews
76
[DNA Virus] Due to their similarity, kaposi sarcoma should be differentiated from ____
bacillary angiomatosis (bartonella)
77
[DNA Virus] Largest DNA virus
poxviridae Only virus that is complex
78
[DNA Virus] Guarnieri bodies
small pox
79
[DNA Virus] Henderson-Paterson bodies
Molluscum contangiosusm
80
[DNA Virus] What is the DOC for molluscum contangiosum
Cidofovir
81
[DNA Virus] Hepatitis virus with incomplete circular double-stranded DNA
hepatitis B
82
[DNA Virus] ___ only DNA virus that produces DNA by reverse transcriptase with mRNA as the template
Hep B IT HAS NO CYTOPATHIC EFFECT
83
[DNA Virus] What is the soluble component of the viral core (in HBV)
HBeAg
84
[DNA Virus] What is the DOC for HBV?
1. Interferon alpha | 2. Lamivudine
85
What virus is associated with polyarteritis nodosa?
HBV
86
All RNA viruses have single stranded DNA except
1. Reo | 2. Rota
87
All DNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm except
1. Retro | 2. Influenza
88
[RNA Virus] What are examples of your Picornaviridae viruses?
1. Poliovirus 2. Echovirus 3. Rhinovirus 4. Coxsackie 5. Hep A 6. Picorna PERCHed on a PIC
89
[RNA Virus] Poliovirus replicates in which part of the body
Motor neurons in anterior horn of the spinal cord
90
[Polio spectrum of disease] most common clinical form, mild, febrile illness with headache, sore throat, nausea, vomiting
Abortive poliomyelitis
91
[Polio spectrum of disease] flaccid paralysis, permanent motor nerve damage
paralytic poliomyelitis
92
Polio virus is classified as Cowdry type ___ intranuclear inclusion
Type B
93
Polio vaccine that is live, attenuated?
Sabin OPV
94
[Salk/Sabin] induces intestinal IgA, affords secondary protection
Sabin
95
[Salk/Sabin] interrupts transmission, interferes replication,
Sabin
96
[Salk/Sabin] Induces humoral IgG
Salk
97
[RNA Virus] Vesicular rash on hands and feet ulceration in the mouth
HFMD Coxsackie virus
98
[RNA Virus] Fever, sore throat, tender vesicle in oropharynx no vesicular rash on hands and feet
Coxsackie - Herpengina
99
[RNA Virus] Most common cause of viral myocarditis and pericarditis
Coxsackie
100
[RNA Virus] most common cause of asceptic meningitis
Coxsackie
101
[RNA Virus] Rhinovirus replicate better at what temperature?
33 deg C
102
[RNA Virus] What is the most important test to detect Hep A
Anti-HAV IgM
103
[RNA Virus] Also known as enterovirus 72
HAV
104
[RNA Virus] Hepatitis E has a high mortality in this special group
pregnat
105
[RNA Virus] most common cause of nonbacterial diarrhea in ADULTS
Norovirus
106
[RNA Virus] most common cause of childhood diarrhea
Rotavirus - Reoviridae
107
[RNA Virus] the type of diarrhea in rotavirus infection?
Malabsorption NOT SECRETORY
108
[RNA Virus] What are the major antigens in influenza?
1. Hemeagglutinin | 2. Neuraminidase
109
[RNA Virus] What influenza strain can cause worldwide epidemics?
Influenza A
110
[RNA Virus] What influenza strain can cause outbreaks?
Influenza B
111
[RNA Virus] in influenza, what enzyme cleaves the membrane to release progeny virus from infected cell?
Neuraminidase
112
[RNA Virus] in influenza, what binds to the cell to the cell surface receptor to initiate infection of the cell
Hemagglutinin
113
[RNA Virus] In influenza, what is the target of neutralizing antibody
Hemagglutinin
114
[RNA Virus] Which influenza virus has no animal source of new RNA segments?
