A&P Final Exam Flashcards
(215 cards)
1
Q
Negative feedback loops are __________.
A) homeostatic
B) not homeostatic
C) associated with “vicious circles”
D) self-amplifying cycles
E) harmful
A
A) Homeostatic
2
Q
Which of the following is considered the simplest living body structure?
A) Organ system
B) Organ
C) Cell
D) Organelle
E) Molecule
A
C) Cell
3
Q
The image of a typical chest X-ray shows a __________ view of the thoracic region.
A) sagittal
B) frontal
C) transverse
D) oblique
E) lateral
A
B) Frontal
4
Q
The stomach is located mainly in which quadrant of the abdomen?
A) Right upper quadrant (RUQ)
B) Right lower quadrant (RLQ)
C) Left upper quadrant (LUQ)
D) Left lower quadrant (LLQ)
E) Left middle quadrant (LMQ)
A
C) Upper left quadrant (LUQ)
5
Q
The thoracic cavity and abdominopelvic cavity are lined by __________.
A) an endothelium
B) the mediastinum
C) meninges
D) serous membranes
E) mucous membranes
A
D) Serous Membrane
6
Q
The heart is in the __________ cavity and is covered by the __________.
A) thoracic; pleura
B) thoracic; pericardium
C) pericardial; pleura
D) pericardial; peritoneum
E) cranial; meninges
A
B) Thoracic; Pericardium
7
Q
Which system provides protection, water retention, thermoregulation, and vitamin D
production?
A) Lymphatic system
B) Muscular system
C) Skeletal system
D) Integumentary system
E) Excretory system
A
D) Integumentary system
8
Q
The breastbone is __________ to the vertebral column.
A) anterior
B) posterior
C) superior
D) inferior
E) medial
A
A) Anterior
9
Q
What is the most abundant element in the human body by weight?
A) Nitrogen
B) Hydrogen
C) Carbon
D) Oxygen
E) Calcium
A
D) Oxygen
10
Q
Varieties of elements called __________ differ from one another only in number of neutrons,
and therefore differ in atomic mass.
A) cations
B) anions
C) isotopes
D) electrolytes
E) free radicals
A
C) Isotopes
11
Q
What are responsible for chemical bonding?
A) Electrons
B) Protons
C) Positrons
D) Neutrons
E) Photons
A
A) Electrons
12
Q
What type of bond attracts one water molecule to another?
A) An ionic bond
B) A peptide bond
C) A hydrogen bond
D) A covalent bond
E) A hydrolytic bond
A
C) A hydrogen bond
13
Q
What is a solution that resists a change in pH when an acid or base is added?
A) A buffer
B) A catalyst
C) A reducing agent
D) An oxidizing agent
E) A colloid
A
A) A buffer
14
Q
Triglycerides are molecules consisting of one 3-carbon compound called __________ bound
to three __________.
A) eicosanoid; fatty acids
B) steroid; glycerols
C) eicosanoid; steroid
D) glycerol; fatty acids
E) steroid; fatty acids
A
D) glycerol; fatty acids
15
Q
What are the two most abundant minerals in the human body?
A) Calcium and Phosphate
B) Carbon and Potassium
C) Copper and Magnesium
D) Sodium and Potassium
E) Chloride and Sulfur
A
A) Calcium and Phosphate
16
Q
Which of the following is an anion?
A) Cl-
B) Na+
C) Ca3(PO4)2
D) H2
E) 14C
A
A) Cl-
17
Q
An acid release what in water?
A) Proton
B) Electron
C) Neutron
D) Atom
E) Ion
A
A) Proton
18
Q
__________ provide motility to a cell, __________ act as sensory “antenna” in many cells,
and __________ increase a cell’s surface area.
A) Cilia; microvilli; flagella
B) Microvilli; cilia; flagella
C) Microvilli; flagella; cilia
D) Flagella; microvilli; cilia
E) Flagella; cilia; microvilli
A
E) Flagella; cilia; microvilli
19
Q
Water flows through a selectively permeable membrane in a process called __________.
A) simple diffusion
B) osmosis
C) active transport
D) endocytosis
E) facilitated diffusion
A
B) Osmosis
20
Q
Which of these is an example of active transport?
A) Diffusion of oxygen from a place of high concentration to a place of lower
concentration
B) Facilitated diffusion of K+
C) Transport of glucose down its concentration gradient
D) Transport of Na+
from a place of low concentration to a place of higher concentration
E) Transport of Clfollowing its concentration gradient
A
D) Transport of Na+
from a place of low concentration to a place of higher concentration
21
Q
What do facilitated diffusion and active transport have in common?
A) Both are processes involving the transport of a solute against its concentration
gradient.
B) Both are processes involving transport of a solute down its concentration gradient.
C) Both are processes involving the use of energy provided by ATP.
D) Both are ATP-independent processes.
E) Both are cases of carrier-mediated transport.
A
E) Both are cases of carrier-mediated transport.
22
Q
Which of the following is not contained within inclusions?
A) Ribosomes
B) Dust
C) Glycogen
D) Fat
E) Pigment
A
A) Ribosomes
23
Q
What function would immediately cease if the ribosomes of a cell were destroyed?
A) Exocytosis
B) Active transport
C) Ciliary action
D) Protein synthesis
E) Osmosis
A
D) Protein synthesis
24
Q
Which organelle synthesizes steroids in the ovary and stores calcium in muscle cells?
A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) Nucleus
D) Mitochondrion
E) Golgi complex
A
A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
25
Which of the following organelles is not involved in the protein synthesis, processing, and
packaging process?
A) Smooth ER
B) Rough ER
C) Golgi complex
D) The nucleus
E) Ribosomes
A) Smooth ER
26
Transcription occurs in the __________, but most translation occurs in the __________.
A) nucleus; cytoplasm
B) nucleus; nucleolus
C) cytoplasm; nucleus
D) nucleolus; cytoplasm
E) nucleolus; rough endoplasmic reticulum
A) nucleus; cytoplasm
27
What are the G1, S, and G2 phases collectively called?
