Best Practices: Email Deliverability and Privacy Flashcards

1
Q

According to the 2014 Email Deliverability 101 report, how many opt-in marketing emails never make it to the in-box?

A

Over 20%.

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2
Q

Where do emails that don’t make it to in-boxes end up?

A

In spam or junk folders, or are blocked by ISP-level filtering before even making it to the email address.

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3
Q

What region had the highest rate of commercial emails delivered to the in-box?

A

Europe.

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4
Q

Define email deliverability.

A

The process of putting your email marketing messages into the in-box of recipients.

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5
Q

One of the key factors to successful email deliverability is creating email campaigns that are __________

A

relevant to your audience.

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6
Q

Your ability to reach prospects’ in-box is tied to ___

A

deliverability and privacy.

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7
Q

You are responsible for developing a comprehensive ___

A

privacy policy.

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8
Q

You need to reduce the likelihood of _____, unsubscribes, bounces, and spam traps.

A

complaints

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9
Q

You need to reduce the likelihood of complaints, ____, bounces, and spam traps.

A

unsubscribes

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10
Q

You need to reduce the likelihood of complaints, unsubscribes, ___, and spam traps.

A

bounces

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11
Q

You need to reduce the likelihood of complaints, unsubscribes, bounces, and ____.

A

spam traps.

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12
Q

Your reputation as an _____ impacts your potential reach as a marketer.

A

email sender

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13
Q

To understand your email service provider’s capabilities, you should (1) _________; (2) get proper counsel; (3) attain third-party certification as a trusted sender.

A

know privacy laws where you do business

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14
Q

To understand your email service provider’s capabilities, you should (1) know privacy laws where you do business; (2) _____; (3) attain third-party certification as a trusted sender.

A

get proper counsel

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15
Q

To understand your email service provider’s capabilities, you should (1) know privacy laws where you do business; (2) get proper counsel; (3) ______.

A

attain third-party certification as a trusted sender.

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16
Q

Best practices for successful email deliverability: (1) ______, (2) Manage your email list, (3) Optimize your content.

A

Manage your reputation

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17
Q

Best practices for successful email deliverability: (1) Manage your reputation, (2) _____, (3) Optimize your content.

A

Manage your email list

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18
Q

Best practices for successful email deliverability: (1) Manage your reputation, (2) Manage your email list, (3) ______.

A

Optimize your content

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19
Q

____ is based on your behavior as an email sender.

A

Sender reputation

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20
Q

To manage your sender reputation, you need to know your __

A

Sender score

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21
Q

Spam filtering has made a shift from _______ to a reputation based system.

A

content scoring

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22
Q

To manage your email reputation, you need to control ______.

A

spam complaints.

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23
Q

To keep spam complaints down and comply with regulations, you should ______

A

obtain recipient permissions.

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24
Q

To see the data underlying your email sender score, you can _____

A

register at senderscore.org.

