Best Practices: Email Deliverability and Privacy Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Best Practices: Email Deliverability and Privacy Deck (298):
1

According to the 2014 Email Deliverability 101 report, how many opt-in marketing emails never make it to the in-box?

Over 20%.

2

Where do emails that don't make it to in-boxes end up?

In spam or junk folders, or are blocked by ISP-level filtering before even making it to the email address.

3

What region had the highest rate of commercial emails delivered to the in-box?

Europe.

4

Define email deliverability.

The process of putting your email marketing messages into the in-box of recipients.

5

One of the key factors to successful email deliverability is creating email campaigns that are __________

relevant to your audience.

6

Your ability to reach prospects' in-box is tied to ___

deliverability and privacy.

7

You are responsible for developing a comprehensive ___

privacy policy.

8

You need to reduce the likelihood of _____, unsubscribes, bounces, and spam traps.

complaints

9

You need to reduce the likelihood of complaints, ____, bounces, and spam traps.

unsubscribes

10

You need to reduce the likelihood of complaints, unsubscribes, ___, and spam traps.

bounces

11

You need to reduce the likelihood of complaints, unsubscribes, bounces, and ____.

spam traps.

12

Your reputation as an _____ impacts your potential reach as a marketer.

email sender

13

To understand your email service provider's capabilities, you should (1) _________; (2) get proper counsel; (3) attain third-party certification as a trusted sender.

know privacy laws where you do business

14

To understand your email service provider's capabilities, you should (1) know privacy laws where you do business; (2) _____; (3) attain third-party certification as a trusted sender.

get proper counsel

15

To understand your email service provider's capabilities, you should (1) know privacy laws where you do business; (2) get proper counsel; (3) ______.

attain third-party certification as a trusted sender.

16

Best practices for successful email deliverability: (1) ______, (2) Manage your email list, (3) Optimize your content.

Manage your reputation

17

Best practices for successful email deliverability: (1) Manage your reputation, (2) _____, (3) Optimize your content.

Manage your email list

18

Best practices for successful email deliverability: (1) Manage your reputation, (2) Manage your email list, (3) ______.

Optimize your content

19

____ is based on your behavior as an email sender.

Sender reputation

20

To manage your sender reputation, you need to know your __

Sender score

21

Spam filtering has made a shift from _______ to a reputation based system.

content scoring

22

To manage your email reputation, you need to control ______.

spam complaints.

23

To keep spam complaints down and comply with regulations, you should ______

obtain recipient permissions.

24

To see the data underlying your email sender score, you can _____

register at senderscore.org.

25

Sender scores use the following data: (1) _____, (2) complaint rates (3) unknown user rates (4) infrastructure (5) spam trap hits (6) content

send volume

26

Sender scores use the following data: (1) send volume, (2) _____ (3) unknown user rates (4) infrastructure (5) spam trap hits (6) content

complaint rates

27

Sender scores use the following data: (1) send volume, (2) complaint rates (3) ____ (4) infrastructure (5) spam trap hits (6) content

unknown user rates

28

Sender scores use the following data: (1) send volume, (2) complaint rates (3) unknown user rates (4) ___ (5) spam trap hits (6) content

infrastructure

29

Sender scores use the following data: (1) send volume, (2) complaint rates (3) unknown user rates (4) infrastructure (5) ___ (6) content

spam trap hits

30

Sender scores use the following data: (1) send volume, (2) complaint rates (3) unknown user rates (4) infrastructure (5) spam trap hits (6) _____

content

31

Sender scores are based on a scale of

0 to 100

32

If you would like to see your Sender Score, you must first know if...

you are using a Dedicated IP or a Shared IP

33

If you are on the Shared IP range, can one company's bad behavior affect another company's sender score?

Yes.

34

Besides senderscore.org, where can you find more statistical information on sender scores?

Eloqua Trust page.

35

What did a Return Path study learn about messages sent by senders with a sender score lower than 50?

Over 85% of them were classified as spam.

36

For webmail providers, a sender score of 90+ equals what average inbox rate?

84%

37

What is the #1 global deliverability organization?

ReturnPath

38

If your sender score is in the highest benchmark range of 90-100, what will your average deliverability rate be?

95%

39

Where do most legitimate businesses fall in terms of sender score, and what does this mean for their average deliverability rate?

Most fall in the range between 60 and 89, and end up with an average deliverabiity rate of 68%.

40

Sender Scores are based on what three key components?

Complaints, unknown users, and spam traps.

41

What is the "unknown users" component of sender score?