A) Interphase
B) Telophase
C) Cytokinesis
D) Prophase
E) Anaphase
A) Interphase
28
Cytokinesis overlaps with which phase of mitosis?
A) The S phase
B) Telophase
C) Metaphase
D) Prophase
E) Interphase
B) Telophase
29
During which mitotic phase do sister chromatids aggregate along the equator of the cell?
A) Prophase
B) Metaphase
C) Anaphase
D) Telophase
E) Interphase
B) Metaphase
30
Body cavities, the body surface, and many organs are lined with __________ tissue.
A) interstitial
B) muscle
C) adipose
D) epithelial
E) nervous
D) epithelial
31
An epithelium with a single layer of tall, narrow cells and with every cell touching the
basement membrane is called __________.
A) stratified squamous
B) stratified cuboidal
C) simple cuboidal
D) simple columnar
E) pseudostratified columnar
D) simple columnar
32
Most kidney tubules are made of __________ epithelium, which is specialized for absorption
and secretion.
A) simple columnar
B) stratified columnar
C) pseudostratified columnar
D) simple cuboidal
E) stratified cuboidal
D) simple cuboidal
33
__________ epithelium found in the bladder resembles __________ epithelium, but the
apical cells are rounded, not flattened.
A) Transitional; stratified squamous
B) Stratified squamous; pseudostratified
C) Stratified squamous; stratified columnar
D) Simple columnar; pseudostratified
E) Transitional; simple cuboidal
A) Transitional; stratified squamous
34
Fibroblasts and collagen fibers are associated with both __________.
A) dense regular and dense irregular connective tissues
B) plasma and formed elements
C) elastic cartilage and hyaline cartilage
D) spongy bone and compact (dense) bone
E) adipose tissue and reticular tissue
A) dense regular and dense irregular connective tissues
35
Which of the following is a function of adipose tissue?
A) Movement
B) Forms the stroma of the spleen
C) Energy storage
D) Shock absorption between vertebrae
E) Shapes the outer ear
C) Energy storage
36
Nervous tissue consists predominantly of two cell types, neurons and __________.
A) fibroblasts
B) chondrocytes
C) glial cells
D) myocytes
E) osteocytes
C) glial cells
37
Endocrine glands secrete __________ into __________.
A) mucus; the blood
B) enzymes; the blood
C) hormones; ducts
D) hormones; the blood
E) enzymes; ducts
D) hormones; the blood
38
Tear glands have vesicles that release their secretion by exocytosis. These are classified as
__________ glands. However, __________ glands (such as oil-producing glands) secrete a
mixture of disintegrated cells and their products.
A) endocrine; exocrine
B) mucous; serous
C) cytogenic; apocrine
D) mucous; cutaneous
E) merocrine; holocrine
E) merocrine; holocrine
39
After six months of lifting weights at the gym, you notice that some of your muscles have
increased in size. This increase in size is due to __________ of muscle cells.
A) hyperplasia
B) neoplasia
C) hypertrophy
D) metaplasia
E) atrophy
C) hypertrophy
40
The replacement of damaged tissue with scar tissue is called __________.
A) necrosis
B) apoptosis
C) gangrene
D) regeneration
E) fibrosis
E) fibrosis
41
The skin does not include the __________.
A) epidermis
B) papillary layer
C) hypodermis
D) stratum basale
E) dermis
C) hypodermis
42
Which layer of the epidermis consists of up to 30 layers of dead cells?
A) Stratum basale
B) Stratum spinosum
C) Stratum granulosum
D) Stratum lucidum
E) Stratum corneum
E) Stratum corneum
43
The __________ is absent from most areas of the epidermis on the body.
A) stratum basale
B) stratum spinosum
C) stratum granulosum
D) stratum lucidum
E) stratum corneum
D) stratum lucidum
44
Which skin color is most likely to result from anemia?
A) Pallor
B) Erythema
C) Hematoma
D) Albinism
E) Jaundice
A) Pallor
45
Skin covering the __________ has no hair follicles.
A) forearm
B) buttocks
C) abdomen
D) fingertips
E) back
D) fingertips
46
Contraction of the arrector muscles causes __________.
A) hairs to stand upright
B) hairs to grow
C) hairs to turn white in color
D) hairs to atrophy
E) hairs to fall out
A) hairs to stand upright
47
The __________ glands are a source of sex pheromones.
A) ceruminous
B) eccrine
C) mammary
D) sebaceous
E) apocrine
E) apocrine
48
Bone cells called __________ have the greatest number of lysosomes.
A) osteoblasts
B) osteoclasts
C) osteocytes
D) osteogenic cells
E) stem cells
B) osteoclasts
49
__________ are common in compact bone but rarely seen in spongy bone.
A) Lamellae
B) Osteoclasts
C) Lacunae
D) Central canals
E) Osteocytes
D) Central canals
50
Long bones get longer by way of __________.
A) cartilage growth
B) muscle growth
C) osseous tissue growth
D) fibrous membrane addition
E) dense irregular connective tissue addition
A) cartilage growth
51
Calcium plays an essential role in all of the following except __________.
A) muscle contraction
B) exocytosis
C) blood clotting
D) DNA synthesis
E) communication among neurons
D) DNA synthesis
52
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) does all of the following except __________.
A) promote calcium reabsorption by the kidneys
B) stimulate osteoclast activity
C) lower blood calcium
D) promote calcitriol synthesis
E) inhibit osteoblast activity
C) lower blood calcium
53
Most of the bones of the skull are connected by immovable joints called __________.
A) sinuses
B) amphiarthroses
C) gomphoses
D) symphyses
E) sutures
E) sutures
54
The _________ houses the pituitary gland and is found within the ____________.
A) foramen magnum; occipital bone
B) sella turcica; sphenoid bone
C) lambdoid suture; parietal bones
D) supraorbital margin; frontal bone
E) occipital condyle; occipital bone
B) sella turcica; sphenoid bone
55
How many cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal vertebrae are typically found in a
child?
