(17) Micro 1 SLO Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in (17) Micro 1 SLO Deck (46):
1

Adapalene (Differin) has an unknown mechanism for acne. It behaves like:
A. A corticosteroid
B. An alpha 1 blocker
C. A retinoid
D. An anti-androgen agent
E. An anticholinergic antispasmodic

A retinoid

2

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) coadministered with __?__ is potentially fatal.
A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
B. None of the listed drugs, Cipro is a very safe drug
C. All the listed drugs are potentially hazardous with Cipro
D. Theophylline (Theo-24)
E. NSAIDs

Theophylline (Theo-24)

3

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) increases the risk of tendon rupture in patients __?__
A. Older than 60 yrs
B. Who have had a transplant
C. Taking corticosteroids
D. With a history of seizures
E. A, B & C, not D

A, B & C, not D

4

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) should be used with caution in patients:
A. Who are older than 60 years
B. With a history of seizures
C. Who have had a transplant surgery or are taking chronic corticosteroids
D. Have Myasthenia gravis
E. All the above

All the above

5

Cocci and bacilli are bacterial shapes, cocci are __?__, bacilli are __?__
A. chains/clusters
B. spirals/balls
C. rods/spheres
D. spheres/rods
E. groups of 2/groups of four

spheres/rods

6

Coffee and other caffeinated beverages should be discouraged with ciprofloxacin due to the risk of __?__.
A. Shock
B. Seizures
C. Sedation
D. Stroke
E. Suicide

Seizures

7

Doxazosin (Cardura) & Tamsulosin (Flomax) treat BPH because they are:
A. Anticholinergic antispasmodics
B. Beta blockers
C. Retinoids
D. Anti-androgen agents
E. Alpha 1 blockers

Alpha 1 blockers

8

Finasteride (Proscar, Propecia) treats BPH because it is:
A. A beta blocker
B. A retinoid
C. An anti-androgen agent
D. A corticosteroid
E. An alpha-1 blocker

An anti-androgen agent

9

Fluoroquinolones (Cipro) are bactericidal and work by:
A. Inhibiting cell wall formation
B. Directly blocking protein synthesis
C. Inhibiting enzymes involved with DNA synthesis and metabolism
D. Interfering with metabolism
E. Damaging RNA

Inhibiting enzymes involved with DNA synthesis and metabolism

10

Identify the basis of Sulfonamide antibacterial activity:
A. They have local anesthetic action
B. They are analogs and antagonists of PABA. The end result is inhibition of DNA synthesis but they are classified as inhibitors of metabolism.
C. They protect the bladder wall
D. They react with RNA, damage DNA, interfere with cell wall synthesis, and interfere with CBH metabolism…
E. They alter the pH of urine

They are analogs and antagonists of PABA. The end result is inhibition of DNA synthesis but they are classified as inhibitors of metabolism.

11

Isotretinoin (Accutane, Sotret) has an unknown mechanism to treat severe acne. It is:
A. An alpha 1 blocker
B. A retinoid
C. A beta blocker
D. An anti-androgen agent
E. An anticholinergic antispasmodic

A retinoid

12

Isotretinoin should be taken with __?__?
A. An antacid
B. Every meal
C. Vitamin A
D. Fatty food
E. Water

Fatty food

13

Methylene blue is associated with __?__
A. Hypotension
B. Allergic reactions, acute renal failure, and rash.
C. MAOI activity
D. Peripheral neuropathies and GI upset.
E. Heparin-like anticoagulant activity.

MAOI activity

14

Methylene blue works by:
A. Protecting the bladder mucosa
B. Reacting with RNA, damaging DNA, interfering with cell wall synthesis, and interfering with CBH metabolism…
C. Altering urine pH
D. Providing local anesthetic activity
E. Acting as an analog and antagonist of PABA.

Altering urine pH

15

Muscarinic antagonist antispasmodics for overactive bladder are associated with __?__
A. Discoloration of the urine, headache
B. MAOI activity
C. Teratogenicity
D. Impotence
E. Constipation, confusion, headache, dry mouth & eyes

Constipation, confusion, headache, dry mouth & eyes

16

Nitrofurantoin is associated with __?__
A. Peripheral neuropathies, pulmonary interstitial fibrosis, liver dysfunction, hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients and GI upset.
B. Heparin-like anticoagulant activity.
C. Discoloration of urine, GI upset, headache and allergic reactions.
D. MAOI activity
E. Allergic reactions, hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients, acute renal failure, and rash.