The percentage of emails sent from an IP address to nonexistent addresses - aka hard bouncebacks.

42

______ are dummy email addresses developed by ISP's or anti-spam organizations to catch illegitimate emails.

Spam traps

43

If your email is caught in a Spam Trap, ISPs send out a _____ message.

5XX Unknown User SMTP error message

44

One Spam Trap can decrease your Sender Score and inbox placement rates by how much?

Your Sender Score can decrease by more than 20 points and your inbox placement rates can go to 81% and lower.

45

Spam Traps can cause your ____ to become blacklisted.

Mailing IP's and/or domains

46

Membership in the ____ may be suspended for exceeding acceptable Span Trap thresholds.

Return Path Certification Program.

47

Because identifying Spam Traps can be time consuming, you should narrow in on ...

suspicious segments.

48

For the most part, _____ are the primary source of Spam Trap addresses.

rented or purchased lists.

49

You can manage Spam Traps by using an _____ filter to...

using an inactivity-based filter to filter out inactive contacts from your list.

50

A ______ can check your lists against known spam trap addresses.

third-party service

51

If you need more help with spam traps, consider using a...

Delivery Program Assistance incident.

52

A Delivery Program Assistance incident is available as part of Eloqua's...

Branding and Delivery Boost package.

53

To control complaints, (1) monitor complaint trends and (2)

Avoid getting on blacklists.

54

To control complaints, (1) ___ and (2) Avoid getting on blacklists.

monitor complaint trends

55

As a best practice, keep a close eye on your complaints. When should you benchmark?

Every few months and/or when you email in large batches.

56

A _____ is a list of IP addresses, URLs, or domain names that are to be avoided.

blacklist

57

Blacklists are chiefly used to publish...

lists of addresses linked to spamming.

58

tip 1 to remove yourself from a blacklist: (1) visit the link to the ______ that is included in the notification

blocking service

59

tip 2 to remove yourself from a blacklist: (2) If the link to the blocking service is not provided, search your ___

Bounceback History report

60

tip 3 to remove yourself from a blacklist: contact the _____ to discuss and identify the issue

ESP/ISP Postmaster

61

How can you find out if you're on a blacklist?

Use an online tool

62

If you've been blocked via blacklist, you will typically...

receive a notification.

63

___ is an email validation system, allowing admins to specify which hosts are allowed to send email from a given domain.

Sender Policy Framework (SPF)

64

What does SPF stand for?

Sender Policy Framework

65

SPF creates a specific ______ in your DNS settings.

SPF or TXT record

66

When Eloqua is first installed, part of the implementation process involves setting your ____ to validate email spoofing.

SPF record details within the DNS settings on all sending domains.

67

A _____ is a list of approved IP addresses and senders.

whitelist

68

To get your IP address on a whitelist, you need to establish a track record as a ___

permission-based email marketer.

69

_____ provides the certification to whitelist your IP address.

Return Path

70

Does manually moving messages into the junk folder impact the complaint rate?

Not on a desktop client like Outlook, but it will on web clients like Gmail.

71

The rate of email complaints _____ as the sender score rises.

falls dramatically

72

To gain recipient permission, send emails only when ____

explicitly requested.

73

To gain recipient permission, _____ neutral contacts.

target neutral contacts in an attempt to get them to opt-in.

74

To gain recipient permission, ____ inactive contacts.

re-engage

75

To gain recipient permission, _______ active opt-in contacts

strengthen your relationship with active opt-in contacts.

76

To gain recipient permission, respect...

subscriber preferences about content and timing.

77

When someone submits an email address in a web form, then submits that address again on a second page, it is referred to as...

double opt-in.

78

When someone fills out a web form, then affirms their request again to be on your mailing list, it is referred to as...

confirmed opt-in.

79

Spammers use the term _______ to refer to a situation where the subscriber was opted in without their consent, then "opted in" a second time by failing to unsubscribe.

double opt-in

80

As a best practice, use the __ to increase the number of valid emails in your database.

Confirmed Opt-In

81

Is Confirmed Opt-In widely used? Why or why not?

It is used by very few clients because of its impact on the subscription rates.

82

To manage your email list, (1) ____, (2) perform IP warming, (3) process bouncebacks, (4) filter to find active contacts.

validate list sources.

83

To manage your email list, (1) validate list sources, (2) perform IP warming, (3) _____, (4) filter to find active contacts.

process bouncebacks

84

To manage your email list, (1) validate list sources, (2) perform IP warming, (3) process bouncebacks, (4) ___

filter to find active contacts.