A) 12; 7; 5; 5; 4
B) 12; 5; 5; 7; 4
C) 7; 5; 5; 12; 4
D) 7; 12; 5; 5; 4
E) 7; 5; 5; 4; 12
D) 7; 12; 5; 5; 4
56
Most neurons have multiple dendrites.
⊚ true
⊚ false
⊚ true
57
Postsynaptic neurons receive neurotransmitters primarily at the dendrite.
⊚ true
⊚ false
⊚ true
58
Oligodendrocytes serve the same purpose in the CNS that satellite cells do in the PNS.
⊚ true
⊚ false
⊚ false
59
There are four kinds of CNS glial cells and two kinds of PNS glial cells.
⊚ true
⊚ false
⊚ true
60
Neurosomas and dendrites are both found in gray matter.
⊚ true
⊚ false
⊚ true
61
When a neuron is stimulated, Na+
gates open and allow Na+
to exit the cell.
⊚ true
⊚ false
⊚ false
62
A ganglion is a swelling along a nerve containing cell bodies of peripheral neurons.
⊚ true
⊚ false
⊚ true
63
Which of the following is not a major class of joints?
A) Elastic
B) Synovial
C) Cartilaginous
D) Fibrous
E) Diarthrotic
A) Elastic
64
Unlike other joints, a __________ does not join two bones to each other.
A) suture
B) syndesmosis
C) gomphosis
D) cartilaginous joint
E) bony joint
C) gomphosis
65
What do sutures, gomphoses, and syndesmoses have in common?
A) They are all joints found only in the appendicular skeleton.
B) They are all joints found only in the axial skeleton.
C) They do not bind bones to other bones.
D) They are all fibrous joints.
E) They are all cartilaginous joints
D) They are all fibrous joints.
66
Coronal, sagittal, and lambdoid are examples of ________.
A) syndesmoses
B) gomphoses
C) fibrous joints
D) cartilaginous joints
E) synovial joints
C) fibrous joints
67
What are the most movable joints?
A) Symphyses
B) Synovial
C) Syndesmoses
D) Gomphoses
E) Synchondroses
B) Synovial
68
Which of the following is not part of a synovial joint?
A) An articular cartilage
B) A joint cavity
C) An interosseous membrane
D) A fibrous capsule
E) A synovial membrane
C) An interosseous membrane
69
Raising the arms to each side of the body to form the letter "T" is an example of __________
of the shoulders.
A) abduction
B) adduction
C) circumduction
D) rotation
E) protraction
A) abduction
70
If you stand on tiptoe to reach something high up, you are performing __________ at the
ankle.
A) plantar flexion
B) abduction
C) opposition
D) dorsiflexion
E) eversion
A) plantar flexion
71
What is the largest and most complex synovial joint in the body?
A) The hip
B) The knee
C) The elbow
D) The shoulder
E) The wrist
B) The knee
72
All of the following are functions of muscles except __________.
A) stability
B) heat production
C) control of openings
D) secretion
E) respiration
D) secretion
73
In skeletal muscle, alternating light and dark bands are called __________.
A) strabismi
B) striations
C) Z discs
D) myofibrils
E) myoblasts
B) striations
74
To stimulate muscle contraction, acetylcholine is released from the ___________ into the
synaptic cleft.
A) axon terminal
B) junctional folds
C) sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) sarcolemma
E) terminal cisterns
A) axon terminal
75
What neurotransmitter is excitatory for skeletal muscles?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Adrenaline
D) Serotonin
E) Dopamine
A) Acetylcholine
76
Which muscle type(s) depend(s) solely on the sarcoplasmic reticulum to store calcium?
A) Skeletal muscle
B) Smooth muscle
C) Cardiac muscle
D) Skeletal and smooth muscle
E) Smooth and cardiac muscle
A) Skeletal muscle
77
Which protein acts as a calcium receptor in skeletal muscle?
A) F actin
B) Tropomyosin
C) Troponin
D) Titin
E) Dystrophin
C) Troponin
78
Shortening of a muscle while maintaining constant tension is called what?
A) Tetanus
B) Isokinetic contraction
C) Isometric contraction
D) Isotonic contraction
E) Treppe
D) Isotonic contraction
79
Aerobic respiration produces approximately __________ more ATPs than anaerobic
fermentation.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 50
E) 100
C) 30
80
Which of the following activities would increase a muscle's resistance to fatigue?
A) Training for a marathon
B) Bench pressing
C) Driving a golf ball
D) Practicing a hockey slapshot
E) Sprinting
A) Training for a marathon
81
Which muscle(s) can contract without the need for nervous stimulation?
A) Skeletal muscle
B) Smooth muscle
C) Cardiac muscle
D) Smooth and cardiac muscle
E) Skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle
D) Smooth and cardiac muscle
82
Muscle fibers are arranged in bundles called __________.
A) compartments
B) fascicles
C) retinacula
D) aponeuroses
E) groups
B) fascicles
83
What is the name of the connective tissue that is found between the bellies of adjacent
muscles?
A) Epimysium
B) Fascicles
C) Perimysium
D) Fascia
E) Endomysium
D) Fascia
84
Which of the following muscles of mastication would be responsible for mandibular
elevation?
A) Temporalis
B) Lateral pterygoid
C) Stylohyoid
D) Zygomaticus major
E) Zygomaticus minor
A) Temporalis
85
What is the antagonist to the triceps brachii?
A) Deltoid
B) Anconeus
C) Biceps brachii
D) Supinator
E) Teres minor
C) Biceps brachii
86
What is the longest muscle in the human body?
A) Iliopsoas
B) Sartorius
C) Erector spinae
D) Semitendinosus
E) Semimembranosus
B) Sartorius
87
The agents of communication in the nervous system are __________.
A) nerves
B) neuroglia
C) hormones
D) tracts
E) pools
A) nerves
88
The function of the nervous system that is charged with determining a reasonable and
appropriate response to a stimulus is the __________ function.
