***Practice Midterm*** Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in ***Practice Midterm*** Deck (100):
1

1st generation antihistamines, like diphenydramine, are associated with __?__
A. Dry eyes, mouth and throat
B. Urinary retention
C. Sedation
D. Inability to sweat
E. All the above

All the above

2

A 30 year-old client with depression has attempted suicide by overdosing on acetaminophen. The nurse in the emergency department anticipates the use of which agent in an attempt to limit liver damage due to the acetaminophen?
A. Flumazenil
B. Neostigmine
C. Dantrolene
D. Naltrexone
E. Acetylcysteine

Acetylcysteine

3

A 65-year-old client is taking high doses of aspirin for pain related to osteoarthritis of the knee. Which of these is a toxic effect caused by aspirin that this patient should be made aware of during patient teaching as an immediate signal of overdose?
A. Tinnitus or other changes in hearing
B. Changes in taste (dysgeusia)
C. Sedation
D. Photosensitivity
E. Increased gestation time

Tinnitus or other changes in hearing

4

A client is prescribed an Advair Diskus for symptoms related to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The education provided by the nurse regarding the use of this inhaler will include:
A. Rinse your mouth out well after each use
B. It may make you sleepy
C. Stay out of the sun
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Rinse your mouth out well after each use

5

A client with asthma asks which of these prescribed medications should be used in the event of an acute episode of bronchospasm. The nurse replies, that for a typical acute asthma attack, use:
A. Epinephrine
B. Albuterol
C. Salmeterol
D. Advair Diskus
E. Montelukast

Albuterol

6

A drug name ends in "pril," what is the drug class?
A. ACEI
B. NSAID
C. LOX inhibitor
D. LT Receptor blocker
E. ARB

ACEI

7

A high fat meal can substantially reduce the absorption of the DRI drug called __?__.
A. Promethazine
B. Aliskiren
C. Benazepril
D. Ibuprofen
E. Diphenhydramine

Aliskiren

8

A trade name like "Benadryl" or "Diovan" is:
A. Never on the label
B. Not trade marked
C. Proprietary
D. Always the same as the chemical name
E. Nonproprietary

Proprietary

9

ACEI work better in Caucasians than in __?__
A. Polynesians
B. African Americans
C. Europeans
D. Hispanics
E. Asians

African Americans

10

Acetylation is a type of Phase II conjugation reaction. There are people who genetically, are fast acetylators and others whose enzymes work slowly. In a fast acetylator, given a normal amount of a drug metabolized by this route, you would expect (assumes drug is NOT a prodrug):
A. Treatment failure
B. Not enough information to answer
C. Toxicity or overdose
D. The drug will be metabolized slower than normal
E. No effect

Treatment failure

11

ALL sedative hypnotics cause __?__, some more so than others. Think alcohol intoxication.
A. Bad breath
B. Steven-Johnson's syndrome
C. Drug-induced amnestic state
D. Renal failure
E. Blindness

Drug-induced amnestic state

12

An anti-inflammatory agent is ordered to be given IV to a client for pain. Which of these anti inflammatories is available as an IV?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Etanercept
C. Aspirin
D. Ibuprofen
E. Celecoxib

Ibuprofen

13

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors (ACEI), Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBs) and Direct Renin Inhibitors (DRIs) all have a boxed warning regarding __?__
A. Severe tissue injury regardless of administration route
B. 1st dose anaphylaxis
C. Fatal respiratory depression in kids
D. Fetotoxicity in the 2nd and 3rd trimester
E. Suicide

Fetotoxicity in the 2nd and 3rd trimester

14

Aspirin is associated with __?__ in kids with viral infections (influenza or chicken pox).
A. Respiratory distress syndrome
B. Reye's syndrome
C. Urticaria
D. Constipation
E. GIT ulcers

Reye's syndrome

15

Benzodiazepines, non-benzodiazepine sedative hypnotics and barbiturates all cause __?__.
A. Tolerance
B. Dependence
C. Withdrawal syndrome
D. Some degree of amnesia
E. All the above

All the above

16

Catecholamines are hormones produced by the adrenal medulla. They include NE, EPI and __?__.
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. Histamine
D. Acetylcholine
E. Melatonin

Dopamine

17

Corticosteroids are associated with causing drug-induced __?__
A. Angioedema
B. Antimuscarinic effects
C. Cataracts
D. Sedation
E. Gastric ulcers