85

To manage your email list, (1) validate list sources, (2) _____, (3) process bouncebacks, (4) filter to find active contacts.

perform IP warming

86

True or false: Best practice says do not buy or rent lists.

True.

87

If you buy lists, understand (1) _____ (2) age and last usage date (3) how they monitor and remove complainers (4) how they verify and maintain opt-in statuses

source of data

88

If you buy lists, understand (1) source of data (2) ________ (3) how they monitor and remove complainers (4) how they verify and maintain opt-in statuses

age and last usage date

89

If you buy lists, understand (1) source of data (2) age and last usage date (3) ______ (4) how they verify and maintain opt-in statuses

how they monitor and remove complainers

90

If you buy lists, understand (1) source of data (2) age and last usage date (3) how they monitor and remove complainers (4) ____

how they verify and maintain opt-in statuses

91

Use Case - Eloqua's marketing IP had been blocked on ____

SpamHaus

92

Eloqua had to remove a purchased list from its database in its entirety, which meant...

they lost addresses they had paid for.

93

Out of the SpamHaus incident, Eloqua's ___ document was born.

Outside List Acquisition Best Practices document

94

To perform IP warming, (1) send emails to all addresses in a phased manner and then remove hard bounces; (2) ______; (3) use recent contact info only; (4) use HTML with simple design; (4) review reports after each send.

confirm the list does not contain previously unsubscribed addresses

95

To perform IP warming, (1) ______ (2) confirm the list does not contain previously unsubscribed addresses; (3) use recent contact info only; (4) use HTML with simple design; (4) review reports after each send.

send emails to all addresses in a phased manner and then remove hard bounces;

96

To perform IP warming, (1) send emails to all addresses in a phased manner and then remove hard bounces; (2) confirm the list does not contain previously unsubscribed addresses; (3) use recent contact info only; (4) ______; (5) review reports after each send.

use HTML with simple design

97

To perform IP warming, (1) send emails to all addresses in a phased manner and then remove hard bounces; (2) confirm the list does not contain previously unsubscribed addresses; (3) use recent contact info only; (4) use HTML with simple design; (5) _____.

review reports after each send

98

To perform IP warming, (1) send emails to all addresses in a phased manner and then remove hard bounces; (2) confirm the list does not contain previously unsubscribed addresses; (3) _____; (4) use HTML with simple design; (4) review reports after each send.

use recent contact info only

99

__ is the process of slowly introducing your new sender IP address by gradually increasing the volume of emails sent from that IP over a period of time.

IP warning

100

Many companies skip the IP warming process. Why?

Because it may slow their sending for the first month.

101

In IP warming, the first step uses content that is...

not time sensitive.

102

3 good campaign types to use for IP warming are:

(1) a data harvest campaign, (2) a campaign to update subscription options, or (3) a simple newsletter campaign

103

Step 2 in IP warming is to build a list of contacts that...

have explicitly opted-in.

104

In the first week of IP warming, send the email to...

1% of your total list each day.

105

In the second week of IP warming, send the email to..

3% of the list each day

106

In the third week of IP warming, increase the email send to...

10% of the list each day.

107

During IP warming, monitor and remove contacts who...

bounceback, unsubscribe, or complain.

108

To manage lists successfully, (1) ____ (2) keep hard bouncebacks under 3% (3) monitor spam complaints and bounceback reports

remove hard bouncebacks from segment

109

To manage lists successfully, (1) remove hard bouncebacks from segment (2) _____ (3) monitor spam complaints and bounceback reports

keep hard bouncebacks under 3%

110

To manage lists successfully, (1) remove hard bouncebacks from segment (2) keep hard bouncebacks under 3% (3) ____

monitor spam complaints and bounceback reports

111

Eloqua by default auto-suppresses any sends to a Contact flagged as a...

hard bounceback

112

Not sending to hard bouncebacks supports...

reporting

113

What timeframe do most Eloqua clients use to weed out inactive contacts?

3 - 6 months

114

After __ unsuccessful attempts to engage contacts, it's time to...

suppress them from future sends.