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25
Sender scores use the following data: (1) _____, (2) complaint rates (3) unknown user rates (4) infrastructure (5) spam trap hits (6) content
send volume
26
Sender scores use the following data: (1) send volume, (2) _____ (3) unknown user rates (4) infrastructure (5) spam trap hits (6) content
complaint rates
27
Sender scores use the following data: (1) send volume, (2) complaint rates (3) ____ (4) infrastructure (5) spam trap hits (6) content
unknown user rates
28
Sender scores use the following data: (1) send volume, (2) complaint rates (3) unknown user rates (4) ___ (5) spam trap hits (6) content
infrastructure
29
Sender scores use the following data: (1) send volume, (2) complaint rates (3) unknown user rates (4) infrastructure (5) ___ (6) content
spam trap hits
30
Sender scores use the following data: (1) send volume, (2) complaint rates (3) unknown user rates (4) infrastructure (5) spam trap hits (6) _____
content
31
Sender scores are based on a scale of
0 to 100
32
If you would like to see your Sender Score, you must first know if...
you are using a Dedicated IP or a Shared IP
33
If you are on the Shared IP range, can one company's bad behavior affect another company's sender score?
Yes.
34
Besides senderscore.org, where can you find more statistical information on sender scores?
Eloqua Trust page.
35
What did a Return Path study learn about messages sent by senders with a sender score lower than 50?
Over 85% of them were classified as spam.
36
For webmail providers, a sender score of 90+ equals what average inbox rate?
84%
37
What is the #1 global deliverability organization?
ReturnPath
38
If your sender score is in the highest benchmark range of 90-100, what will your average deliverability rate be?
95%
39
Where do most legitimate businesses fall in terms of sender score, and what does this mean for their average deliverability rate?
Most fall in the range between 60 and 89, and end up with an average deliverabiity rate of 68%.
40
Sender Scores are based on what three key components?
Complaints, unknown users, and spam traps.
41
What is the "unknown users" component of sender score?
The percentage of emails sent from an IP address to nonexistent addresses - aka hard bouncebacks.
42
______ are dummy email addresses developed by ISP's or anti-spam organizations to catch illegitimate emails.
Spam traps
43
If your email is caught in a Spam Trap, ISPs send out a _____ message.
5XX Unknown User SMTP error message
44
One Spam Trap can decrease your Sender Score and inbox placement rates by how much?
Your Sender Score can decrease by more than 20 points and your inbox placement rates can go to 81% and lower.
45
Spam Traps can cause your ____ to become blacklisted.
Mailing IP's and/or domains
46
Membership in the ____ may be suspended for exceeding acceptable Span Trap thresholds.
Return Path Certification Program.
47
Because identifying Spam Traps can be time consuming, you should narrow in on ...
suspicious segments.
48
For the most part, _____ are the primary source of Spam Trap addresses.
rented or purchased lists.
49
You can manage Spam Traps by using an _____ filter to...
using an inactivity-based filter to filter out inactive contacts from your list.
50
A ______ can check your lists against known spam trap addresses.
third-party service
51
If you need more help with spam traps, consider using a...
Delivery Program Assistance incident.
52
A Delivery Program Assistance incident is available as part of Eloqua's...
Branding and Delivery Boost package.
53
To control complaints, (1) monitor complaint trends and (2)
Avoid getting on blacklists.
54
To control complaints, (1) ___ and (2) Avoid getting on blacklists.
monitor complaint trends
55
As a best practice, keep a close eye on your complaints. When should you benchmark?
Every few months and/or when you email in large batches.
56
A _____ is a list of IP addresses, URLs, or domain names that are to be avoided.
blacklist
57
Blacklists are chiefly used to publish...
lists of addresses linked to spamming.
58
tip 1 to remove yourself from a blacklist: (1) visit the link to the ______ that is included in the notification
blocking service
59
tip 2 to remove yourself from a blacklist: (2) If the link to the blocking service is not provided, search your ___
Bounceback History report
60
tip 3 to remove yourself from a blacklist: contact the _____ to discuss and identify the issue
ESP/ISP Postmaster
61
How can you find out if you're on a blacklist?
Use an online tool
62
If you've been blocked via blacklist, you will typically...
receive a notification.
63
___ is an email validation system, allowing admins to specify which hosts are allowed to send email from a given domain.
Sender Policy Framework (SPF)
64
What does SPF stand for?
Sender Policy Framework
65
SPF creates a specific ______ in your DNS settings.
SPF or TXT record
66
When Eloqua is first installed, part of the implementation process involves setting your ____ to validate email spoofing.
SPF record details within the DNS settings on all sending domains.
67
A _____ is a list of approved IP addresses and senders.
whitelist
68
To get your IP address on a whitelist, you need to establish a track record as a ___
permission-based email marketer.
69
_____ provides the certification to whitelist your IP address.
Return Path
70