Cataracts

18

H1 antagonists are known as __?__
A. Antihyupertensive agents
B. Antihistamines
C. Antidepressants
D. Gastric acid reducers
E. Anti migraine drugs

Antihistamines

19

Having the HLA-B 1502 allele (a variant of the HLA-B gene) predisposes patients on carbamazepine to __?__
A. Epilepsy
B. Steven Johnson's Syndrome
C. Heart disease
D. Psychosis
E. Blood dyscrasias

Steven Johnson's Syndrome

20

Isoflurane is a lung irritant and will cause laryngospasm and bronchospasm. It is contraindicated in ___?__
A. Diabetes mellitus type 2 patients
B. Minor surgical procedures
C. Dentists
D. Asthmatics
E. The elderly

Asthmatics

21

Isoflurane is associated with __?__.
A. Post-op nausea and vomiting (PONV)
B. Laryngospasm and apnea
C. Changes in mood
D. Shivering
E. All the above

All the above

22

Lithium causes goiter because it __?__.
A. Inhibits the release of thyroid hormone
B. Has antimuscarinic symptoms
C. Has a narrow therapeutic margin
D. Has a withdrawal syndrome
E. Causes weight gain

Inhibits the release of thyroid hormone

23

Loratadine has a long half-life, therefore it is administered less frequently than 1st generation antihistamines like __?__
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Buspirone
C. Fexofenadine
D. Valsartan
E. Fluoxetine

Diphenhydramine

24

Medications are primarily regulated by:
A. The EPA (Environmental Protection Agency)
B. The OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration)
C. The DHS (Department of Health Services)
D. The DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration)
E. The FDA (Food and Drug Administration)

The FDA

25

Metabolism may produce metabolites (daughters) that (are):
A. More or less toxic than the parent
B. Have a new action or effect
C. More or less active than the parent
D. Similar to the parent
E. All the above

All the above

26

Mirtazapine (Remeron) is an antidepressant that affects a number of CNS receptors including the 5-HT3 receptor. Mirtazapine inhibits the 5-HT3 receptors found on the CTZ, so you would expect Mirtazapine to be ___ ? ____.
A. Antiemetic like haloperidol
B. Antimigraine like sumatriptan
C. Antiemetic like scopolamine
D. Antiemetic like ondansetron
E. Anxiolytic like buspirone

Antiemetic like ondansetron

27

Misoprostol has a boxed warning regarding __?__
A. 1st dose anaphylaxis
B. Suicide
C. Fetoxiticy in the 2nd and 3rd trimester
D. Severe tissue injury regardless of administration route
E. Risk of abortion in pregnant women

Risk of abortion in pregnant women

28

Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs) are associated with __?__.
A. Dependence
B. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Tolerance
E. Malignant hyperthermia

Serotonin syndrome

29

Morphine, an opioid analgesic, is an example of a drug derived from __?__
A. Plants
B. Bacteria or yeast
C. Animals
D. Minerals
E. Synthetic chemistry

Plants

30

NSAIDs are assoicated with __?__
A. Myalgia
B. Sedation
C. Dry mouth, dry eyes
D. Gastric ulcers
E. Cataracts

Gastric ulcars

31

Part of educating a client about the effects of using an orally inhaled drug such as albuterol should include a warning about:
A. Photophobia
B. Sedation
C. Immediate increase in heart rate which may include palpitations
D. A predisposition to infections
E. Fetotoxicity

Immediate increase in heart rate which may include palpitations

32

Patients who are already taking a diuretic, who are then given an ACEI, may experience severe:
A. Hypotension
B. Neutropenia
C. Dysgeusia
D. Hyperkalemia
E. Hepatotoxicity

Hypotension

33

Patients with a genetic predisposition to developing ___?___ are at particular risk when given the halogenated volatile liquid general anesthetics and inorganic gas general anesthetics.
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Malignant hyperthermia
D. Steven Johnson's syndrome
E. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Malignant Hyperthermia

34

Patients with a ___?___ should not use Ester local anesthetics like benzocaine.
A. Risk factor for malignant hyperthermia
B. G6PD deficiency
C. Cold
D. HIstory of heart disease
E. PABA allergy

PABA Allergy

35

Phenobarbital is a potent __?__
A. TCA
B. SSRI
C. Benzodiazepine
D. SNRI
E. P450 inducer

P450 Inducer

36

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone pathways control blood pressure. Renin is an enzyme released from kidney juxtaglomerular epithelial cells in response to __?__
A. Decreased NaCl detected in the kidney
B. Sympathetic (beta 1) stimulation
C. Decreased intra renal pressure
D. Decreased blood pressure
E. All the listed answers are correct