115

To manage your content, (1) ______, (2) optimize relevancy and frequency, (3) review and refine content.

reinforce email expectations

116

To manage your content, (1) reinforce email expectations, (2) ______, (3) review and refine content.

optimize relevancy and frequency

117

To manage your content, (1) reinforce email expectations, (2) optimize relevancy and frequency, (3) ______.

review and refine content

118

To reinforce email expectations, (1) ______, (2) send welcome messages, (3) check in with contacts periodically, (4) move subscription management options to upper half of your emails

communicate your privacy policy

119

To reinforce email expectations, (1) communicate your privacy policy, (2) send welcome messages, (3) _____, (4) move subscription management options to upper half of your emails

check in with contacts periodically

120

To reinforce email expectations, (1) communicate your privacy policy, (2) send welcome messages, (3) check in with contacts periodically, (4) ____

move subscription management options to upper half of your emails

121

To reinforce email expectations, (1) communicate your privacy policy, (2) ____, (3) check in with contacts periodically, (4) move subscription management options to upper half of your emails

send welcome messages

122

To optimize relevancy and frequency, use ___ to test frequency and determine the optimal mix for your target audience.

automated programs

123

To optimize relevancy and frequency, ask subscribers for...

input and feedback.

124

What should you strive for in bounce and complaint rates?

Bounce rate less than 3%, complaint rate less than 0.01%

125

You should generate reports that provide insight into:

bounces, complaints, and unsubscribes

126

Forrester's Email Marketing Trends 2012 report shows what two are the leading reasons for unsubscribes?

Relevance at 31.4%, frequency at 30.7%

127

In the ASCE case study, how did Eloqua help ASCE send to over 1.5 million contacts in 30 days with a 98% inbox acceptance rate?

(1) Analyzed lists, (2) optimized content, (3) sent emails in multiple small batches each day.

128

The ______ report allows you to see the contacts that have bounced per email

Email Bounceback Overview

129

The ___ report allows you to see specific bounceback error messages

Bounceback History with Messaging

130

The __ report allows you to see bounceback messages generated by email sends by Sales reps

Sales Email Overview

131

The ____ report allows you to see who has reported you as spam to their email provider

Spam Unsubscribe Report

132

What are the three standard testing tools of Eloqua per email?

General Deliverability Test, Inbox Preview Test, and Spam Content Check

133

To access the General Deliverability test from an email...

Action > Test Content and Deliverability

134

Test Content and Deliverability allows external tests via ___

Return Path

135

The _______ test sends your email to a variety of seed accounts and returns Inbox, Junk, and Missing percentages or each domain.

General Deliverability Test

136

The output of the General Deliverability test is an __ that displays your deliverability percentages around the world.

an Excel file

137

The Excel file that you get after running a General Deliverability Test shows what three statistics?

Inbox Percentage, Bulk Percentage, and Missing Percentage.

138

"Missing" emails are what?

Emails that never made it to the Inbox or the Junk folders, which typically means they were blocked at the ISP level.

139

The General Deliverability column that reads ISP also includes what else?

ESP's and Spam filters

140

The _____ report shows how emails will appear in a number of different email client inboxes.

Inbox Preview Test

141

The ___ and the ____ run together

Inbox Preview Test and Spam Content Test

142

The __ examines email performance against a range of commonly used email spam filters.

Spam Content Test

143

The Spam Content Test evaluates your email for _____ words

spam-like words

144

A link reputation check checks your email for...

links to questionable websites

145

Which report shows information more on the bouncebacks themselves, and not the Contacts?

Bounceback History with Messaging

146

Name three steps with regards to Email Deliverability Best Practices.

1. Manage your reputation, 2. Manage your email list, 3. Optimize your content

147

What factors is your sender reputation based on?

Complaints, unknown users, and spam traps.

148

Canada's Anti-Spam Legislation is a __ available to everyone

Private Right of Action (PRA)

149

True or false: CASL is not limited to email communications.

True. It includes all commercial electronic communication.

150

True or false? CASL requires express affirmative consent, or opt-in.

True.

151

True or false? CASL requires truthful headers like sender and subject line.

True.

152

True or false? CASL permits you to alter transmission data.

False.

153

True or false? CASL requires a conspicuous unsubscribe mechanism.

True.

154

True or false? CASL requires you to include the postal address of the sender.

True.

155

Under CASL, can you perform address harvesting or send to harvested addresses?

True.

156

Who has liability under CASL?

Entities who knowingly allow spam to be sent on their behalf

157

The CASL law accepts implied opt-in in what 3 situations?

(1) existing business relationship; (2) conspicuously published email addresses; (4) recipients have provided email address directly to sender

158

Is it an existing business relationship if someone donates to, volunteers for, or becomes an official member of your organization?

No.

159

What are CASL fines?

Up to $1 million per violation for individuals, up to $10 million per violation for businesses.

160

To grow your database, adopt rigorous list management and acquisition practices, including:

a double opt-in or confirmed opt-in process.