Peripheral neuropathies, pulmonary interstitial fibrosis, liver dysfunction, hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients and GI upset.

17

Nitrofurantoin works by:
A. Altering urine pH
B. Protecting the bladder mucosa
C. Acting as an analog and antagonist of PABA.
D. Reacting with RNA, damaging DNA, interfering with cell wall synthesis, and interfering with CBH metabolism…
E. Having local anesthetic activity

Reacting with RNA, damaging DNA, interfering with cell wall synthesis, and interfering with CBH metabolism

18

Of the antibiotics listed, which is considered to have the “narrowest spectrum?”
A. Penicillins
B. Isoniazid
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Macrolides
E. Tetracyclines

Isoniazid

19

Pentosan polysulfate sodium (Elmiron) works by:
A. Altering urine pH
B. Reacting with RNA, damaging DNA, interfering with cell wall synthesis, and interfering with CBH metabolism…
C. Acting as an analog and antagonist of PABA.
D. Local analgesic activity
E. Protecting the bladder wall

Protecting the bladder wall

20

Pentosan polysulfate sodium is associated with __?__
A. Hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients.
B. Heparin-like anticoagulant activity
C. Discoloration of urine, GI upset, headache and allergic reactions.
D. MAOI activity
E. Peripheral neuropathies and liver dysfunction.

Heparin-like anticoagulant activity

21

Phenazopyridine (Baridium) works by:
A. Acting as a local anesthetic in the bladder
B. Acting as an analog and antagonist of PABA.
C. Altering urine pH
D. Reacting with RNA, damaging DNA, interfering with cell wall synthesis, and interfering with CBH metabolism…
E. Protecting the bladder mucosa

Acting as a local anesthetic in the bladder

22

Phenazopyridine is associated with __?__
A. MAOI activity
B. Allergic reactions, acute renal failure and rash.
C. Peripheral neuropathies and GI upset.
D. Discoloration of urine, GI upset, headache and allergic reactions.
E. Heparin-like anticoagulant activity

Discoloration of urine, GI upset, headache and allergic reactions.

23

Pregnant women should not ever handle or take:
A. Finasteride
B. Isotretinoin
C. Amoxicillin
D. A & B
E. A, B and C

A & B

24

Quinolones like Cipro are associated with __?__
A. Hemolytic anemia and allergic skin reactions.
B. Tooth discoloration (in developing permanent teeth).
C. Tendon rupture, photosensitivity, CDAD, creating resistant bacterial species, nightmares, tachycardia, and peripheral neuropathies.
D. Discoloration of the urine, GI upset and headache
E. A Disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol, decreased seizure threshold, peripheral neuropathy, increased risk of cancer especially in Crohn’s patients.

Tendon rupture, photosensitivity, CDAD, creating resistant bacterial species, nightmares, tachycardia, and peripheral neuropathies.

25

Retinoids taken systemically are associated with __?__
A. Hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients
B. MAOI activity.
C. Discoloration of urine
D. Teratogenicity
E. Impotence

Teratogenicity

26

Sulfonamides are associated with __?__
A. Allergic reactions, hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients, acute renal failure, and rash.
B. Heparin-like anticoagulant activity.
C. MAOI activity
D. Peripheral neuropathies, pulmonary interstitial fibrosis, liver dysfunction, hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients and GI upset.
E. Orange discoloration of urine, GI upset, headache and allergic reactions.

Allergic reactions, hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients, acute renal failure, and rash.

27

Sulfonamides will increase prothrombin time in combo with:
A. TCAs
B. Other antibiotics
C. Digoxin
D. Thiazide diuretics
E. Warfarin

Warfarin

28

The 5-alpha reductase inhibitors are associated with __?__
A. Impotence and hypotension
B. Peripheral neuropathies
C. Discoloration of urine, GI upset, and allergic reactions
D. Constipation, confusion, headache, dry mouth & eyes.
E. MAOI activity.

Impotence and hypotension

29

The alpha 1 blockers for BPH are associated with __?__
A. MAOI activity.
B. Acute renal failure
C. Hypotension and priapism.
D. Teratogenicity
E. Constipation, confusion, headache, dry mouth & eyes.