Does manually moving messages into the junk folder impact the complaint rate?
Not on a desktop client like Outlook, but it will on web clients like Gmail.
71
The rate of email complaints _____ as the sender score rises.
falls dramatically
72
To gain recipient permission, send emails only when ____
explicitly requested.
73
To gain recipient permission, _____ neutral contacts.
target neutral contacts in an attempt to get them to opt-in.
74
To gain recipient permission, ____ inactive contacts.
re-engage
75
To gain recipient permission, _______ active opt-in contacts
strengthen your relationship with active opt-in contacts.
76
To gain recipient permission, respect...
subscriber preferences about content and timing.
77
When someone submits an email address in a web form, then submits that address again on a second page, it is referred to as...
double opt-in.
78
When someone fills out a web form, then affirms their request again to be on your mailing list, it is referred to as...
confirmed opt-in.
79
Spammers use the term _______ to refer to a situation where the subscriber was opted in without their consent, then "opted in" a second time by failing to unsubscribe.
double opt-in
80
As a best practice, use the __ to increase the number of valid emails in your database.
Confirmed Opt-In
81
Is Confirmed Opt-In widely used? Why or why not?
It is used by very few clients because of its impact on the subscription rates.
82
To manage your email list, (1) ____, (2) perform IP warming, (3) process bouncebacks, (4) filter to find active contacts.
validate list sources.
83
To manage your email list, (1) validate list sources, (2) perform IP warming, (3) _____, (4) filter to find active contacts.
process bouncebacks
84
To manage your email list, (1) validate list sources, (2) perform IP warming, (3) process bouncebacks, (4) ___
filter to find active contacts.
85
To manage your email list, (1) validate list sources, (2) _____, (3) process bouncebacks, (4) filter to find active contacts.
perform IP warming
86
True or false: Best practice says do not buy or rent lists.
True.
87
If you buy lists, understand (1) _____ (2) age and last usage date (3) how they monitor and remove complainers (4) how they verify and maintain opt-in statuses
source of data
88
If you buy lists, understand (1) source of data (2) ________ (3) how they monitor and remove complainers (4) how they verify and maintain opt-in statuses
age and last usage date
89
If you buy lists, understand (1) source of data (2) age and last usage date (3) ______ (4) how they verify and maintain opt-in statuses
how they monitor and remove complainers
90
If you buy lists, understand (1) source of data (2) age and last usage date (3) how they monitor and remove complainers (4) ____
how they verify and maintain opt-in statuses
91
Use Case - Eloqua's marketing IP had been blocked on ____
SpamHaus
92
Eloqua had to remove a purchased list from its database in its entirety, which meant...
they lost addresses they had paid for.
93
Out of the SpamHaus incident, Eloqua's ___ document was born.
Outside List Acquisition Best Practices document
94
To perform IP warming, (1) send emails to all addresses in a phased manner and then remove hard bounces; (2) ______; (3) use recent contact info only; (4) use HTML with simple design; (4) review reports after each send.
confirm the list does not contain previously unsubscribed addresses
95
To perform IP warming, (1) ______ (2) confirm the list does not contain previously unsubscribed addresses; (3) use recent contact info only; (4) use HTML with simple design; (4) review reports after each send.
send emails to all addresses in a phased manner and then remove hard bounces;
96
To perform IP warming, (1) send emails to all addresses in a phased manner and then remove hard bounces; (2) confirm the list does not contain previously unsubscribed addresses; (3) use recent contact info only; (4) ______; (5) review reports after each send.
use HTML with simple design
97
To perform IP warming, (1) send emails to all addresses in a phased manner and then remove hard bounces; (2) confirm the list does not contain previously unsubscribed addresses; (3) use recent contact info only; (4) use HTML with simple design; (5) _____.
review reports after each send
98
To perform IP warming, (1) send emails to all addresses in a phased manner and then remove hard bounces; (2) confirm the list does not contain previously unsubscribed addresses; (3) _____; (4) use HTML with simple design; (4) review reports after each send.
use recent contact info only
99
__ is the process of slowly introducing your new sender IP address by gradually increasing the volume of emails sent from that IP over a period of time.
IP warning
100
Many companies skip the IP warming process. Why?
Because it may slow their sending for the first month.
101
In IP warming, the first step uses content that is...
not time sensitive.
102
3 good campaign types to use for IP warming are:
(1) a data harvest campaign, (2) a campaign to update subscription options, or (3) a simple newsletter campaign
103
Step 2 in IP warming is to build a list of contacts that...
have explicitly opted-in.
104
In the first week of IP warming, send the email to...
1% of your total list each day.
105
In the second week of IP warming, send the email to..
3% of the list each day
106
In the third week of IP warming, increase the email send to...
10% of the list each day.
107