161

Keep opt-outs ______________

simple and easy to access

162

A C-28 best practice is to include what kind of contact information in each email?

Company name, contact information and sender's information if company is sending emails on your behalf?

163

A C-28 best practice is to build your own list of ...

permission-based contacts.

164

In case your unsubscribe link is not working properly, you should include a....

phone number.

165

CASL's anti-spam provisions went into effect when?

July 1, 2014

166

When do CASL's installation of computer programs provisions go into effect?

January 15, 2015

167

When do CASL's Private Right of Action provisions take effect?

July 1, 2017

168

For more info on CASL where can you go?

The Canadian Communications Law website.

169

What are 3 things you should do today about CASL?

(1) Check if you have opt-in confirmation for Canadian contacts (2) if not, obtain explicit consent within 2 years (3) segment contacts by country

170

What are penalties for CAN-SPAM violations

Up to $1 million or 5 years in prison

171

For more info on CAN-SPAM where can you go?

Bureau of Consumer Protection Business Center

172

CAN-SPAM prohibits the use of false or misleading _________

header information and subject lines

173

True or false: CAN-SPAM requires you identify a message as an ad.

True.

174

What are CAN-SPAM's opt-out requirements?

Tell recipients how to opt out, and honor opt-out requests promptly

175

Does CAN-SPAM require you to monitor what others are doing on your behalf?

Yes.

176

What kind of contact information does CAN-SPAM require you to provide?

A valid physical postal address.

177

Under CAN-SPAM, can your contact address be a P.O. box?

Yes.

178

The key to determining if your message is commercial or transactional lies in...

The bulk of the message's content.

179

Under CAN-SPAM and CASL can you include a short commercial message in a transactional email?

Yes.

180

4 CAN-SPAM best practices: (1) ____; (2) Keep a company-wide Do Not Email list; (3) Include address specific code to help identify Do-Not Email requests; (4) honor opt-out requests promptly

Use a footer allowing opt-outs

181

4 CAN-SPAM best practices: (1) Use a footer allowing opt-outs; (2) _____; (3) Include address specific code to help identify Do-Not Email requests; (4) honor opt-out requests promptly

Keep a company-wide Do Not Email list

182

4 CAN-SPAM best practices: (1) Use a footer allowing opt-outs; (2) Keep a company-wide Do Not Email list; (3) _____; (4) honor opt-out requests promptly

Include address specific code to help identify Do-Not Email requests

183

4 CAN-SPAM best practices: (1) Use a footer allowing opt-outs; (2) Keep a company-wide Do Not Email list; (3) Include address specific code to help identify Do-Not Email requests and prevent forwarded emails from being confused with spam; (4) _____

honor opt-out requests promptly

184

Do CAN-SPAM and CASL prohibit no-reply email addresses for commercial email?

Yes.

185

Does Eloqua automatically include recipient-specific coding in emails to prevent forwarded emails from being confused with spam?

Yes.

186

Under CAN-SPAM and CASL, what are the time requirements for unsubscribe requests to be processed?

Must be processed within 10 days.

187

Under CAN-SPAM and CASL, how long after an email is sent must the Unsubscribe link be valid

60 days.

188

What is Canada's privacy law called?

PIPEDA

189

What is the EU privacy law called?

EU Data Protection Law

190

Does the US have different laws for different types of data?

Yes

191

In the US, who governs commercial data privacy?

The Federal Trade Commission (FTC)

192

In the US< who governs health data?

Department of Health and Human Services

193

When did PIPEDA become law in Canada?

April 13, 2000

194

What does PIPEDA stand for?

Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act

195

The 5 principles of PIPEDA are: (1) ____, (2) Identifying Purposes (3) Consent (4) Limiting Collection (5) Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention

Accountability

196

The 5 principles of PIPEDA are: (1) Accountability, (2) _____ (3) Consent (4) Limiting Collection (5) Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention

Identifying Purposes

197

The 5 principles of PIPEDA are: (1) Accountability, (2) Identifying Purposes (3) ___ (4) Limiting Collection (5) Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention

Consent

198

The 5 principles of PIPEDA are: (1) Accountability, (2) Identifying Purposes (3) Consent (4) _____ (5) Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention

Limiting Collection

199

The first 5 principles of PIPEDA are: (1) Accountability, (2) Identifying Purposes (3) Consent (4) Limiting Collection (5) ______

Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention

200

According to the _____ principle of PIPEDA, you have to have an individual at your organization who owns PIPEDA compliance.