A) sensory
B) motor
C) integrative
D) efferent
E) afferent
C) integrative
89
The brain and spinal cord are the two components of the __________ nervous system.
A) central
B) peripheral
C) sensory
D) glands
E) endocrine
A) central
90
__________ neurons are specialized to detect stimuli, whereas __________ neurons send
signals to the effectors of the nervous system.
A) Afferent; afferent
B) Afferent; efferent
C) Motor; sensory
D) Efferent; association
E) Afferent; association
B) Afferent; efferent
91
Neurons cannot typically ___________.
A) conduct electrical impulses
B) make ATP
C) synthesize proteins
D) undergo cell division
E) contain chromosomes
D) undergo cell division
92
The myelin sheath in the PNS is formed by ___________.
A) oligodendrocytes
B) Schwann cells
C) ependymal cells
D) satellite cells
E) microglia
B) Schwann cells
93
Which cells form myelin sheaths in the spinal cord?
A) Schwann cells
B) Astrocytes
C) Satellite cells
D) Oligodendrocytes
E) Microglia
D) Oligodendrocytes
94
The layers of the plasma membrane of Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes that cover axons
is called the __________.
A) myelin sheath
B) endoneurium
C) epineurium
D) perineurium
E) neurosoma
A) myelin sheath
95
Opening of sodium gates typically leads to __________.
A) repolarization of the plasma membrane
B) hyperpolarization of the plasma membrane
C) depolarization of the plasma membrane
D) drifting of plasma membrane voltage toward a more negative value
E) plasma membrane voltage returning to the resting membrane potential
C) depolarization of the plasma membrane
96
During the __________, the neuron cannot be stimulated.
A) resting phase
B) local potential
C) refractory period
D) lag time
E) initial phase
C) refractory period
97
Conduction speed of a nerve fiber would be the fastest in a __________.
A) large myelinated fiber
B) small myelinated fiber
C) large unmyelinated fiber
D) small unmyelinated fiber
E) small fiber with multiple Schwann cells
A) large myelinated fiber
98
Neurotransmitters are stored within the __________ of the presynaptic neuron.
A) axon
B) neurosoma
C) synaptic vesicles
D) nucleus
E) dendrites
C) synaptic vesicles
99
The following are all functions associated with the spinal cord except ___________.
A) to protect and nourish the neurons of the central nervous system
B) to mediate a reflex such as the withdrawal of a hand from pain
C) to conduct sensory information up to the brain
D) to conduct motor information down from the brain
E) to receive sensory information from the body
A) to protect and nourish the neurons of the central nervous system
100
The spinal cord is divided into all of the following regions except _________.
A) cervical
B) thoracic
C) lumbar
D) pelvic
E) sacral
D) pelvic
101
Which of the following fractures would be the least likely to cause a spinal cord injury?
A) A fracture of vertebra C2
B) A fracture of vertebra C6
C) A fracture of vertebra T5
D) A fracture of vertebra T12
E) A fracture of vertebra L4
E) A fracture of vertebra L4
102
Epidural anesthesia is introduced in the epidural space between the __________ to block
pain signals during childbirth.
A) vertebrae and dura mater
B) pia mater and spinal cord
C) dura mater and arachnoid mater
D) arachnoid mater and pia mater
E) dura mater and pia mater
A) vertebrae and dura mater
103
Neurosomas of somatic sensory neurons are found in the __________.
A) anterior root
B) posterior rootlets
C) posterior root ganglion
D) posterior horn of gray matter
E) anterior horn of gray matter
C) posterior root ganglion
104
A(n) __________ is a bundle of nerve fibers and connective wrappings.
A) axon
B) neuron
C) nerve
D) dendrite
E) fascicle
C) nerve
105
There are __________ pairs of spinal nerves.
A) 12
B) 24
C) 31
D) 35
E) 62
C) 31
106
In the patellar tendon reflex arc, the patellar ligament is stretched, which stretches the
quadriceps femoris muscle of the thigh. This reflex will cause the quadriceps femoris to
__________.
A) contract and the antagonist muscles, the hamstrings, to relax
B) contract and the hamstrings also to contract
C) relax and the hamstrings to contract
D) relax and the hamstrings also to relax
E) relax without any effect on the hamstrings
A) contract and the antagonist muscles, the hamstrings, to relax
107
Mucous membranes prevent most pathogens from entering the body because of the stickiness
of the mucus and the presence of lysozymes.
⊚ true
⊚ false
⊚ true
108
Clonal selection of T cells results in B cell formation.
⊚ true
⊚ false
⊚ false
109
Most plasma cells stay in the lymph nodes.
⊚ true
⊚ false
⊚ false
110
The nervous system reacts to stimuli __________ compared to the endocrine system, adapts
__________ compared to the endocrine system, and has __________ effects compared to the
endocrine system.
A) slowly; slowly; widespread
B) quickly; slowly; specific
C) quickly; quickly; widespread
D) quickly; quickly; specific
E) slowly; quickly; specific
D) quickly; quickly; specific
111
__________ are chemical messengers secreted by endocrine glands into the blood.
A) Neurotransmitters
B) Neuromodulators
C) Enzymes
D) Acids
E) Hormones
E) Hormones
112
__________ enters a target cell's nucleus and acts directly on the genes.
A) Insulin
B) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C) Estrogen
D) Glucagon
E) Oxytocin (OT)
C) Estrogen
113
Neither follicle-stimulating (FSH) hormone nor testosterone alone can stimulate significant
sperm production, whereas when they act together, the testes produce some 300,000 sperm
per minute. This is an example of __________.
A) hormone clearance
B) the cascade effect
C) the synergistic effect
D) the permissive effect
E) the antagonistic effect
C) the synergistic effect
114
Parathyroid hormone stimulates osteoclastic activity. Calcitonin stimulates osteoblastic
activity. These hormones have a(n) __________ effect.
A) permissive
B) synergistic
C) reciprocal
D) agonistic
E) antagonistic
E) antagonistic
115
Which of the following is an example of negative feedback inhibition?