Influenza B
115
Influenza pandemics are caused by ___ (shift/drift)
Antigenic Shift
116
Epidemics are caused by ___ (shift/drigt)
Antigenic drifts
117
What is the DOC for influenza A?
Amantadine | Rimantadine
118
What is the DOC for Influenza in general?
Oseltamivir | Zanamivir
119
What is the potential CNS complication of measles?
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
120
What are you paramyxoviruses?
1. Parainfluenza 2. RSV 3. Measles 4. Mumps
121
[RNA Virus] Warthin-Finkeldey bodies
Measles
122
Measles transiently depress ___ (cell-mediated/humoral)?
cell-mediated immunity
123
[RNA Virus] Koplik spots
MEASLES
124
[Diagnose] bright red lesions in a white, central dot on buccal mucosa maculopapular rash on the face, trunk, palms, sols cough, eye redness, stringy eye discharge,
Measles
125
[RNA Virus] What vitamin reduces severity of measles infection?
Vitamin A
126
[RNA Virus] Mumps initially travel to what organ prior to invading the blood stream?
local lymph nodes
127
[RNA Virus] increased pain when drinking citrus juice, swelling of parotid glands
Mumps
128
What are the complications of Mumps?
1. Parotitis 2. Orchitis 3. Meningitis (asceptiv)
129
[RNA Virus] What are the spikes of RSV virus?
Fusion proteins not hemagglutinins or neuraminidase
130
What is the most important cause of bronchiolitis in infants?
RSV
131
What is the most important cause of pneumonia in infants
RSV
132
Severe RSV disease in infants is due to immunologic cross reaction with what antibodies?
Maternal antibodies
133
[Diagnose] inspiratory stridor, cough, hoarseness, steeple sign
Croup = LTB = Parainfluenza Virus
134
[RNA Virus] Wine bottle sign
Croup = LTB = Parainfluenza
135
[RNA Virus] bullet shaped
rabies
136
[RNA Virus] negri bodies
rabies
137
[RNA Virus] Rabies virus moves ___ to CNS
axonal transport virus spreads centripetally up the nerve to the CNS
138
[RNA Virus] Rabies stays in the ___ (gray/white) matter of the brain
Gray
139
[RNA Virus] What are the prodromal symptoms suggestive of rabies?
1. Paresthesia | 2. Fasciculations at around the bite site
140
[RNA Virus] ___ phase of rabies Excessive motor activity, excitation, agitation, periods of mental abberation, lucid intervals
Encephalitic phase
141
[RNA Virus] ____ testing i demonstrates rabies antibodies from the CSF
Flourescent Antibody Testing
142
What is the preferred test to detect rabies if the sample is from the saliva?
RT-PCR
143
What is the optimal sample for definitive post mortem diagnosis of rabies in animal
brain
144
What is the reservoir of coronavirus?
Horseshoe bat
145
What is the intermediate host of coronavirus?
civet cat
146
Coronavirus causing atypical pneumonia preferentially binds to what receptor
ACE-2
147
What is the characteristic x-ray of coronavirus pneumonia?
non-cavitary ground glass appearance
148
What transmits dengue virus?
Aedes aegypti mosquito
149
[RNA Virus] breakbone fever
dengue
150
[RNA Virus] hemorrhagic shock in dengue is due to
increased cross-reacting antibody during 2nd dengue infection
151
[RNA Virus] Hepatitis virus with hypervariable region in envelope glycoprotein
Hep C
152
[RNA Virus] What are the serologic markers to diagnose Hep C virus?
1. Anti-HCV | 2. HCV RNA
153
What is the most prevalent blood-borne pathogen
Hep C
154
Replication of hep C virus in the liver is enhanced by ___
liver specific micro RNA
155
[RNA Virus] Hep C has an autoimmune reactions with what porphyrin subtype
porphyria cutanea tarda
156
What is the main cause of essential mixed cryoglobulinemia
Hep C
157
[Diagnose] Fever 3 day maculopapular rash + posterior auricular LAD
German measles = rubella
158
[RNA Virus] can cause immune complex polyarthritis in adults
rubella = german measles
159
[RNA Virus] What are the associated abnormalities in Congenital Rubella Syndrome?