Accountability

201

The _____ principle of PIPEDA says a company has to tell you why they want certain information.

Identifying purposes

202

What is one example of a way you can provide data without giving consent?

When your online behavior is tracked via cookies.

203

The _____ principle of PIPEDA means you can only collect as much data as you need for the purpose.

Limiting Collection.

204

The ____ principle of PIPEDA means you can't keep information longer than you need it to fulfill the purpose you stated when you collected the data.

Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention

205

The second 5 principles of PIPEDA are (6) Accuracy, (7) ____, (8) Openness, (9) Individual access, (10) Challenging compliance

Safeguards

206

The second 5 principles of PIPEDA are (6) Accuracy, (7) Safeguards, (8) _____, (9) Individual access, (10) Challenging compliance

Openness

207

The second 5 principles of PIPEDA are (6) ___, (7) Safeguards, (8) Openness, (9) Individual access, (10) Challenging compliance

Accuracy

208

The second 5 principles of PIPEDA are (6) Accuracy, (7) Safeguards, (8) Openness, (9) ____, (10) Challenging compliance

Individual access

209

The second 5 principles of PIPEDA are (6) Accuracy, (7) Safeguards, (8) Openness, (9) Individual access, (10) _____

Challenging compliance

210

The ____ principle of PIPEDA means you have to provide easy access to the PIPEDA compliance officer at your organization to address any challenges.

Challenging Compliance

211

Six PIPEDA best practices are (1) _____ (2) opt-outs (3) education (4) never share data (5) use of voice (6) be sure you know who you're talking to.

privacy policy

212

Six PIPEDA best practices are (1) privacy policy (2) ____ (3) education (4) never share data (5) use of voice (6) be sure you know who you're talking to.

opt-outs

213

Six PIPEDA best practices are (1) privacy policy (2) opt-outs (3) _____ (4) never share data (5) use of voice (6) be sure you know who you're talking to.

education

214

Six PIPEDA best practices are (1) privacy policy (2) opt-outs (3) education (4) _____ (5) use of voice (6) be sure you know who you're talking to.

never share data

215

Six PIPEDA best practices are (1) privacy policy (2) opt-outs (3) education (4) never share data (5) _____ (6) be sure you know who you're talking to.

use of voice

216

Six PIPEDA best practices are (1) privacy policy (2) opt-outs (3) education (4) never share data (5) use of voice (6) ____

be sure you know who you're talking to.

217

The ______ PIPEDA best practice means to use the data you've gathered intelligently and discreetly.

Use of Voice

218

"Not Joe, click here" is an example of what PIPEDA best practice?

Be sure you know who you're talking to.

219

In the EU, what kind of consent must you obtain before installing cookies on a person's computer

explicit opt-in consent.

220

EU's protection applies when data is collected or processed in or through...

an establishment located in any EU member state.

221

If the data is processed through ______ located in the EU, the EU protection requirement applies

equipment, in particular a server

222

Some EU member states have national data protection laws that are...

stricter than the EU data protection law.

223

EU: Which law always overrides? The stricter or the weaker?

The stricter

224

EU: Who is responsible for compliance - Eloqua or the customer?

The customer.

225

EU: To draft and obtain consent, you should use _____ language.

Plain language.

226

EU: To obtain consent, the ____ has to be identified

data controller

227

EU: To obtain consent, you must disclose the ___ of data collected, ____, and why ____

type of data collected, how it is done, and why it is being collected and processed.

228

EU: What needs to be in place to prevent giving of consent by mistake?

Safeguards.

229

What's an example of a safeguard?

Not providing pre-checked boxes.

230

EU: You must provide information on the consequences of:

not consenting.

231

EU: you must give a brief explanation of the users'

rights.

232

EU: When does the user need to give consent?

Prior to the collection of personal data.

233

An essential certification for transferring data from the EU to the US for processing is....

Safe Harbor

234

Is Eloqua Safe Harbor certified?

Yes

235

Is it a good idea to obtain your own Safe Harbor certification?

Yes

236

A third party privacy monitoring and auditing service is...

TRUSTe

237

TRUSTe ensures compliance with...

Safe Harbor certification and related marketing practices.

238

Eloqua works directly with TRUSTe. This enables customers to (1) and (2)

(1) enjoy one-click access to TRUSTe data management solutions and auditing (2) attach the TRUSTe symbol to emails, forms, and landing pages.

