Test 4 - HIV Medications (Josh) Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Test 4 - HIV Medications (Josh) Deck (40)
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1
Q

HIV causes a weakened immune system by killing which type of cells?

A

CD4 T Lymphocytes

2
Q

HIV causes a weakened immune system by killing which type of cells?

A

CD4 T Lymphocytes

3
Q

True or False: HIV puts patients at increased risk for certain cancers.

A

True

4
Q

What CD4 T-cell count is needed for an HIV patient to be calcified as AIDS?

A

Below 200

5
Q

What CD4 T-cell count is needed for an HIV patient to be calcified as AIDS?

A

Below 200

6
Q

True or False: HIV puts patients at increased risk for certain cancers.

A

True

7
Q

What is the technical definition of AIDS?

A

A syndrome in which the individual is HIV positive and has either
(1) CD4 T-cell counts below 200 cells/mL
or
(2) an AIDS-defining illness

8
Q

What CD4 T-cell count is needed for an HIV patient to be calcified as AIDS?

A

Below 200

9
Q

True or False: Patients compliant with ART can become noncontagious.

A

False

  • there is no cure for HIV and clients are still contagious
10
Q

Today, standard antiretroviral therapy (ART) consists of how many drugs?

A

3 or 4

  • often called HAART (Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy)
11
Q

What does HAART mean?

A

Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy

12
Q

True or False: Current drug therapy can decrease plasma HIV to levels that are undetectable with current technology

A

True

13
Q

True or False: Patients compliant with ART can become noncontagious.

A

False

  • there is no cure for HIV and clients are still contagious
14
Q

HIV is a retrovirus. What do retroviruses lack?

A

they lack the machinery needed for SELF-REPLICATION

therefore they are obligate intracellular viruses

15
Q

Why is it essential that clients be treated with a combination of antiretroviral drugs?

A

To minimize the emergence of resistance due to the fact that their are so many virus cells in the body in initial stage (and the more cells, the more likely one will be resistant)

16
Q

Which type of HIV is most common in the USA?

A

HIV-1

17
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of acute retroviral syndrome?

A
  • Fever
  • Lymphadenopathy (swollen lymph nodes)
  • pharyngitis
  • rash
  • myalgia
  • headache
18
Q

What is the name for the initial stage when the virus replication is massive?

A

Acute Retroviral Syndrome

19
Q

Why is it essential that clients be treated with a combination of antiretroviral drugs?

A

To minimize the emergence of resistance due to the fact that their are so many virus cells in the body in initial stage (and the more cells, the more likely one will be resistant)

20
Q

Types of Antiretroviral Drugs:

A
  • Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTIs & NNRTIs)
  • Integrate Strand Transfer Inhibitors (INSTIs)
  • Protease Inhibitors (PI)
  • Fusion Inhibitors
  • Chemokine Receptor 5 (CCR5) Antagonists
21
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of acute retroviral syndrome?

A
  • Fever
  • Lymphadenopathy (swollen lymph nodes)
  • pharyngitis
  • rash
  • myalgia
  • headache
22
Q

The average duration that people with HIV are asymptomatic is _______ years.

A

10 years

23
Q

At this time we have _______ types of antiretroviral drugs.

A

5

24
Q

Types of Antiretroviral Drugs:

A
  • Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors
  • Integrate Strand Transfer Inhibitors (INSTIs)
  • Protease Inhibitors
  • Fusion Inhibitors
  • Chemokine Receptor 5 (CCR5) Antagonists
25
Q

MOA: Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors

A

Interfere with HIV DNA replication. These do this by either binding to the DNA strand and causing premature termination, or binding to the enzyme that is building the DNA strand

26
Q

What are five major adverse effects of the protease inhibitors?

A
  • Hyperglycemia/Diabetes
  • Fat Redistribution (central obesity but wasting of fat in the face)
  • Hyperlipidemia
  • Increased Bleeding (in people w/ hemophilia)
  • Reduced Bone Marrow Density
  • Elevation of serum Transaminases
27
Q

Most patients take two _______ combined with either a _______ or _______.

A

NRTIs

PI or NNRTI

28
Q

MOA: Fusion Inhibitors & CCR5 Antagonists

A

block HIV from entering CD4T cells.

29
Q

Which antiretroviral were the first used and remain the backbone of therapy today?

A

NRTIs (Nucleoside/Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors

30
Q

What are five major adverse effects of the protease inhibitors?

A
  • Hyperglycemia/Diabetes
  • Fat Redistribution (similar to Cushing’s)
  • Hyperlipidemia
  • Increased Bleeding (in people w/ hemophilia)
  • Reduced Bone Marrow Density
  • Elevation of serum Transaminases
31
Q

Most patients take two _______ combined with either a _______ or _______.

A

NRTIs

PI or NNRTI

32
Q

Which lab test is a major factor in deciding when to initiate retroviral therapy and when to change the drug regiment?

A

CD4 Count

33
Q

Which lab test is the best measurement available for predicting clinical outcomes?

A

HIV RNA

34
Q

The goal of therapy is to decrease HIV RNA plasma levels to below what value?

A

20-75 copies/mL of plasma

35
Q

True or False: When a client’s plasma HIV RNA is undetectable, they can still transmit HIV to other people.

A

True

36
Q

When zidovudine is given IV to the mother during labor and delivery, and then IV or PO to the infant, the rate of HIV transmission is _________________________.

A

Essentially zero

37
Q

Oral preexposure prophylaxis can reduce infection risk by _______________.

A

44-73%

38
Q

When should postexposure prophylaxis be initiated?

A

ASAP, preferably within 1-2 hours and no later than 72 hours

39
Q

In the absence of antiretroviral drugs, the rate of perinatal transmission of HIV in the United States is _______%.

A

25%

40
Q

When zidovudine is given IV to the mother during labor and delivery, and then IV or PO to the infant, the rate of HIV transmission is _________________________.

A

Essentially zero