During IP warming, monitor and remove contacts who...
bounceback, unsubscribe, or complain.
108
To manage lists successfully, (1) ____ (2) keep hard bouncebacks under 3% (3) monitor spam complaints and bounceback reports
remove hard bouncebacks from segment
109
To manage lists successfully, (1) remove hard bouncebacks from segment (2) _____ (3) monitor spam complaints and bounceback reports
keep hard bouncebacks under 3%
110
To manage lists successfully, (1) remove hard bouncebacks from segment (2) keep hard bouncebacks under 3% (3) ____
monitor spam complaints and bounceback reports
111
Eloqua by default auto-suppresses any sends to a Contact flagged as a...
hard bounceback
112
Not sending to hard bouncebacks supports...
reporting
113
What timeframe do most Eloqua clients use to weed out inactive contacts?
3 - 6 months
114
After __ unsuccessful attempts to engage contacts, it's time to...
suppress them from future sends.
115
To manage your content, (1) ______, (2) optimize relevancy and frequency, (3) review and refine content.
reinforce email expectations
116
To manage your content, (1) reinforce email expectations, (2) ______, (3) review and refine content.
optimize relevancy and frequency
117
To manage your content, (1) reinforce email expectations, (2) optimize relevancy and frequency, (3) ______.
review and refine content
118
To reinforce email expectations, (1) ______, (2) send welcome messages, (3) check in with contacts periodically, (4) move subscription management options to upper half of your emails
communicate your privacy policy
119
To reinforce email expectations, (1) communicate your privacy policy, (2) send welcome messages, (3) _____, (4) move subscription management options to upper half of your emails
check in with contacts periodically
120
To reinforce email expectations, (1) communicate your privacy policy, (2) send welcome messages, (3) check in with contacts periodically, (4) ____
move subscription management options to upper half of your emails
121
To reinforce email expectations, (1) communicate your privacy policy, (2) ____, (3) check in with contacts periodically, (4) move subscription management options to upper half of your emails
send welcome messages
122
To optimize relevancy and frequency, use ___ to test frequency and determine the optimal mix for your target audience.
automated programs
123
To optimize relevancy and frequency, ask subscribers for...
input and feedback.
124
What should you strive for in bounce and complaint rates?
Bounce rate less than 3%, complaint rate less than 0.01%
125
You should generate reports that provide insight into:
bounces, complaints, and unsubscribes
126
Forrester's Email Marketing Trends 2012 report shows what two are the leading reasons for unsubscribes?
Relevance at 31.4%, frequency at 30.7%
127
In the ASCE case study, how did Eloqua help ASCE send to over 1.5 million contacts in 30 days with a 98% inbox acceptance rate?
(1) Analyzed lists, (2) optimized content, (3) sent emails in multiple small batches each day.
128
The ______ report allows you to see the contacts that have bounced per email
Email Bounceback Overview
129
The ___ report allows you to see specific bounceback error messages
Bounceback History with Messaging
130
The __ report allows you to see bounceback messages generated by email sends by Sales reps
Sales Email Overview
131
The ____ report allows you to see who has reported you as spam to their email provider
Spam Unsubscribe Report
132
What are the three standard testing tools of Eloqua per email?
General Deliverability Test, Inbox Preview Test, and Spam Content Check
133
To access the General Deliverability test from an email...
Action > Test Content and Deliverability
134
Test Content and Deliverability allows external tests via ___
Return Path
135
The _______ test sends your email to a variety of seed accounts and returns Inbox, Junk, and Missing percentages or each domain.
General Deliverability Test
136
The output of the General Deliverability test is an __ that displays your deliverability percentages around the world.
an Excel file
137
The Excel file that you get after running a General Deliverability Test shows what three statistics?
Inbox Percentage, Bulk Percentage, and Missing Percentage.
138
"Missing" emails are what?
Emails that never made it to the Inbox or the Junk folders, which typically means they were blocked at the ISP level.
139
The General Deliverability column that reads ISP also includes what else?
ESP's and Spam filters
140
The _____ report shows how emails will appear in a number of different email client inboxes.
Inbox Preview Test
141
The ___ and the ____ run together
Inbox Preview Test and Spam Content Test
142
The __ examines email performance against a range of commonly used email spam filters.
Spam Content Test
143
The Spam Content Test evaluates your email for _____ words
spam-like words
144
A link reputation check checks your email for...
links to questionable websites
145
Which report shows information more on the bouncebacks themselves, and not the Contacts?
Bounceback History with Messaging
146
Name three steps with regards to Email Deliverability Best Practices.
1. Manage your reputation, 2. Manage your email list, 3. Optimize your content
147
What factors is your sender reputation based on?
Complaints, unknown users, and spam traps.
148
Canada's Anti-Spam Legislation is a __ available to everyone