239

Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) ______ (2) Visitor tracking opt-outs (3) Confirmed opt-in process (4) Subscription management (5) Master Exclude list (6) Form layouts with tracking opt-in options (7) Notification and Data Protection Official

Tracking and cookies enablement

240

Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) Tracking and cookies enablement (2) _______ (3) Confirmed opt-in process (4) Subscription management (5) Master Exclude list (6) Form layouts with tracking opt-in options (7) Notification and Data Protection Official

Visitor tracking opt-outs

241

Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) Tracking and cookies enablement (2) Visitor tracking opt-outs (3) ______ (4) Subscription management (5) Master Exclude list (6) Form layouts with tracking opt-in options (7) Notification and Data Protection Official

Confirmed opt-in process

242

Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) Tracking and cookies enablement (2) Visitor tracking opt-outs (3) Confirmed opt-in process (4) _______ (5) Master Exclude list (6) Form layouts with tracking opt-in options (7) Notification and Data Protection Official

Subscription management

243

Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) Tracking and cookies enablement (2) Visitor tracking opt-outs (3) Confirmed opt-in process (4) Subscription management (5) _______ (6) Form layouts with tracking opt-in options (7) Notification and Data Protection Official

Master Exclude list

244

Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) Tracking and cookies enablement (2) Visitor tracking opt-outs (3) Confirmed opt-in process (4) Subscription management (5) Master Exclude list (6) ________ (7) Notification and Data Protection Official

Form layouts with tracking opt-in options

245

Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) Tracking and cookies enablement (2) Visitor tracking opt-outs (3) Confirmed opt-in process (4) Subscription management (5) Master Exclude list (6) Form layouts with tracking opt-in options (7) ________

Notification and Data Protection Official

246

Name the three Strict Mode tracking options.

(1) Track all visitors (2) Track visitors that are not on the Country by IP restriction list and track visitors from restricted countries that have opted-in to tracking (3) Do not track any visitor unless he has opted-in to tracking

247

Which Strict Mode tracking option is the most commonly used?

Dynamically tracking visitors based on the country they're in.

248

Does Eloqua maintain a list of countries that require opt-ins?

Yes.

249

Whose responsibility is it to make sure the list of IP restrictions is complete and that you comply with the privacy laws?

Yours. Eloqua provides guidelines to create a list of IP restrictions.

250

How do you enable Strict Mode settings?

Contact Eloqua Support using My Oracle Support.

251

Once you enable Strict Mode, can it be enabled only for some websites you track?

No, it's enabled for your entire Eloqua install.

252

Things to check today: (1) ________ (2) are you tracking EU prospects? (3) Do you offer tracking opt-out? (4) Do you have a mixed install? (5) Does your privacy policy state you are dropping a cookie?

do you have an EU presence?

253

Things to check today: (1) do you have an EU presence? (2) _______ (3) Do you offer tracking opt-out? (4) Do you have a mixed install? (5) Does your privacy policy state you are dropping a cookie?

are you tracking EU prospects?

254

Things to check today: (1) do you have an EU presence? (2) are you tracking EU prospects? (3) ______ (4) Do you have a mixed install? (5) Does your privacy policy state you are dropping a cookie?

Do you offer tracking opt-out?

255

Things to check today: (1) do you have an EU presence? (2) are you tracking EU prospects? (3) Do you offer tracking opt-out? (4) _______ (5) Does your privacy policy state you are dropping a cookie?

Do you have a mixed install?

256

Things to check today: (1) do you have an EU presence? (2) are you tracking EU prospects? (3) Do you offer tracking opt-out? (4) Do you have a mixed install? (5) _____

Does your privacy policy state you are dropping a cookie?

257

What is meant by a mixed install?

You have a global marketing team sharing the same Eloqua database

258

True/False: C-28 is a private right of action available only to businesses.

False

259

True/False: There is no implied consent for referrals.

True.

260

True/False: C-28 accepts implied opt-in consent when the recipients have provided their email address directly to the sender.

True.

261

What does ESPC stand for?

Canada's Email Sender and Provider Coalition.

262

In Canada, how long is implied consent valid for in most cases?

Two years.

263

Under the EU Data Reform, the __________ requires organizations to completely delete someone's personal data if they request it.

Right to be Forgotten

264

The ________ proposes to create one universal set of guidelines and laws on data protection that will apply to all of the EU

EU Data Reform

265

Under the EU Data Reform, the ______ notification requirement would be removed

regional

266

Under the EU data reform, when must data breaches be reported?

Within 24 hours.