1. PDA 2. Congenital cataracts 3. Sensorineural deafness 4. Mental retardation
160
[RNA Virus] What is the fusion protein in HIV?
gp 41
161
[RNA Virus] What is the surface protein of HIV?
gp120
162
p24 refers to the ___ of HIV
icosahedral core
163
[RNA Virus] what directs the entry of the dsDNA provirus into the nucleus
MA (p17)
164
[RNA Virus] HIV RNA is tightly complexed with a basic protein called ___
NC p7
165
[HIV proviral genome] What is the binding site for host transcription factors?
LTR
166
[HIV proviral genome] what codes for reverse transcriptase, protease, integrase, ribonuclease
pol
167
[HIV proviral genome] what codes for capsid, matrix protein, nucleocapsid protein
gag
168
[HIV proviral genome] what codes to promote infectivity of cell-free virus
vif
169
[HIV proviral genome] what is its transcriptional activator
vpr
170
[HIV proviral genome] what encodes for efficient virion budding
vpu
171
[HIV proviral genome] what codes for envelope glycoproteins
env
172
[HIV proviral genome] what is essential for efficient viral replication
nef
173
[HIV proviral genome] what regulate the structural gene expression
tat, rev
174
[HIV proviral genome] gag encodes for
1. p17 2. p24 3. p7 4. p9
175
[HIV proviral genome] pol encodes for
1. Protease 2. Reverse transcriptase 3. Endonuclease
176
[HIV proviral genome] env encodese for
1. gp 160 | 2. gp 160 splits into gp 120 and gp41
177
[HIV] protein component of nucleocapsid
p24, p7
178
[HIV] protein component of matrix
p17
179
[HIV] protein in which antigenicity changes rapidly
gp120
180
[HIV] serologic markers detect antibodies against this protein
p24
181
[HIV] in gp120, which part is the most immunogenic region
V3 loop
182
[HIV] antibody to this neutralizes HIV infectivity
gp120
183
[HIV] what protein activates transcription of viral genes?
tat
184
[HIV] what protein transport of late mRNAs to cytoplasm
rev
185
[HIV] what protein enhances hypermutation
vif
186
[HIV] what protein transport in nondividing cells
vpr
187
[HIV] enhances virion release
vpu
188
[HIV Phase] rapid viral replication, HIV test negative
phase 1
189
[HIV Phase] peak of viral load, positive HIV test, mild flu-like illness
phase 2 seroconversion
190
[HIV Phase] asymptomatic, CD4 goes down
latent
191
[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level] HSV esophagitis
<500
192
[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level] esophageal candidiasis
<500
193
[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level] kaposi sarcoma
<500
194
[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level] disseminated TB
<500
195
[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level] cerebral toxiplasmosis
<200
196
[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level] coccidiodomycosis
<200
197
[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level] chronic diarrhea
<200 C. parvum
198
[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level] meningoencephalitis
<200 C. neoformans
199
[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level] invasive pulmonary disease
<50 M. avium
200
[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level] histoplasmosis
<50 H. capsulatum
201
[AIDS defining illness: CD4 level] CMV retinitis
<50
202
Presumptive diagnosis is detected via
ELISA
203
Definitive diagnosis of HIV?
Western blot
204
[Diagnosis] flower shaped nucleus
HTLV
205
[Diagnosis] retrovirus causing adult Tcell leukemia and mmyelopathy
HTLV
206
[Diagnosis] Thread like virus
Ebola
207
[Diagnosis] most common cause of epidemic encephalitis
Japanese B encephalitis
208
[Diagnosis] JE encephalitis presents as ___ in CT
thalamic infarcts
209
[Diagnosis] JE encephalitis is transmitted by
Culex mosquito