Private Right of Action (PRA)
149
True or false: CASL is not limited to email communications.
True. It includes all commercial electronic communication.
150
True or false? CASL requires express affirmative consent, or opt-in.
True.
151
True or false? CASL requires truthful headers like sender and subject line.
True.
152
True or false? CASL permits you to alter transmission data.
False.
153
True or false? CASL requires a conspicuous unsubscribe mechanism.
True.
154
True or false? CASL requires you to include the postal address of the sender.
True.
155
Under CASL, can you perform address harvesting or send to harvested addresses?
True.
156
Who has liability under CASL?
Entities who knowingly allow spam to be sent on their behalf
157
The CASL law accepts implied opt-in in what 3 situations?
(1) existing business relationship; (2) conspicuously published email addresses; (4) recipients have provided email address directly to sender
158
Is it an existing business relationship if someone donates to, volunteers for, or becomes an official member of your organization?
No.
159
What are CASL fines?
Up to $1 million per violation for individuals, up to $10 million per violation for businesses.
160
To grow your database, adopt rigorous list management and acquisition practices, including:
a double opt-in or confirmed opt-in process.
161
Keep opt-outs ______________
simple and easy to access
162
A C-28 best practice is to include what kind of contact information in each email?
Company name, contact information and sender's information if company is sending emails on your behalf?
163
A C-28 best practice is to build your own list of ...
permission-based contacts.
164
In case your unsubscribe link is not working properly, you should include a....
phone number.
165
CASL's anti-spam provisions went into effect when?
July 1, 2014
166
When do CASL's installation of computer programs provisions go into effect?
January 15, 2015
167
When do CASL's Private Right of Action provisions take effect?
July 1, 2017
168
For more info on CASL where can you go?
The Canadian Communications Law website.
169
What are 3 things you should do today about CASL?
(1) Check if you have opt-in confirmation for Canadian contacts (2) if not, obtain explicit consent within 2 years (3) segment contacts by country
170
What are penalties for CAN-SPAM violations
Up to $1 million or 5 years in prison
171
For more info on CAN-SPAM where can you go?
Bureau of Consumer Protection Business Center
172
CAN-SPAM prohibits the use of false or misleading _________
header information and subject lines
173
True or false: CAN-SPAM requires you identify a message as an ad.
True.
174
What are CAN-SPAM's opt-out requirements?
Tell recipients how to opt out, and honor opt-out requests promptly
175
Does CAN-SPAM require you to monitor what others are doing on your behalf?
Yes.
176
What kind of contact information does CAN-SPAM require you to provide?
A valid physical postal address.
177
Under CAN-SPAM, can your contact address be a P.O. box?
Yes.
178
The key to determining if your message is commercial or transactional lies in...
The bulk of the message's content.
179
Under CAN-SPAM and CASL can you include a short commercial message in a transactional email?
Yes.
180
4 CAN-SPAM best practices: (1) ____; (2) Keep a company-wide Do Not Email list; (3) Include address specific code to help identify Do-Not Email requests; (4) honor opt-out requests promptly
Use a footer allowing opt-outs
181
4 CAN-SPAM best practices: (1) Use a footer allowing opt-outs; (2) _____; (3) Include address specific code to help identify Do-Not Email requests; (4) honor opt-out requests promptly
Keep a company-wide Do Not Email list
182
4 CAN-SPAM best practices: (1) Use a footer allowing opt-outs; (2) Keep a company-wide Do Not Email list; (3) _____; (4) honor opt-out requests promptly
Include address specific code to help identify Do-Not Email requests
183
4 CAN-SPAM best practices: (1) Use a footer allowing opt-outs; (2) Keep a company-wide Do Not Email list; (3) Include address specific code to help identify Do-Not Email requests and prevent forwarded emails from being confused with spam; (4) _____
honor opt-out requests promptly
184
Do CAN-SPAM and CASL prohibit no-reply email addresses for commercial email?
Yes.
185
Does Eloqua automatically include recipient-specific coding in emails to prevent forwarded emails from being confused with spam?
Yes.
186
Under CAN-SPAM and CASL, what are the time requirements for unsubscribe requests to be processed?
Must be processed within 10 days.
187
Under CAN-SPAM and CASL, how long after an email is sent must the Unsubscribe link be valid
60 days.
188
What is Canada's privacy law called?
PIPEDA
189
What is the EU privacy law called?
EU Data Protection Law
190
Does the US have different laws for different types of data?
Yes
191
In the US, who governs commercial data privacy?
The Federal Trade Commission (FTC)
192
In the US< who governs health data?
Department of Health and Human Services
193
When did PIPEDA become law in Canada?
April 13, 2000
194
What does PIPEDA stand for?
Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act
195
The 5 principles of PIPEDA are: (1) ____, (2) Identifying Purposes (3) Consent (4) Limiting Collection (5) Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention
Accountability
196