A) Oxytocin release stimulated by uterine contractions
B) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) causes the anterior pituitary to release thyroidstimulating hormone (TSH)
C) Thyroid-stimulating hormone causing thyroid hormone release
D) Growth hormone stimulating the release of insulin-like growth factors
E) Thyroid hormone preventing the release of thyrotropin-releasing hormone
E) Thyroid hormone preventing the release of thyrotropin-releasing hormone
116
The hypothalamus controls the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland via __________.
A) ADH
B) OT
C) nervous stimulation
D) the brainstem
E) the hypophyseal portal system
E) the hypophyseal portal system
117
The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland releases __________ and __________.
A) prolactin (PRL); growth hormone (GH)
B) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH); thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) oxytocin (OT); antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
D) thyroid hormone (TH); oxytocin (OT)
E) growth hormone (GH); antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C) oxytocin (OT); antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
118
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) targets the __________.
A) kidneys
B) adrenal gland
C) anterior pituitary
D) hypothalamus
E) pancreas
A) kidneys
119
The gland that secretes glucocorticoids can be found __________.
A) in the neck
B) near the brain
C) superior to the kidney
D) draped over the heart
E) posterior to the stomach
C) superior to the kidney
119
The zona fasciculata and reticularis in the adrenal gland secrete __________.
A) glucagon
B) epinephrine
C) estradiol
D) aldosterone
E) cortisol
E) cortisol
120
Alpha (α) cells in the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans) secrete __________.
A) glucagon, which lowers blood glucose
B) glucagon, which raises blood glucose
C) insulin, which lowers blood glucose
D) insulin, which raises blood glucose
E) glucocorticoids, which raise blood glucose
B) glucagon, which raises blood glucose
121
The __________ has both endocrine and exocrine functions.
A) adrenal gland
B) salivary gland
C) ovary
D) pineal gland
E) thymus
C) ovary
122
Which of the following is a function of cortisol?
A) Inhibits fat digestion
B) Stimulates protein synthesis
C) Promotes glycogen synthesis
D) Stimulates glucose intake by most organs
E) Promotes breakdown of fat and protein
E) Promotes breakdown of fat and protein
123
Thyroxine belongs to what class of hormones?
A) Monoamines
B) Peptide hormones
C) Steroids
D) Glycoproteins
E) Carbohydrates
A) Monoamines
124
Blood does not __________.
A) transport a variety of nutrients
B) help to stabilize the pH of extracellular fluids
C) participate in the initiation of blood clotting
D) produce plasma hormones
E) help to regulate body temperature
D) produce plasma hormones
125
The buffy coat does not contain __________.
A) lymphocytes
B) granulocytes
C) erythrocytes
D) agranulocytes
E) platelets
C) erythrocytes
126
Which of the following is not normally found in plasma?
A) Glycogen
B) Fibrinogen
C) Glucose
D) Urea
E) Albumin
A) Glycogen
127
What is the most abundant protein in plasma?
A) Insulin
B) Creatine
C) Bilirubin
D) Albumin
E) Creatinine
D) Albumin
128
Erythrocytes function to transport oxygen and __________.
A) defend the body against pathogens
B) initiate blood clotting
C) regulate erythropoiesis
D) transport nutrients
E) transport some carbon dioxide
E) transport some carbon dioxide
129
Most oxygen is transported bound to __________.
A) the plasma membrane of erythrocytes
B) alpha chains in hemoglobin
C) beta chains in hemoglobin
D) delta chains in hemoglobin
E) heme groups in hemoglobin
E) heme groups in hemoglobin
130
What is the final product of the breakdown of the organic nonprotein moiety of hemoglobin?
A) Biliverdin
B) Bilirubin
C) Globin
D) Heme
E) Iron
B) Bilirubin
131
Where do most RBCs die?
A) Stomach
B) Red bone marrow
C) Spleen
D) Lymph nodes
E) Pancreas
C) Spleen
132
A deficiency of __________ can cause pernicious anemia.
A) vitamin C
B) iron
C) vitamin B12
D) EPO secretion
E) folic acid
C) vitamin B12
133
An increased erythropoietin (EPO) output by the kidneys would lead to all of the following
except __________.
A) decreased oxygen in the blood
B) increased blood osmolarity
C) increased RBC production
D) increased blood viscosity
E) increased hematocrit
A) decreased oxygen in the blood
134
Sickle-cell disease is not __________.
A) caused by a recessive allele that modifies the structure of hemoglobin
B) a hereditary hemoglobin defect
C) advantageous to protect carriers against malaria
D) a cause of malaria
E) a cause of anemia
D) a cause of malaria
135
Type A blood can safely donate RBCs to __________ and can receive RBCs of type
__________.
A) O; AB
B) AB; O
C) A; B
D) B; A
E) O; O
B) AB; O
136
An individual has type B, Rh-positive blood. The individual has __________ antigen(s) and
can produce anti-__________ antibody(-ies).
A) A and D; B
B) B and D; A
C) B; A and D
D) A; B and D
E) D; A and B
B) B and D; A
137
A woman's first pregnancy is normal but her second pregnancy results in hemolytic disease
of the newborn (HDN), or erythroblastosis fetalis. The second child needed a transfusion to
completely replace the agglutinating blood. The mother is most likely type __________ and
both children are most likely __________.
A) Rh-negative; Rh-positive
B) Rh-positive; Rh-negative
C) O; AB
D) AB; O
E) O; O
A) Rh-negative; Rh-positive
138
A total WBC count above normal is called __________.
A) Leukemia
B) Leukopenia
C) Leukocytosis
D) Lymphoma
E) Myelodysplastic syndrome
C) Leukocytosis
139
When a clot is no longer needed, fibrin is dissolved by __________.
A) prothrombin
B) thromboplastin
C) kallikrein
D) plasmin
E) platelet-derived growth factor
D) plasmin
140
What are the least abundant formed elements?