Hypotension and priapism.

30

The efficacy of TCAs is reduced by:
A. Nitrofurantoin
B. Phenazopyridine
C. Doxazosin
D. Tamsulosin
E. Sulfonamides

Sulfonamides

31

The plasmid is a ring of __?__ that carries genes coding for __?__
A. DNA/drug resistance
B. mRNA/proteins
C. tRNA/DNA
D. DNA/viruses
E. RNA/mRNA

DNA/drug resistance

32

The risk of tendon rupture (boxed warning) is increased when Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is given to a patient already taking __?__.
A. All the listed drugs increase the risk of tendon rupture with Cipro
B. Theophylline
C. Doxycycline
D. NSAIDs
E. Corticosteroids

Corticosteroids

33

The systemically administered retinoids are associated with __?__
A. Constipation, headache
B. Dry skin and mucous membranes, benign intracranial hypertension and psychiatric events.
C. MAOI activity.
D. Impotence
E. Heparin-like anticoagulant activity.

Dry skin and mucous membranes, benign intracranial hypertension and psychiatric events.

34

Thrombocytopenia is a serious potential side effect of mixing:
A. Phenazopyridine and cephalexin
B. Methylene blue and atropine
C. Isotretinoin and Adapalene
D. Sulfonamides and thiazide diuretics
E. Finasteride and Doxazosin

Sulfonamides and thiazide diuretics

35

What simple strategy can increase the bioavailability of nitrofurantoin by almost 50%?
A. Take with a magnesium supplement
B. Take with water
C. Take on an empty stomach
D. Take with food
E. Take with an antacid

Take with food

36

Which of the following are dyes?
A. Pentosan polysulfate and Istoretinoin
B. Isotretinoin and Nitrofurantoin
C. Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole
D. Methylene blue and Pentosan polysulfate
E. Phenazopyridine and Methylene blue

Phenazopyridine and Methylene blue

37

Which of the following classes is considered to be the most “broad spectrum” of the antibiotics listed?
A. Tetracyclines
B. Penicillins
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Isoniazid
E. Macrolides

Tetracyclines

38

Which of the following is an alpha 1 blocker that has indications for BPH and HT?
A. Solifenacin
B. Methylene blue
C. Doxazosin
D. Tamsulosin
E. Finasteride

Doxazosin

39

Which of the following is an antispasmodic?
A. VesiCare
B. Cardura
C. Elmiron
D. Macrobid
E. Flomax

VesiCare

40

Which of the following is only indicated for UTI?
A. Nitrofurantoin
B. Doxazosin
C. Trimethoprim
D. Isotretinoin
E. Adapalene

Nitrofurantoin

41

Which of the following is used to relieve the terrible burning sensation and urgency associated with a UTI?
A. Doxazosin
B. Adapalene
C. Solifenacin
D. Phenazopyridine
E. Pentosan Polysulfate

Phenazopyridine

42

Which of the following is used to treat BPH?
A. Adapalene
B. Trimethoprim
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Tamsulosin
E. Isotretinoin

Tamsulosin

43

Women taking __?__ must agree to the constraints of the iPLEDGE program which requires the use of birth control while taking this drug.
A. Isotretinoin
B. Finasteride
C. Amoxicillin
D. Nitrofurantoin
E. Trimethoprim

Isotretinoin

44

Probenecid may be given along with nitrofurantoin to:
A. Decrease the metabolism of nitrofurantoin
B. Increase the metabolism of nitrofurantoin
C. Decrease the excretion of nitrofurantoin
D. Increase the absorption of nitrofurantoin
E. Increase the excretion of nitrofurantoin

Decrease the excretion of nitrofurantoin

45

Solifenacin (VesiCare) treats incontinence because it is acting as:
A. A beta blocker
B. An anticholinergic antispasmodic
C. An anti-androgen agent
D. An alpha 1 blocker
E. A retinoid

An anticholinergic antispasmodic

46

Which of the following is indicated to treat severe recalcitrant nodular acne, in both men and women, but only women have to sign an iPLEDGE agreement?
A. Adapalene
B. Phenazopyridine
C. Finasteride
D. Isotretinoin
E. Sulfonamides

Isotretinoin