The 5 principles of PIPEDA are: (1) Accountability, (2) _____ (3) Consent (4) Limiting Collection (5) Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention
Identifying Purposes
197
The 5 principles of PIPEDA are: (1) Accountability, (2) Identifying Purposes (3) ___ (4) Limiting Collection (5) Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention
Consent
198
The 5 principles of PIPEDA are: (1) Accountability, (2) Identifying Purposes (3) Consent (4) _____ (5) Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention
Limiting Collection
199
The first 5 principles of PIPEDA are: (1) Accountability, (2) Identifying Purposes (3) Consent (4) Limiting Collection (5) ______
Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention
200
According to the _____ principle of PIPEDA, you have to have an individual at your organization who owns PIPEDA compliance.
Accountability
201
The _____ principle of PIPEDA says a company has to tell you why they want certain information.
Identifying purposes
202
What is one example of a way you can provide data without giving consent?
When your online behavior is tracked via cookies.
203
The _____ principle of PIPEDA means you can only collect as much data as you need for the purpose.
Limiting Collection.
204
The ____ principle of PIPEDA means you can't keep information longer than you need it to fulfill the purpose you stated when you collected the data.
Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention
205
The second 5 principles of PIPEDA are (6) Accuracy, (7) ____, (8) Openness, (9) Individual access, (10) Challenging compliance
Safeguards
206
The second 5 principles of PIPEDA are (6) Accuracy, (7) Safeguards, (8) _____, (9) Individual access, (10) Challenging compliance
Openness
207
The second 5 principles of PIPEDA are (6) ___, (7) Safeguards, (8) Openness, (9) Individual access, (10) Challenging compliance
Accuracy
208
The second 5 principles of PIPEDA are (6) Accuracy, (7) Safeguards, (8) Openness, (9) ____, (10) Challenging compliance
Individual access
209
The second 5 principles of PIPEDA are (6) Accuracy, (7) Safeguards, (8) Openness, (9) Individual access, (10) _____
Challenging compliance
210
The ____ principle of PIPEDA means you have to provide easy access to the PIPEDA compliance officer at your organization to address any challenges.
Challenging Compliance
211
Six PIPEDA best practices are (1) _____ (2) opt-outs (3) education (4) never share data (5) use of voice (6) be sure you know who you're talking to.
privacy policy
212
Six PIPEDA best practices are (1) privacy policy (2) ____ (3) education (4) never share data (5) use of voice (6) be sure you know who you're talking to.
opt-outs
213
Six PIPEDA best practices are (1) privacy policy (2) opt-outs (3) _____ (4) never share data (5) use of voice (6) be sure you know who you're talking to.
education
214
Six PIPEDA best practices are (1) privacy policy (2) opt-outs (3) education (4) _____ (5) use of voice (6) be sure you know who you're talking to.
never share data
215
Six PIPEDA best practices are (1) privacy policy (2) opt-outs (3) education (4) never share data (5) _____ (6) be sure you know who you're talking to.
use of voice
216
Six PIPEDA best practices are (1) privacy policy (2) opt-outs (3) education (4) never share data (5) use of voice (6) ____
be sure you know who you're talking to.
217
The ______ PIPEDA best practice means to use the data you've gathered intelligently and discreetly.
Use of Voice
218
"Not Joe, click here" is an example of what PIPEDA best practice?
Be sure you know who you're talking to.
219
In the EU, what kind of consent must you obtain before installing cookies on a person's computer
explicit opt-in consent.
220
EU's protection applies when data is collected or processed in or through...
an establishment located in any EU member state.
221
If the data is processed through ______ located in the EU, the EU protection requirement applies
equipment, in particular a server
222
Some EU member states have national data protection laws that are...
stricter than the EU data protection law.
223
EU: Which law always overrides? The stricter or the weaker?
The stricter
224
EU: Who is responsible for compliance - Eloqua or the customer?
The customer.
225
EU: To draft and obtain consent, you should use _____ language.
Plain language.
226
EU: To obtain consent, the ____ has to be identified
data controller
227
EU: To obtain consent, you must disclose the ___ of data collected, ____, and why ____
type of data collected, how it is done, and why it is being collected and processed.
228
EU: What needs to be in place to prevent giving of consent by mistake?
Safeguards.
229
What's an example of a safeguard?
Not providing pre-checked boxes.
230
EU: You must provide information on the consequences of:
not consenting.
231
EU: you must give a brief explanation of the users'
rights.
232
EU: When does the user need to give consent?
Prior to the collection of personal data.
233
An essential certification for transferring data from the EU to the US for processing is....
Safe Harbor
234
Is Eloqua Safe Harbor certified?
Yes
235
Is it a good idea to obtain your own Safe Harbor certification?
Yes
236
A third party privacy monitoring and auditing service is...
TRUSTe
237
TRUSTe ensures compliance with...
Safe Harbor certification and related marketing practices.
238
Eloqua works directly with TRUSTe. This enables customers to (1) and (2)