All

37

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) have __?__.
A. Control schedule I (CI) listing
B. A narrrow therapeutic margin
C. A risk of EPS
D. Analgesic effects
E. A withdrawal syndrome

A withdrawal syndrome

38

Sufentanil is a potent opioid analgesic indicated for use as part of balanced general anesthesia. Which of the following products contains an opioid similar to sufentanil?
A. Sublimaze
B. Versed
C. Ketaset
D. Ultane
E. Diprivan

Sublimaze

39

The elderly generally require lower doses or more careful monitoring because:
A. Their livers are no longer synthesizing normal amounts or proteins including plasma proteins and metabolic enzymes
B. The kidney function is significantly reduced due to age
C. Their cardiac function is significantly reduced due to age
D. They have experienced alterations in body water and lean body mass
E. All the above

All

40

The most commonly prescribed antidepressants, including SNRIs and SSRIs, are associated with __?__
A. Potential effects on clotting
B. Weight gain
C. Delayed onset (often times weeks)
D. Sexual dysfunction
E. All the above

All

41

The Neuromuscular Junction (NMJ) is (are) the __?__
A. Connection point between the somatic motor neuron and the skeletal muscle. The somatic neuron releases ACh, which diffuses across junction (gap) and binds to the receptor on skeletal muscle. This triggers the opening of an ion channel, which depolarizes the skeletal muscle and results in muscle contraction.
B. Receptor type located in autonomic ganglia and at the parasympathetic end organ, on a few sympathetic end organs and on many non-enervated cells.
C. ACh receptors with a very wide distribution, and not all are enervated. Enervated receptors are located in the CNS or PNS. In the PNS, they are at all PSNS end organs, and in the SNS in a few very important locations (SWEAT GLANDS).
D. Sympathetic end organ receptor, either alpha or beta
E. None of these answers is correct

Connection point between the somatic motor neuron and the skeletal muscle. The somatic neuron releases ACh, which diffuses across junction (gap) and binds to the receptor on skeletal muscle. This triggers the opening of an ion channel, which depolarizes the skeletal muscle and results in muscle contraction.

42

The nurse administering succinylcholine prior to intubating a patient for mechanical ventilation, knows that this drug causes:
A. Muscle paralysis and deep analgesia
B. Deep muscle relaxation and pain relief
C. Increased alertness, but amnesia
D. Loss of consciousness along with muscle paralysis and anesthesia
E. Muscle paralysis without analgesia or unconsciousness

Muscle paralysis without analgesia or unconsciousness

43

The nurse knows that an order for Valium in an elderly patient is not recommended after consulting the __?___, develped by a physcian in the 1990's.
A. Drugs.com
B. Wikipedia entry for Valium
C. WebMD
D. Drug Handbook
E. Beer's List

Beer's list

44

The nurse would question which order for an anti inflammatory for arthritis pain?
A. Aspirin
B. Etanercept
C. Celecoxib
D. Ibuprofen
E. Morphine

Morphine

45

The onset of action for Eszopiclone is so rapid, it must be taken immediately before __?__.
A. Getting up in the morning
B. Bathing
C. Going to bed
D. Drinking water
E. Eating

Going to bed

46

Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs) are contraindicated with __?__ because the combination may cause hyperpyretic crises, convulsions and fatalities.
A. Barbiturates
B. BZD
C. Non-BZD hypnotics
D. MAOIs
E. Antihistamines

MAOIs

47

Which is a synthetic opioid analgesic available PO, SC, IV, IM, PR, sublingual, and buccal for moderate to severe pain? T ½ is 5-7 hours. It is NOT CONTROLLED.
A. Tramadol
B. Meperidine
C. Buprenorphine
D. Pentazocine
E. Methadone

Tramadol

48

Which of the following blocks renal tubular reabsorption of urate? It is used to increase uric acid excretion, to treat gout, and to decrease the renal secretion of penicillin antibiotics.
A. Etanercept
B. Probenecid
C. Allopurinol
D. Colchicine
E. Rasburicase

Probenecid

49

Which of the following blocks serotonin receptors in the gastrointestinal tract (GIT) and on the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) of the brain making it an excellent antiemetic for chemically-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV) and post-op nausea and vomiting (PONV)?
A. Trazodone
B. Fluoxetine
C. Sumatriptan
D. Ondansetron
E. Buspirone