A) Platelets
B) Basophils
C) Erythrocytes
D) Neutrophils
E) Eosinophils
B) Basophils
141
The tricuspid valve regulates the opening between the __________.
A) right atrium and the left atrium
B) right atrium and right ventricle
C) right atrium and the left ventricle
D) left atrium and the left ventricle
E) left ventricle and the right ventricle
B) right atrium and right ventricle
142
Which of these is not part of the cardiac conduction system?
A) The sinoatrial (SA) node
B) The tendinous cords (TC)
C) The atrioventricular (AV) node
D) The atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His)
E) The subendocardial conducting network
B) The tendinous cords (TC)
143
What is the correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiocyte in the
left ventricle (LV)?
A) Sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → atrioventricular (AV) node →
subendocardial conducting network → cardiocyte in LV
B) Atrioventricular (AV) node → subendocardial conducting network → atrioventricular
(AV) bundle → sinoatrial (SA) node → cardiocyte in LV
C) Atrioventricular (AV) node → sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle
→ subendocardial conducting network → cardiocyte in LV
D) Sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle →
subendocardial conducting network → cardiocyte in LV
E) Sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → subendocardial conducting
network → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → cardiocyte in LV
D) Sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle →
subendocardial conducting network → cardiocyte in LV
144
When does atrial systole begin on an EKG?
A) Immediately before the P wave
B) Immediately after the P wave
C) During the Q wave
D) During the S-T segment
E) Immediately after the T wave
B) Immediately after the P wave
145
The second heart sound is due to the __________ valve(s) closing.
A) atrioventricular
B) left AV
C) bicuspid
D) semilunar
E) right AV
D) semilunar
146
If stroke volume goes up and heart rate remains constant, cardiac output will __________.
A) increase
B) decrease
C) stay the same
D) increase then decrease
E) decrease then increase
A) increase
147
Sympathetic stimulation of the heart will increase heart rate and stroke volume, therefore
__________ cardiac output.
A) increasing
B) decreasing
C) not affecting
D) nullifying
E) neutralizing
A) increasing
148
Hypertension is commonly considered to be a chronic resting blood pressure higher than
__________.
A) 90/40
B) 110/60
C) 160/90
D) 130/80
E) 200/90
D) 130/80
149
In people who stand for long periods, blood tends to pool in the lower limbs and this may
result in varicose veins. Varicose veins are caused by __________.
A) an aneurysm or weak point in an artery
B) an aneurysm or weak point in a vein
C) failure of the venous valves
D) failure of the lymphatic valves
E) a ruptured aneurysm in a vein
C) failure of the venous valves
150
What is the most important force in venous flow?
A) Cardiac suction
B) The pressure generated by the heart
C) The skeletal muscle pump
D) The thoracic (respiratory) pump
E) The one-way flow generated by valves
B) The pressure generated by the heart
151
How many pulmonary arteries empty into the right atrium of the heart?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 4
E) 7
A) 0
152
The lungs receive a systemic blood supply by way of the __________.
A) right pulmonary artery
B) left pulmonary artery
C) pulmonary veins
D) bronchial arteries
E) lobar arteries
D) bronchial arteries
153
Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?
A) Fluid recovery
B) Oxygen delivery
C) Immunity
D) Lipid absorption
E) Returning fluid to the veins
B) Oxygen delivery
154
The tonsils, thymus, spleen, and lymph nodes of principal examples of __________.
A) lymphatics
B) lymphatic vessels
C) lymphatic ducts
D) lymphatic organs
E) lymphatic tissues
D) lymphatic organs
155
__________ are the largest of the lymphatic vessels and they empty into the __________.
A) Lymphatic trunks; collecting ducts
B) Lymphatic trunks; subclavian arteries
C) Lymphatic trunks; subclavian veins
D) Collecting ducts; subclavian veins
E) Collecting ducts; subclavian arteries
D) Collecting ducts; subclavian veins
156
Special lymphatic vessels called lacteals absorb dietary __________ that are not absorbed by
the blood capillaries.
A) water
B) glucose
C) vitamins
D) amino acids
E) lipids
E) lipids
157
__________ are secreted by cells infected by viruses. They signal nearby cells to inhibit viral
replication and activate natural killer cells.
A) Complement system globulins
B) Interferons
C) Granzymes
D) Pyrogens
E) Perforins
B) Interferons
158
The __________ synthesizes most of the 30 antimicrobial proteins that make up the
__________ system.
A) liver; antibody
B) kidney; humoral
C) liver; complement
D) liver; supplement
E) bone marrow; inflammation
C) liver; complement
159
Which of the following is not a cardinal sign characteristic of inflammation?
A) Impaired use
B) Redness
C) Pain
D) Heat
E) Swelling
A) Impaired use
160
Regarding humoral immunity, the quickest response to reexposure to an antigen is mounted
by __________.
A) antibodies
B) plasma cells
C) memory T cells
D) cytotoxic T cells
E) memory B cells
E) memory B cells
161
Cellular (cell-mediated) immunity is effective against __________.
A) allergens
B) venoms
C) cancer cells
D) extracellular viruses
E) toxins
C) cancer cells
162
Helper T (TH) cells recognize antigens when they are bound to a(n) __________.
A) hapten
B) immunoglobulin
C) natural killer cell
D) antigen-presenting cell
E) basophil
D) antigen-presenting cell
163
Autoimmune diseases are disorders in which the immune system fails to distinguish
__________ from foreign ones.
A) self-immunoglobulins
B) self-antibodies
C) self-antigens
D) self-interleukins
E) self-complement proteins
C) self-antigens
164
__________ constitutes about 80% of circulating antibodies in plasma.
A) IgD
B) IgE
C) IgA
D) IgM
E) IgG
E) IgG
165
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) targets mainly __________.
A) helper T cells
B) B cells
C) plasma cells
D) cytotoxic T cells
E) natural killer cells
A) helper T cells
166
What kind of immunity does vaccination stimulate?