(1) enjoy one-click access to TRUSTe data management solutions and auditing (2) attach the TRUSTe symbol to emails, forms, and landing pages.
239
Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) ______ (2) Visitor tracking opt-outs (3) Confirmed opt-in process (4) Subscription management (5) Master Exclude list (6) Form layouts with tracking opt-in options (7) Notification and Data Protection Official
Tracking and cookies enablement
240
Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) Tracking and cookies enablement (2) _______ (3) Confirmed opt-in process (4) Subscription management (5) Master Exclude list (6) Form layouts with tracking opt-in options (7) Notification and Data Protection Official
Visitor tracking opt-outs
241
Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) Tracking and cookies enablement (2) Visitor tracking opt-outs (3) ______ (4) Subscription management (5) Master Exclude list (6) Form layouts with tracking opt-in options (7) Notification and Data Protection Official
Confirmed opt-in process
242
Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) Tracking and cookies enablement (2) Visitor tracking opt-outs (3) Confirmed opt-in process (4) _______ (5) Master Exclude list (6) Form layouts with tracking opt-in options (7) Notification and Data Protection Official
Subscription management
243
Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) Tracking and cookies enablement (2) Visitor tracking opt-outs (3) Confirmed opt-in process (4) Subscription management (5) _______ (6) Form layouts with tracking opt-in options (7) Notification and Data Protection Official
Master Exclude list
244
Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) Tracking and cookies enablement (2) Visitor tracking opt-outs (3) Confirmed opt-in process (4) Subscription management (5) Master Exclude list (6) ________ (7) Notification and Data Protection Official
Form layouts with tracking opt-in options
245
Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) Tracking and cookies enablement (2) Visitor tracking opt-outs (3) Confirmed opt-in process (4) Subscription management (5) Master Exclude list (6) Form layouts with tracking opt-in options (7) ________
Notification and Data Protection Official
246
Name the three Strict Mode tracking options.
(1) Track all visitors (2) Track visitors that are not on the Country by IP restriction list and track visitors from restricted countries that have opted-in to tracking (3) Do not track any visitor unless he has opted-in to tracking
247
Which Strict Mode tracking option is the most commonly used?
Dynamically tracking visitors based on the country they're in.
248
Does Eloqua maintain a list of countries that require opt-ins?
Yes.
249
Whose responsibility is it to make sure the list of IP restrictions is complete and that you comply with the privacy laws?
Yours. Eloqua provides guidelines to create a list of IP restrictions.
250
How do you enable Strict Mode settings?
Contact Eloqua Support using My Oracle Support.
251
Once you enable Strict Mode, can it be enabled only for some websites you track?
No, it's enabled for your entire Eloqua install.
252
Things to check today: (1) ________ (2) are you tracking EU prospects? (3) Do you offer tracking opt-out? (4) Do you have a mixed install? (5) Does your privacy policy state you are dropping a cookie?
do you have an EU presence?
253
Things to check today: (1) do you have an EU presence? (2) _______ (3) Do you offer tracking opt-out? (4) Do you have a mixed install? (5) Does your privacy policy state you are dropping a cookie?
are you tracking EU prospects?
254
Things to check today: (1) do you have an EU presence? (2) are you tracking EU prospects? (3) ______ (4) Do you have a mixed install? (5) Does your privacy policy state you are dropping a cookie?
Do you offer tracking opt-out?
255
Things to check today: (1) do you have an EU presence? (2) are you tracking EU prospects? (3) Do you offer tracking opt-out? (4) _______ (5) Does your privacy policy state you are dropping a cookie?
Do you have a mixed install?
256
Things to check today: (1) do you have an EU presence? (2) are you tracking EU prospects? (3) Do you offer tracking opt-out? (4) Do you have a mixed install? (5) _____
Does your privacy policy state you are dropping a cookie?
257
What is meant by a mixed install?
You have a global marketing team sharing the same Eloqua database
258
True/False: C-28 is a private right of action available only to businesses.
False
259
True/False: There is no implied consent for referrals.
True.
260
True/False: C-28 accepts implied opt-in consent when the recipients have provided their email address directly to the sender.
True.
261
What does ESPC stand for?
Canada's Email Sender and Provider Coalition.
262
In Canada, how long is implied consent valid for in most cases?
Two years.
263
Under the EU Data Reform, the __________ requires organizations to completely delete someone's personal data if they request it.
Right to be Forgotten
264
The ________ proposes to create one universal set of guidelines and laws on data protection that will apply to all of the EU
EU Data Reform
265
Under the EU Data Reform, the ______ notification requirement would be removed
regional
266
Under the EU data reform, when must data breaches be reported?
Within 24 hours.
267
The EU Data Reform has increased stringency around ___ advertising.