Odansetron

50

Which of the following inhibits monoamine oxidase? It was the first transdermal patch antidepressant and is used to treat Parkinson's disease and senile dementia.
A. Selegiline
B. Amphetamines
C. Venlafaxine
D. Fluoxetine
E. Donepezil

Selegiline

51

Which of the following inhibits voltage-gated sodium channels and is used as a local anesthetic?
A. Botulinum toxin
B. Reserpine
C. Amlodipine
D. Digoxin
E. Lidocaine

Lidocaine

52

Which of the following is a 2nd generation antihistamine used to relieve symptoms of seasonal allergic rhinitis and to treat idiopathic urticaria. It is given PO SID or BID.
A. Chlorpheniramine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Promethazine
D. Fexofenadine
E. Fluoxetine

Fexofenadine

53

Which of the following is a 5-lipoxygenase (LOX) inhibitor given PO QID for asthma?
A. Monteleukast
B. Zileuton
C. Zafirlukast
D. Salmeterol
E. Albuterol

Zileuton

54

Which of the following is a 5-PDE inhibitor used PO to treat erectile dysfunction? It is also used to treat pulmonary arterial hypertension.
A. Aprotinin
B. Zileuton
C. Enalapril
D. Sildenafil
E. Montelukast

Sildenafil

55

Which of the following is a 5HT-1A agonist, non-sedating anxiolytic taken PO BID?
A. Trazodone
B. Sumatriptan
C. Ondansetron
D. Buspirone
E. Fluoxetine

Buspirone

56

Which of the following is a Butyrophenone (typical) antipsychotic given PO and IM to treat schizophrenia and Tourette’s disorder. It may be used off label as an antiemetic.
A. Haloperidol
B. Quetiapine
C. Olanzapine
D. Clozapine
E. Chlorpromazine

Haloperidol

57

Which of the following is a C-II Psychostimulant for ADHD and narcolepsy?
A. Risperdal
B. Ritalin
C. Requip
D. Rebif
E. Rilutek

Ritalin

58

Which of the following is a C-III non-barbiturate parenteral general anesthetic (it is an NMDA antagonist)? It is an excellent analgesic and is indicated as the sole anesthetic agent or as an adjunct especially with nitrous oxide, also as an induction agent.
A. Ketaset
B. Xylocaine
C. Amidate
D. Dantrolene
E. Diprivan

Ketaset

59

Which of the following is a centrally-active acetylcholinesterase inhibitor? It is used to treat Alzheimer's disease.
A. Venlafaxine
B. Amphetamines
C. Fluoxetine
D. Selegiline
E. Donepezil

Donepezil

60

Which of the following is a CII synthetic opioid analgesic available in PO, IV, IM, and SC formulations? The IM and SC products are not preferred. It is used to treat chronic pain, it is an antitussive and is used in opioid addiction programs. The half life is highly variable and is usually between 24-60 hours.
A. Pentazocine
B. Methadone
C. Buprenorphine
D. Fentanyl
E. Morphine

Methadone

61

Which of the following is a CII synthetic opioid analgesic indicated for chronic pain, pain following a myocardial infarction (MI) and cancer pain, including break-through pain associated with injuries and cancer. It is available in many formulations including IV, IM, PO, TD, sublingual
A. Hydrocodone
B. Morphine
C. Buprenorphine
D. Fentanyl
E. Methadone

Fentanyl

62

Which of the following is a CIII semi-synthetic opioid analgesic and antitussive? In the US, it is always compounded with something else like APAP or Atropine. It is given PO and the half life is about 4 hours.
A. Naltrexone
B. Diphenoxylate
C. Fentanyl
D. Morphine
E. Hydrocodone

Hydrocodone

63

Which of the following is a combination product for PD?
A. Emsam
B. Stalevo
C. Eldepryl
D. Aricept
E. Symmetrel

Stalevo

64

Which of the following is a cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitor NSAID?
A. Promethazine
B. Misoprostol
C. Chlorpheniramine
D. Dexamethasone
E. Ibuprofen

Ibuprofen

65

Which of the following is a genetic difference that predisposes a person to drug-induced hemolytic anemia?
A. Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
B. Induction of Phase II enzymes
C. Competition for plasma protein bindig sites
D. Induction of Phase I enzymes
E. All of the above

Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency

66

Which of the following is a glucosaminoglycan indicated to replace naturally occurring glucosaminoglycans in wounds (as wound dressing), and in osteoarthritis and eye surgery as well as to smooth out facial wrinkles and to treat dry, scaly skin?
A. Aspirin
B. Ibuprofen
C. Hyaluronic acid
D. Rasburicase
E. Acetaminophen

Hyaluronic acid

67

Which of the following is a Halogenated volatile liquid general anesthetic indicated for in and outpatient induction and maintenance of general anesthesia?
A. Sublimaze
B. Pentothal
C. Amidate
D. Nitrous oxide
E. Ultane

Ultane

68

Which of the following is a Leukotriene (LT) Receptor Blocker given PO SID in the evening for asthma and at any time of the day for allergic rhinitis?
A. Celecoxib
B. Ibuprofen
C. Aspirin
D. Zilueton
E. Montelukast

Montelukast

69

Which of the following is a long-acting bronchodilator (LABA) that must be co-prescribed with a corticosteroid in the treatment of either asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
A. Salmeterol
B. Atenolol
C. Metoprolol
D. Terbutaline
E. Albuterol

Salmeterol

70

Which of the following is a Non-barbiturate parenteral general anesthetic indicated as an IV sedative/hypnotic for fast induction and maintenance of anesthesia and for sedation? It is the most commonly used general parenteral anesthetic and is also used to induce coma. It may be used as a rescue antiemetic.
A. Diprivan
B. Xylocaine
C. Dantrolene
D. Amidate
E. Ketaset

Diprivan

71

Which of the following is a Non-barbiturate parenteral general anesthetic used as a hypnotic for induction of general anesthesia? It has no analgesic properties. Rapid injection leads to severe hypotension.
A. Xylocaine
B. Dantrium
C. Ketaset
D. Diprivan
E. Amidate

Amidate

72

Which of the following is a non-depolarizing NMJB indicated as a skeletal muscle paralytic agent used as part of balanced anesthesia to aid in the intubation of patients requiring mechanical ventilation?
A. Dobutamine
B. Pancuronium
C. Pilocarpine
D. Dopamine
E. Scopolamine

Pancuronium

73

Which of the following is a Prostaglandin E (PGE) analog used to reduce the risk of NSAID induced gastric ulcers? It is given PO QID with food.
A. Fluoxetine
B. Buspirone
C. Aliskiren
D. Montelukast
E. Misoprostol

Misoprostol

74

Which of the following is a salicylate NSAID?
A. Aspirin
B. Ibuprofen
C. Celecoxib
D. Acetaminophen
E. All the above

Aspirin

75

Which of the following is a serotonin agonist used to treat migraine or cluster headaches? It may be given SC or PO, usually only one dose, but a 2nd dose may be given after one hour. No more than 2 doses/24 hours may be given.
A. Desyrel
B. Zofran
C. BuSpar
D. Imitrex
E. Prozac

Imitrex

76

Which of the following is a short-acting beta 2 agonist used as a bronchodilator, primarily for asthma, but also for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
A. Salmeterol
B. Propranolol
C. Albuterol
D. Isoproterenol
E. Atenolol

Albuterol

77

Which of the following is a synthetic antispasmodic indicated to treat PD and EPS. Given PO only.
A. Ativan
B. Ambien
C. Alprazolam
D. Amantadine
E. Artane

Artane

78

Which of the following is a synthetic corticosteroid anti-inflammatory?
A. Dexamethasone
B. Misoprostol
C. Enalapril
D. Ibuprofen
E. Valsartan

Dexamethasone

79

Which of the following is a tissue necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha) inhibitor indicated to treat rheumatoid conditions. It is only available as a SC injection and has a very long half life averaging between 70-130 hours.
A. Etanercept
B. Enbrel
C. Hyaluronic acid
D. All the above
E. A & B only

A & B only

80

Which of the following is a Topical cream indicated for PNP? It is used off label to treat neuropathic pain associated with MS.
A. Capsaicin
B. Amitriptyline
C. Selegiline
D. Phenytoin
E. Donepezil

Capsaicin

81

Which of the following is an alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist that is used to reverse the effects of catecholamine extravasation and thus protect the surrounding tissue from necrosis? It is also used to diagnosis and to treat pheochromocytoma and to reverse the effects of epinephrine used in parenteral local anesthetic injections.
A. Metoprolol
B. Doxazosin
C. Labetalol
D. Phentolamine
E. Tamsulosin