A) Natural active immunity
B) Artificial active immunity
C) Natural passive immunity
D) Artificial passive immunity
E) Artificial specific immunity
B) Artificial active immunity
167
Which of the following differentiates adaptive from innate immunity?
A) Adaptive immunity is specific
B) Innate immunity has memory
C) Adaptive immunity is immediate
D) Innate immunity only develops after exposure to an antigen
E) Innate immunity can be natural or acquired
A) Adaptive immunity is specific
168
Which T cells would attack cancerous or infected cells?
A) Cytotoxic
B) Helper
C) Regulatory
D) Suppressor
E) Cellular
A) Cytotoxic
169
How are helper T cells activated?
A) By binding to antigen presented by an APC
B) By binding to antigen presented by an infected cell
C) By binding to antigen on a natural killer cell
D) By binding to antigen on a B cell
E) By binding to antigen on a basophil
A) By binding to antigen presented by an APC
170
Which of the following is an example of natural passive immunity?
A) Antibodies passed to a fetus through the umbilical cord
B) Vaccination
C) Antibodies obtained from an injected blood serum
D) Antibodies synthesized in response to chicken pox virus exposure
E) A tetanus shot
A) Antibodies passed to a fetus through the umbilical cord
171
Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system?
A) It helps control the pH of body fluids.
B) It promotes the flow of lymph and venous blood.
C) It allows us to communicate with others.
D) It assists in the synthesis of vasodilators.
E) It helps with defecation
D) It assists in the synthesis of vasodilators
172
The upper respiratory tract extends from the ___________.
A) nose through the trachea
B) nose through the pharynx
C) nose through the larynx
D) nose through the alveoli
E) nose through the lungs
C) nose through the larynx
173
The thyroid cartilage is the largest part of the __________.
A) larynx
B) pharynx
C) trachea
D) epiglottis
E) hyoid bone
A) larynx
174
Pulmonary surfactant is secreted by __________.
A) mucosal cells
B) alveolar squamous cells
C) macrophages
D) great alveolar cells
E) goblet cells
D) great alveolar cells
175
The grapelike clusters of alveoli are called ___________.
A) alveolar sacs
B) alveolar ducts
C) respiratory bronchioles
D) alveolar membranes
E) alveolar capillaries
A) alveolar sacs
176
The conducting division of the respiratory tract ends with the terminal bronchioles. What is
the correct path for air leaving the conduction portion and entering the respiratory portion?
A) Alveolar ducts → respiratory bronchioles → alveolar sacs
B) Alveolar sacs → alveolar ducts → respiratory bronchioles
C) Respiratory bronchioles → alveolar ducts → alveolar sacs
D) Respiratory bronchioles → alveolar sacs → alveolar ducts
E) Alveolar ducts → alveolar sacs → respiratory bronchioles
C) Respiratory bronchioles → alveolar ducts → alveolar sacs
177
Assuming the airways are open, when the intrapulmonary pressure is less than the
atmospheric pressure, we __________.
A) exhale
B) inhale
C) are performing a Valsalva maneuver
D) are not breathing
E) are experiencing a collapsed lung
B) inhale
178
Contracting the diaphragm increases thoracic cavity __________ and decreases thoracic
cavity ___________. This results in _________.
A) volume; pressure; inspiration
B) pressure; volume; inspiration
C) volume; pressure; expiration
D) pressure; volume; expiration
E) pressure; pressure, inspiration
A) volume; pressure; inspiration
179
The principal muscle of pulmonary ventilation is (are) the __________.
A) internal intercostals
B) external intercostals
C) sternocleidomastoid
D) diaphragm
E) rectus abdominis
D) diaphragm
180
The amount of air in excess of tidal volume that can be inhaled with maximum effort is
called the __________.
A) vital capacity
B) inspiratory reserve volume
C) expiratory reserve volume
D) residual volume
E) inspiratory capacity
B) inspiratory reserve volume
181
Which of the following is not monitored by chemoreceptors?
A) Blood pH
B) Blood oxygen
C) Noxious fumes
D) Carbon dioxide
E) pH of cerebrospinal fluid
C) Noxious fumes
182
Which of the following is not a reason why oxygen dissociation increases in active tissues?
A) More active tissues use more oxygen then less active tissues, which lowers the Po2 of
the tissue fluid.
B) Active tissues have a higher pH. Oxygen dissociates more readily in alkaline
solutions.
C) Active tissues produce more CO2, which results in higher H+ concentration. Oxygen
dissociates more readily in acidic solutions.
D) Active tissues are warmer. Increased temperature results in increased rate of oxygen
dissociation.
E) Active tissues produce more BPG (DPG) which shifts the hemoglobin saturation
curve downwards
B) Active tissues have a higher pH. Oxygen dissociates more readily in alkaline
solutions.
183
Each hemoglobin molecule can transport up to __________ oxygen molecules.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five
D) four
184
Normally the systemic arterial blood has a Po2 of __________ mm Hg, a Pco2 of
__________ mm Hg, and a pH of __________.
A) 40; 95; 7.4
B) 95; 40; 7.4
C) 7.4; 40; 95
D) 95; 7.4; 40
E) 40; 7.4; 95
B) 95; 40; 7.4
185
The blood transports more CO2 in the form of __________ than in any other form.
A) carbonic anhydrase
B) carboxyhemoglobin
C) bicarbonate ions
D) dissolved CO2 gas
E) carbonite
C) bicarbonate ions
186
Which is not a function of the kidneys?
A) They regulate osmolarity of the body fluids.
B) They fight osteoporosis by synthesizing vitamin D.
C) They help control blood pressure.
D) They release waste into the bloodstream.
E) They indirectly increase red blood cell production
D) They release waste into the bloodstream
187
Which organ system does not excrete waste?
A) The urinary system
B) The cardiovascular system
C) The integumentary system
D) The digestive system
E) The respiratory system
B) The cardiovascular system
188
Blood vessels, nerves, ureters, and lymphatic vessels all enter/exit the kidney at the
__________.
A) renal capsule
B) hilum
C) renal corpuscle
D) nephron
E) renal pyramid
B) hilum
189
A renal pyramid voids urine into the __________.