267

The EU Data Reform has increased stringency around ___ advertising.

behavioral advertising

268

Under the EU Data Reform, companies must share data on an individual on request in a _______ format.

portable

269

In 2012, the ________ put together a Data Breach Investigations report that was released in 2013

Verizon Enterprise RISK team

270

True or false: Data storage companies are more susceptible to data breach from within, and therefore they are the only ones who need to take preventative steps against data breach.

False.

271

According to Verizon's 2013 Data Breach Investigations report, who was responsible for data breaches?

92% of breaches stemmed from external agents.

272

What types of external agents committed data breaches?

55% organized crime, 21% state-affiliated, 21% unknown, 2% Hactivists, 1% former employees

273

What was the motivation for state-affiliated data breaches?

Usually espionage.

274

We are getting better at protecting against _____ and ____.

Hackers and malware.

275

In 2012 there were large upticks in ____, _____, and ____ types of data breaches.

physical, social, and misuse

276

Physical data breach attacks encompass ____ and increased by ____ in 2012.

actual physical theft, increased by 25%

277

____ is the main source of social data breaches and includes tactics such as ____ and _____

Email; phishing and pretexting

278

When an individual lies to obtain privileged data, this is called _____

pretexting.

279

To prevent data breaches, smaller organizations should (1) _____, (2) change default credentials of POS systems and other Internet-facing devices (3) Use two-step verification (4) Check third-party IT vendors' security measures

use a firewall

280

To prevent data breaches, smaller organizations should (1) use a firewall, (2) ______ (3) Use two-step verification (4) Check third-party IT vendors' security measures

change default credentials of POS systems and other Internet-facing devices

281

To prevent data breaches, smaller organizations should (1) use a firewall, (2) change default credentials of POS systems and other Internet-facing devices (3) ______ (4) Check third-party IT vendors' security measures

Use two-step verification

282

To prevent data breaches, smaller organizations should (1) use a firewall, (2) change default credentials of POS systems and other Internet-facing devices (3) Use two-step verification (4) _______

Check third-party IT vendors' security measures

283

To prevent data breaches, larger organizations should (1) _____ (2) ensure all essential controls are met and regulated (3) monitor event logs (4) evaluate current threats in your industry space

eliminate unnecessary data

284

To prevent data breaches, larger organizations should (1) eliminate unnecessary data (2) _____ (3) monitor event logs (4) evaluate current threats in your industry space

ensure all essential controls are met and regulated

285

To prevent data breaches, larger organizations should (1) eliminate unnecessary data (2) ensure all essential controls are met and regulated (3) _____ (4) evaluate current threats in your industry space

monitor event logs

286

To prevent data breaches, larger organizations should (1) eliminate unnecessary data (2) ensure all essential controls are met and regulated (3) monitor event logs (4) ___

evaluate current threats in your industry space

287

By February 2014, the cost of the December 2013 retail store data breach was:

$61 million

288

The April 2014 ___________ took advantage of a weakness in the OpenSSL and allowed hackers to gather data from supposedly secure sites.

HeartBleed Bug

289

How many secure web servers were vulnerable to the HeartBleed Bug attack?

17%, or a half million

290

What was the worst intelligence data breach of all time?

The Snowden affair

291

Why did Edward Snowden have access to so much information?

Through lack of compartmentalization and security access levels

292

Eloqua's ______ allow you to manage the IP addresses that are allowed to access your database.

IP address restrictions

293

Data Breach Law - best practices: (1) ______ (2) protect cardholder data (3) maintain Vulnerability Management program (4) access control measures (5) monitor and test networks (6) maintain information security policy

safe internal network

294

Data Breach Law - best practices: (1) safe internal network (2) ______ (3) maintain Vulnerability Management program (4) access control measures (5) monitor and test networks (6) maintain information security policy

protect cardholder data

295

Data Breach Law - best practices: (1) safe internal network (2) protect cardholder data (3) maintain a ______ (4) access control measures (5) monitor and test networks (6) maintain information security policy

Vulnerability Management program

296

Data Breach Law - best practices: (1) safe internal network (2) protect cardholder data (3) maintain Vulnerability Management program (4) _____ (5) monitor and test networks (6) maintain information security policy

access control measures

297

Data Breach Law - best practices: (1) safe internal network (2) protect cardholder data (3) maintain Vulnerability Management program (4) access control measures (5) ____ (6) maintain information security policy

monitor and test networks

298

Data Breach Law - best practices: (1) safe internal network (2) protect cardholder data (3) maintain Vulnerability Management program (4) access control measures (5) monitor and test networks (6) maintain _____

an information security policy