METABOLIC PROFILE DRUGS - Immunotropic & Antiallergic Agents Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in METABOLIC PROFILE DRUGS - Immunotropic & Antiallergic Agents Deck (58):
1

True or False. Immune system is the integrated body system of organs, tissues, cells, and cell products that differentiates self from nonself and neutralizes potentially pathogenic organisms or substances.

TRUE

2

True or False. Antigen is any of various substances, including toxins, bacteria, and the cells of transplanted organs, that when introduced into the body stimulate the production of antibodies. It is also called an allergen or immunogen.

TRUE

3

True or False. Antibody is a protein substance produced in the blood or tissues in response to a specific antigen, such as a bacterium or a toxin that destroys or weakens bacteria and neutralizes organic poisons, thus forming the basis of immunity.

TRUE

4

Innate immunity refers to

Antigen-nonspecific defense mechanisms that a host uses immediately or within several hours after exposure to an antigen. This is the immunity one is born with and is the initial response by the body to eliminate microbes and prevent infection

5

Adaptive (acquired) immunity refers to

Antigen-specific defense mechanisms that take several days to become protective and are designed to react with and remove a specific antigen. This is the immunity one develops throughout life

6

Allergic reaction is

A local or generalized reaction of an organism to internal or external contact with a specific allergen to which the organism has been previously sensitized

7

Immediate allergy reaction (type I allergic reaction) is

An allergic or immune response that begins within a period lasting from a few minutes to about an hour after exposure to an antigen to which the individual has been sensitized

8

Delayed allergy reaction (type IV allergic reaction) is

An allergic reaction that becomes apparent only hours after contact

9

Immunodeficiency

A disorder or deficiency of the normal immune response

10

True or False. Anaphylactic shock is a severe, sometimes fatal allergic reaction characterized by a sharp drop in blood pressure, urticaria, and breathing difficulties that is caused by exposure to a foreign substance, such as a drug or bee venom, after preliminary or sensitizing exposure.

TRUE

11

H1 histamine receptor subtype is distributed in

Smooth muscle, endothelium and brain

12

H2 histamine receptor subtype is distributed in

Gastric mucosa, cardiac muscle, mast cells and brain

13

Most tissue histamine is sequestered and bound in

- Granules in mast cells or basophils
- Cell bodies of histaminergic neurons
- Enterochromaffin-like cell of the fondus of the stomach

14

These categories of histamine H1 antagonists are noted for sedative effects

- Ethanolamines (aminoalkyl ethers); i.e. Dimedrol, Clistin
- Ethylenediamines; i.e. Suprastine
- Phenothiazines; i.e. Diprazine, Promethazine

15

Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the best antiemetic action?

Ethanolamines (aminoalkyl ethers); i.e. Doxylamine

16

These categories of histamine H1 antagonists are noted for the anticholinergic effect

- Alkylamines (propylamines); i.e. Brompheniramine
- Ethylenediamines; i.e. Suprastine
- Phenothiazines; i.e. Diprazine, Promethazine

17

Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the alpha-adrenoreceptor-blocking effect?

Phenothiazines; i.e. Diprazine, Promethazine

18

Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the highest local anesthetic effect?

Phenothiazines; i.e. Promethazine

19

Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is recognized for as second-generation antihistamines?

Piperidines; i.e. Loratadine, Fexofenadine

20

These histamine H1 antagonists are recognized for as second-generation antihistamines

- Astemizole
- Loratadine (Claritin)
- Cetirizine (Zyrtec)

21

Which of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the serotonin-blocking effect?

Cyproheptadine

22

Which histamine H1 antagonists is a long-acting (up to 24-48 h) antihistamine drug?

Diazoline

23

Which of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the ulcerogenic effect?

Diazoline

24

Indication for administration of histamine H1 antagonists is

- Prevention or treatment of the symptoms of allergic reactions (rhinitis, urticaria)
- Motion sickness and vestibular disturbances
- Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy (“morning sickness”)

25

Indications for administration of histamine H1 antagonists are

- Prevention or treatment of the symptoms of allergic reactions (rhinitis, urticaria)
- Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy (“morning sickness”)
- Treatment of sleep disorders

26

Side effect of first-generation histamine H1 antagonists is

Sedation

27

True or False. For those first-generation histamine H1 antagonists that cause significant sedation, addition of other drugs that cause central nervous system depression produces additive effects and is contraindicated while driving or operating machinery.

TRUE

28

True or False. Immunosuppressive drug is any of a variety of substances used to prevent production of antibodies, protein produced by the immune system in response to the presence in the body of antigens: foreign proteins or polysaccharides such as bacteria, bacterial toxins, viruses, or other cells or proteins.

TRUE

29

Immunosupressive effect of glucocorticoids is caused by

Reducing concentration of lymphocytes (T and B cells) and inhibiting function of tissue macrophages and
other antigen-presenting cells

30

Antiallergic effect of glucocorticoids is caused by

- Suppression of leukocyte migration and stabilizing lysosomal membranes
- Reverse the capillary permeability associated with histamine release
- Suppression of the immune response by inhibiting antibody synthesis

31

The Immunosuppressive agent is

- Corticosteroids
- Cyclosporine
- Tacrolimus (FK 506)

32

Class of cyclosporine A is

Immunosuppressive agents

33

Mechanism of action of cyclosporine A is

Inhibits calcineurin

34

Side effect of cyclosporine A is

- Tremor
- GI disturbance
- Hepatotoxicity

35

Side effect of cyclosporine A is

Tremor

36

Side effect of cyclosporine A is

GI disturbance

37

Indication of cyclosporine A is

Idiopathic nephrotic syndrome

38

Half-life of cyclosporine A is

19 hours

39

Class of I.V. IgG preparation is

Immunoglobulins

40

Mechanism of action of I.V. IgG preparation is

Compete for Fc receptors with autoantibodies

41

Half-life of I.V. IgG preparation is:

21 days

42

Indication for I.V. IgG preparation administration is

Prophylaxis of certain infections

43

Cytotoxic agents are

- Azathioprine
- Leflunomide
- Cyclophosphamide

44

Class of sirolimus (rapamycin) is

Immunosuppressive agents

45

Mechanism of action of sirolimus (rapamycin) is

Inhibits calcineurin

46

Monoclonal antibodies is

- Trastuzumab
- Rituximab
- OKT-3

47

Class of OKT-3 is

Monoclonal antibodies

48

Half-life of OKT-3 is

18-24 hours

49

The indication for interferon gamma administration is

Chronic granulomatous disease

50

The side effect of interferon gamma is

Fatigue

51

Half-life of interferon gamma is

25-35 minutes

52

Half-life of interferon alpha is

4-16 hours

53

The indication for interferon alpha administration is

- Hepatitis C virus infection
- Kaposi's sarcoma
- Condyloma acuminatum

54

Class of tacrolimus (FK-506) is

Immunosuppressive agents

55

Mechanism of action of tacrolimus (FK-506) is

Inhibits calcineurin

56

Immunomodulating agent is

Levamisole

57

Immunomodulating agents are

Tacrolimus (FK-506)

58

Mechanism of action of levamisole is

Increase the number of T-cells

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