Depressants Flashcards

(111 cards)

1
Q

What are the four lobes of the cerebrum?

A

Frontal
Temporal
Parietal
Occipital

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2
Q

What is the diencephalon? What are the structures that are included in this?

A

Area of the brain that encloses the 3rd ventricle

Thalamus
Hypothalamus

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3
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?

A

Integration of sensory relays

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4
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

Regulates temperature, appetite, emotional and hormonal regulation

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5
Q

What is the mesencephalon?

A

Midbrain, the serves as a bridge between the cerebrum/diencephalon, and the brainstem

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6
Q

What are the structures that are contained within the brainstem?

A

Pons

Medulla oblongata

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7
Q

What is the function of the pons and the medulla?

A

Controls respiration and cardiovascular function

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8
Q

What is the function of the reticular formation within the brainstem?

A

Control of consciousness, arousal, and alertness

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9
Q

Where are the basal ganglia located?

A

deep within the cerebral hemispheres

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10
Q

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

Control of motor activities, and repressing unwanted movements

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11
Q

What are the four components of the basal ganglia?

A
Cortex
Striatum
Pallidum
Thalamus
**AND BACK TO CORTEX!!**
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12
Q

What are the two components of the striatum?

A

caudate nucleus and putamen

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13
Q

What are the four major areas of the brain that are part of the limbic system?

A

Amygdala
Hippocampus
Cingulate gyrus
Prefrontal cortex

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14
Q

What is the function of the amygdala?

A

Regulation of fear

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15
Q

What is the function of the Hippocampus?

A

Memory formation, conversion of short term memory into long term

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16
Q

What is gray matter?

A

Synaptic connections between various neurons

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17
Q

What is white matter?

A

Myelinated axons of neurons, grouped in ascending or descending tracts

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18
Q

What forms the Blood brain barrier?

A

Tight junctions between endothelial cells on the CNS capillaries

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19
Q

What is the function of astrocytes?

A

Homeostatic support roles for neuron (maintain nutrition etc)

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20
Q

What is the function of oligodendrocytes?

A

Glial cells that wrap around the axons of projection neurons in the CNS forming the myelin sheath

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21
Q

What are the cells that myelinate CNS neurons? PNS?

A
CNS = oligodendrocytes
PNS = Schwann cells
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22
Q

What are microglia?

A

Glial cells derived from the bone marrow specialized in immune defense of the brain

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23
Q

What are the two components that create the blood brain barrier?

A

Tight junction around capillary endothelial cells

Astrocyte foot processes

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24
Q

What is the protein in neuronal terminals that interacts with Ca, and allows for the release of neurotransmitters?