Phentolamine

82

Which of the following is an alpha 1 antagonist indicated only for the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)?
A. Phentolamine
B. Labetalol
C. Terbutaline
D. Metoprolol
E. Tamsulosin

Tamsulosin

83

Which of the following is an alpha 2 agonist indicated for hypertension, chronic pain, and alcohol and opiate withdrawal as well as many off label uses?
A. Clonidine
B. Oxymetazoline
C. Dobutamine
D. Phenylephrine
E. Succinylcholine

Clonidine

84

Which of the following is an Anti spasmodic indicated for chronic spasticity associated with spinal cord injury, cerebral palsy and multiple sclerosis; malignant hyperthermia?
A. Thiopental
B. Benzocaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Dantrolene
E. Etomidate

Dantrolene

85

Which of the following is an Anti-AChE and anti Alzheimer’s drug?
A. Rilutek
B. Aricept
C. Namenda
D. Avonex, Rebif
E. Xenazine

Aricept

86

Which of the following is an antipyretic analgesic known by the acronym APAP?
A. Paracetamol
B. Acetaminophen
C. N-acetyl-para-aminophenol
D. All of the above
E. A & B only

All the above

87

Which of the following is an Inorganic gas general anesthetic?
A. Oxygen
B. Isoflurane
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Propofol
E. Sevoflurane

Nitrous oxide

88

Which of the following is Lyrica a C-V AED indicated for PNP and diabetic neuropathic pain, partial onset seizures and fibromyalgia?
A. Phenobarbital
B. Divalproex
C. Topiramate
D. Pregabalin
E. Phenytoin

Pregabalin

89

Which of the following is the L isomer of citalopram (the biologically active form), an SSRI given PO for anxiety and MDD?
A. Valium
B. Ambien
C. Celexa
D. Lexapro
E. Buspar

Lexapro

90

Which of the following is the number one cause of drug-induced liver failure?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Morphine
C. Etanercept
D. Aspirin
E. Ibuprofen

Acetaminophen

91

Which of the following is the TCA “Tofranil” given PO for MDD and childhood enuresis?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Imipramine
C. Mirtazapine
D. Citalopram
E. Nortriptyline

Imipramine

92

Which of the following is Vasotec given PO SID to treat hypertension and left ventricular dysfunction after myocardial infarction?
A. Benazepril
B. Irbesartan
C. Captopril
D. Enalapril
E. Valsartan

Enalapril

93

Which of the following is “Seroquel,” an Atypical antipsychotic given PO to treat schizophrenia, MDD and bipolar disorder? Patients must be monitored for cataract development, a risk with this drug.
A. Risperidone
B. Clozapine
C. Quetiapine
D. Haloperidol
E. Olanzapine

Quetiapine

94

Which of these is a 2nd generation antihistamine used as a metered nasal spray and as ophthalmic drops to relieve the symptoms of allergic rhinitis?
A. Phenergan
B. Sumatriptan
C. Benadryl
D. Azelastine
E. Diphenhydramine

Azelastin

95

Which of these is a nicotinic agonist? It is used in smoking cessation.
A. Bethanechol
B. Varenicline
C. Albuterol
D. Epinephrine
E. Clonidine

Varenicline

96

Which of these is an Amide local anesthetic and anti arrhythmic for the relief from the itch, burn or pain of skin inflammation, insect bites, as an anesthetic for dental and minor surgery; tinnitus; jellyfish stings; and is an anti arrhythmic for ventricular tachyarrhythmia control?
A. Etomidate
B. Thiopental
C. Lidocaine
D. Dantrolene
E. Benzocaine

Lidocaine

97

Which of these orders for acetaminophen should the nurse question? Pain related to __?__
A. Cirrhosis of the liver
B. Muscle aches and pains
C. Fever
D. Head ache
E. Cold symptoms

Cirrhosis of the liver

98

Which of these products contains the best selling beta 1 blocker in the world?
A. Inderal
B. Isuprel
C. Proventil
D. Lopressor
E. Advair Diskus

Lopressor

99

The nurse knows that a drug with a high theraputic index is:
A. A drug used for many indications (therapies)
B. Probably very dangerous
C. Probably safe
D. The most effective drug
E. Not as effective as one with a low therapeutic index

Probably safe

100

__?__ is usually lighter sedation so patient is relaxed, but can still follow instructions – often used in dental surgery (e.g., wisdom tooth extraction).
A. Analgesia
B. SJS
C. MAC sedation
D. MAC
E. Malignant hyperthermia

MAC sedation