A) minor calyx
B) major calyx
C) renal medulla
D) renal papilla
E) ureter
A) minor calyx
190
The __________ carries blood directly into the glomerulus.
A) efferent arteriole
B) peritubular capillary
C) afferent arteriole
D) renal artery
E) cortical radiate artery
C) afferent arteriole
191
The part of the nephron connected to the collecting duct is the ___________.
A) PCT
B) renal corpuscle
C) nephron loop
D) glomerulus
E) DCT
E) DCT
192
Blood plasma is filtered in the __________.
A) renal tubule
B) renal corpuscle
C) renal capsule
D) renal column
E) minor calyx
B) renal corpuscle
193
What is the correct flow of fluid through the nephron?
A) Renal corpuscle → PCT → nephron loop → collecting duct → DCT
B) Renal corpuscle → PCT → collecting duct → DCT → nephron loop
C) Renal corpuscle → PCT → nephron loop → DCT → collecting duct
D) PCT → nephron loop → DCT → collecting duct → renal corpuscle
E) Nephron loop → PCT → DCT → collecting duct → renal corpuscle
C) Renal corpuscle → PCT → nephron loop → DCT → collecting duct
194
The fluid in the glomerular capsule is known as __________.
A) plasma
B) urine
C) filtrate
D) tubular fluid
E) water
C) filtrate
195
Aldosterone acts on the __________.
A) proximal convoluted tubule
B) renal corpuscle
C) descending limb of the nephron loop
D) distal convoluted tubule
E) glomerulus
D) distal convoluted tubule
196
Which of the following is true of antidiuretic hormone?
A) ADH stimulates angiotensin II secretion.
B) ADH promotes water conservation.
C) ADH stimulates hypothalamic osmoreceptors.
D) ADH inhibits salivation and thirst.
E) ADH targets the cerebral cortex
B) ADH promotes water conservation.
197
Renin converts angiotensinogen, released from the __________, into angiotensin I.
A) lungs
B) kidneys
C) liver
D) heart
E) spleen
C) liver
198
Proximal convoluted tubules are not responsible for reabsorbing __________.
A) potassium
B) sodium chloride
C) hydrogen ions
D) urea
E) water
C) hydrogen ions
199
The urine is most likely to be hypotonic when _________.
A) the body's water volume is high
B) the body's pH is low
C) the output of antidiuretic hormone is high
D) the output of natriuretic peptides is high
E) a person is lost and deprived of drinking water
A) the body's water volume is high
200
Contraction of the __________ stimulates voiding of the urine.
A) diaphragm
B) ureter
C) detrusor
D) urethra
E) trigone
C) detrusor
201
The male urethra is ___________.
A) shorter than the female urethra
B) used only for urinary purposes
C) about 6 cm long
D) used by the reproductive and urinary systems
E) divided into four main sections
D) used by the reproductive and urinary systems
202
Normal urine from a healthy person can be expected to contain all of the following except
__________.
A) creatinine
B) urea
C) glucose
D) ammonia
E) uric acid
C) glucose
203
Most body water comes from __________, whereas most body water is lost via _________.
A) metabolic water; cutaneous transpiration
B) metabolic water; sweat
C) drinking; cutaneous transpiration and expired air
D) drinking; urine
E) drinking; radiation
D) drinking; urine
204
The major chemical buffers of the body are ___________.
A) urinary and respiratory
B) urinary and digestive
C) bicarbonate, phosphates, and proteins
D) bicarbonate, nucleic acids, and proteins
E) bicarbonate, phosphates, and nitrates
C) bicarbonate, phosphates, and proteins
205
Chemical digestion breaks down __________ into __________.
A) proteins; nucleotides
B) amino acids; proteins
C) polysaccharides; amino acids
D) fatty acids; cholesterol
E) complex carbohydrates; monosaccharides
E) complex carbohydrates; monosaccharides
206
What is the correct order of digestive tract tissue layers from the lumen to the external
surface?
A) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa
B) Serosa, mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa
C) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, lamina propria
D) Mucosa, muscularis mucosae, submucosa, muscularis externa
E) Mucosa, muscularis externa, submucosa, lamina propria
A) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa
207
Infants have __________ deciduous teeth, whereas adults have __________ permanent teeth.
A) 20; 32
B) 16; 20
C) 28; 20
D) 32; 20
E) 32; 32
A) 20; 32
208
Carbohydrate digestion begins in the __________, whereas protein digestion begins in the
__________.
A) liver; small intestine
B) small intestine; stomach
C) mouth; stomach
D) mouth; small intestine
E) stomach; small intestine
C) mouth; stomach
209
__________, which is secreted by __________ cells, is necessary for vitamin B12
absorption.
A) Intrinsic factor; parietal
B) Bile salts; chief
C) Lecithin; hepatic
D) Hydrochloric acid; parietal
E) Enterokinase; mucous
A) Intrinsic factor; parietal
210
Which of the following helps protect the stomach lining from digesting itself?
A) HCl
B) Pepsin
C) Intrinsic factor
D) Alkaline mucus
E) Enterokinase
D) Alkaline mucus
211
What stimulates the liver and pancreas to release bicarbonate?
A) Secretin
B) Pepsin
C) Cholecystokinin
D) Histamine
E) Gastrin
A) Secretin
212
Of the following components of bile, only __________ has/have a digestive function.
A) bile salts
B) bilirubin
C) cholesterol
D) phospholipids
E) neutral fats
A) bile salts
213
__________ break(s) down __________.
A) Lactase; glucose
B) Peptidases; proteins
C) Lipases; micelles
D) Lactose; lactase
E) Nucleases; nucleotides
B) Peptidases; proteins
214
Which of these nutrients is absorbed by the lacteals of the small intestine?
A) Triglycerides
B) Amino acids
C) Glucose
D) Minerals
E) Water-soluble vitamins
A) Triglycerides