A

Calmodulin

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25
What are ionotropic receptors?
receptors on synapses that activate an ion channel
26
What are metabotropic receptors?
receptors coupled to a second messenger enzyme system (e.g. adenylate cyclase)
27
What is the only enzymes that breaks down 5HT?
monoamine oxidase
28
What are electrical synapses?
junctions between cells that allow for ion fluxes, and immediate transmission of signal
29
What is EPSP?
Excitatory postsynaptic potential
30
What are IPSPs?
Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials
31
What are the roles of acetylcholine in the brain?
Memory and learning Attention Sleep
32
What is the function of dopamine?
brain circuits that control movement (think parkinson's)
33
What is the function of glutamate in the CNS?
major excitatory neurotransmitter and CNS
34
What is the function of GABA in the brain?
Major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS
35
What is the function of substance P in the CNS?
Excitatory transmitter involved in spinal processing
36
What is the function of endorphins, enkephalins, and dynorphins?
Inhibit pain sensation
37
What is CNS depression?
Decreased neuronal excitability
38
What are CNS depressants?
agents that are mainly used to treat anxiety states and sleep disorders
39
What are hypnotics?
Agents that produce drowsiness and encourage the onset and maintenance of a state of sleep
40
What stages of sleep are amplified with hypnotics, and which are depressed?
``` Amplified = stage 2 Decreased = REM and 4NREM ```
41
True or false: any sedative anxiolytic given in a high enough dose will induce sleep
True
42
What are the four stages of effects of increasing doses of hypnotics?
Sedation Hypnosis Anesthesia Coma
43
What is the cause of death with depressant overdoses?
Respiratory depression
44
What are the two types of sedative hypnotics that have a linear slope of CNS effects, and will cause coma/death at high enough doses?
barbituates | Alcohols
45
What is the major type of drugs that reach a plateau in CNS depression, and are thus less likely to cause deatj?
Benzodiazepines
46
Why are depressants used for Szs?
Depress the CNS activity
47
What is the MOA of CNS depressants in causing muscle relaxation?
inhibition of polysynaptic reflexes and skeletal neuromuscular junction
48
What type of drugs have a -pam suffix? What are the two exceptions to this?
Benzodiazepines Alprazolam Clorazepate
49
What is flunitrazepam?
Roofies
50
What functional group on benzodiazepines is responsible for their sedative hypnotic effects?
Electronegative substituent in the 7 position
51
What route of administration is the best for benzodiazepines?
Oral
52
How are benzodiazepines metabolized? (what oran/enzymes)
In the liver by p450 CYP3A4 + glucuronidation
53
What are the two benzodiazepines that are metabolized into inactive water soluble glucuronides? How fast is this?
Lorazepam and oxazepam Fast metabolism
54
What are the benzodiazepines that are metabolized into weakly active, and have short lived active metabolites?
Alprazolam | Triazolam
55
true or false: most benzos have long lived active metabolites
True
56
What is the primary indication of, and relative half life of: midazolam?
Preanesthetic | Short acting
57
What is the primary indication of, and relative half life of: triazolam
Insomnia | Preanesthetic
58
What is the primary indication of, and relative half life of: alprazolam
Anxiety, antidepressant | Intermediate acting
59
What is the primary indication of, and relative half life of: clonazepam
seizures | Intermediate acting
60
What is the primary indication of, and relative half life of: estazolam
insomnia | Intermediate acting
61
What is the primary indication of, and relative half life of: lorazepam
anxiety, insomnia, szs, preanesthetic | Intermediate acting
62
What is the primary indication of, and relative half life of: oxazepam
Anxiety | Intermediate acting
63
What is the primary indication of, and relative half life of: temazepam
Insomnia | Intermediate acting
64
What is the primary indication of, and relative half life of: chlordiazepoxide
Anxiety, withdrawal states | Long lasting
65
What is the primary indication of, and relative half life of: clorazepate
Anxiety and szs
66
What is the primary indication of, and relative half life of: diazepam
Anxiety and withdrawal states | Long lasting
67
What is the primary indication of, and relative half life of: Flurazepam
Insomnia | Long lasting
68
What is the primary indication of, and relative half life of: prazepam
Anxiety | Long lasting
69
What is the primary indication of, and relative half life of: quazepam
Insomnia | Long lasting
70
What are the two drugs used to treat alcohol withdrawal?
diazepam and oxazepam
71
What is the influence of age on metabolism of benzodiazepines?
Slower hepatic processing
72
What happens to Vd in old age? Why?
Goes up due to decreased lean body mass
73
What happens to the rate of elimination of benzodiazepines in the elderly?
Decreased
74
What is the MOA of benzodiazepines?
Potentiate the effects of GABA(A) receptors, which are Cl- channels, by increasing the frequency of opening of the channels
75
What happens when GABA receptors are depolarized?
Cl- influx, increases membrane hyperpolarization and overall neuronal inhibition
76
What are the three effects produced by alpha 1 GABA subunit receptors?
Sedation Anticonvulsant Anterograde amnesia
77
What are the three effects produced by alpha 2-4 GABA subunit receptors?
Anxiolysis
78
What are the major side effects and toxicity of benzodiazepines?
Respiratory depression | Anterograde amnesia
79
What is the general principle behind withdrawal symptoms?
Opposite effect of taking them will occur
80
What are the relative contraindications to benzodiazepines? (non-obvious ones anyway)
Prego | Sleep disorders
81
What are the drugs that have an additive effect on benzodiazepines? (besides obvious) (4)
Phenothiazine Opioids antihistamines tricyclic antidepressants
82
What is the antidote to benzodiazepines?
Flumazenil
83
What is the MOA of flumazenil?
Competitive inhibit that binds to the BZ receptor
84
What is the relative half life for flumazenil?
Short duration
85
What are the three newer types of benzodiazepines?
Eszopiclone Zolpidem Zaleplon
86
What is eszopiclone?
Newer benzo (lunesta)
87
What is zolpidem?
Newer benzo (ambien)
88
What is zaleplon?
newer benzo (sonata)
89
What is the general clinical use of the newer benzos?
treat insomnia
90
What is the antidote for newer benzos?
Flumazenil
91
What are the four major barbiturates?
Pentobarbital Phenobarbital Secobarbital Thiopental
92
What type of drug is pentobarbital?
Barbiturate
93
What type of drug is phenobarbital?
Barbiturate
94
What type of drug is secobarbital?
Barbiturate
95
What type of drug is thiopental?
Barbiturate
96
What are the four major clinical uses of barbiturates?
Anesthesia Sedative Anticonvulsant Medically induced coma
97
How are barbiturates metabolized How fast is this? What are the metabolites?
In the liver by microsomal enzymes Slow No active metabolites
98
What is the one barbiturate that is metabolized/excreted by the kidney?
Phenobarbital
99
What is the MOA of barbiturates?
Increase the duration of the GABA gated chloride channel opening, via NONCOMPETITIVE ation
100
Which increases the rate of opening, and which increases the duration of opening: benzos vs barbiturates?
Benzos = increase rate Barbiturates = duration
101
What is the MOA of ramelteon?
Melatonic receptor agonist
102
What are the clinical uses of ramelteon?
Sedative agent for insomnia
103
What are the two melatonin receptors, and what is the function of each?
``` MT1 = sleep onset MT2 = circadian pattern ```
104
How are melatonin receptor agonists metabolized?
Extensive first pass effect via p450 enzymes
105
True or false: there is a high abuse liability for melatonin receptor agonists like ramelteon
False
106
What is the MOA of buspirone? Indication?
Partial 5HT-1A receptor agonist Anxiolytic
107
Is there a high or low abuse liability with buspirone?
Low
108
What is the function of 5HT-1A receptors, and how does buspirone's MOA relate to this?
Inhibits presynaptic release of 5HT, thus causes anxiolytic properties of buspirone
109
What is the role of propranolol in anxiolysis?
Inhibits the somatic manifestations of anxiety
110
What is the role of hydroxyzine and diphenhydramine in anxiolysis?
Mild sedative
111
What is the role of meprobamate in anxiolysis?
Sedative