behavioral advertising
268
Under the EU Data Reform, companies must share data on an individual on request in a _______ format.
portable
269
In 2012, the ________ put together a Data Breach Investigations report that was released in 2013
Verizon Enterprise RISK team
270
True or false: Data storage companies are more susceptible to data breach from within, and therefore they are the only ones who need to take preventative steps against data breach.
False.
271
According to Verizon's 2013 Data Breach Investigations report, who was responsible for data breaches?
92% of breaches stemmed from external agents.
272
What types of external agents committed data breaches?
55% organized crime, 21% state-affiliated, 21% unknown, 2% Hactivists, 1% former employees
273
What was the motivation for state-affiliated data breaches?
Usually espionage.
274
We are getting better at protecting against _____ and ____.
Hackers and malware.
275
In 2012 there were large upticks in ____, _____, and ____ types of data breaches.
physical, social, and misuse
276
Physical data breach attacks encompass ____ and increased by ____ in 2012.
actual physical theft, increased by 25%
277
____ is the main source of social data breaches and includes tactics such as ____ and _____
Email; phishing and pretexting
278
When an individual lies to obtain privileged data, this is called _____
pretexting.
279
To prevent data breaches, smaller organizations should (1) _____, (2) change default credentials of POS systems and other Internet-facing devices (3) Use two-step verification (4) Check third-party IT vendors' security measures
use a firewall
280
To prevent data breaches, smaller organizations should (1) use a firewall, (2) ______ (3) Use two-step verification (4) Check third-party IT vendors' security measures
change default credentials of POS systems and other Internet-facing devices
281
To prevent data breaches, smaller organizations should (1) use a firewall, (2) change default credentials of POS systems and other Internet-facing devices (3) ______ (4) Check third-party IT vendors' security measures
Use two-step verification
282
To prevent data breaches, smaller organizations should (1) use a firewall, (2) change default credentials of POS systems and other Internet-facing devices (3) Use two-step verification (4) _______
Check third-party IT vendors' security measures
283
To prevent data breaches, larger organizations should (1) _____ (2) ensure all essential controls are met and regulated (3) monitor event logs (4) evaluate current threats in your industry space
eliminate unnecessary data
284
To prevent data breaches, larger organizations should (1) eliminate unnecessary data (2) _____ (3) monitor event logs (4) evaluate current threats in your industry space
ensure all essential controls are met and regulated
285
To prevent data breaches, larger organizations should (1) eliminate unnecessary data (2) ensure all essential controls are met and regulated (3) _____ (4) evaluate current threats in your industry space
monitor event logs
286
To prevent data breaches, larger organizations should (1) eliminate unnecessary data (2) ensure all essential controls are met and regulated (3) monitor event logs (4) ___
evaluate current threats in your industry space
287
By February 2014, the cost of the December 2013 retail store data breach was:
$61 million
288
The April 2014 ___________ took advantage of a weakness in the OpenSSL and allowed hackers to gather data from supposedly secure sites.
HeartBleed Bug
289
How many secure web servers were vulnerable to the HeartBleed Bug attack?
17%, or a half million
290
What was the worst intelligence data breach of all time?
The Snowden affair
291
Why did Edward Snowden have access to so much information?
Through lack of compartmentalization and security access levels
292
Eloqua's ______ allow you to manage the IP addresses that are allowed to access your database.
IP address restrictions
293
Data Breach Law - best practices: (1) ______ (2) protect cardholder data (3) maintain Vulnerability Management program (4) access control measures (5) monitor and test networks (6) maintain information security policy
safe internal network
294
Data Breach Law - best practices: (1) safe internal network (2) ______ (3) maintain Vulnerability Management program (4) access control measures (5) monitor and test networks (6) maintain information security policy
protect cardholder data
295
Data Breach Law - best practices: (1) safe internal network (2) protect cardholder data (3) maintain a ______ (4) access control measures (5) monitor and test networks (6) maintain information security policy
Vulnerability Management program
296
Data Breach Law - best practices: (1) safe internal network (2) protect cardholder data (3) maintain Vulnerability Management program (4) _____ (5) monitor and test networks (6) maintain information security policy
access control measures
297
Data Breach Law - best practices: (1) safe internal network (2) protect cardholder data (3) maintain Vulnerability Management program (4) access control measures (5) ____ (6) maintain information security policy
monitor and test networks
298
Data Breach Law - best practices: (1) safe internal network (2) protect cardholder data (3) maintain Vulnerability Management program (4) access control measures (5) monitor and test networks (6) maintain _____
an information security policy