JAALAS 2012 No. 4

Question 1

Inbred strains are often used as animal models to avoid the confound of variations due to genetic background T/F

Answer 1

True

Question 2

Although the exact differences in rearing environment between these 5 vendors was not elucidated in this study, what are some of the rearing variables one should consider?

Answer 2

Dietary, bedding, method of water delivery and treatment, caging system, microbiome, and the like.

Question 3

T/F: Animals with a greater amount of enrichment in their home cages are more likely to develop stereotactic behaviors.

Answer 3

F (less likely)

Question 4

Which of the following are proposed reasons for stereotypic behaviors? Pick all that apply.

a. CNS dysfunction
b. Frustration
c. Noise levels in the facility
d. Lack or removal of enrichment

Answer 4

A, B, and D

Question 5

T/F: Stereotypic behaviors have traditionally been defined as those that are repetitive, invariant, and apparently serve some function.

Answer 5

F (serve no function)

Question 6

1. What is the common name for Artemia?

Answer 6

Brine shrimp

Question 7

2. Name one (1) research area for which zebrafish is commonly used.

Answer 7

Genetics; Developmental Biology

Question 8

3. According to the article when are female zebrafish sexually mature?

Answer 8

3 months

Question 9

T/F. The size of the female fish is a key factor in the amount of sperm released by male zebrafish during spawning.

Answer 9

True

Question 10

1. What are the 7 principle functional units that were described in the article that the research group felt defined a state-of-the-art facility?

Answer 10

1. Core breeding unit, breeding-holding unit, phenotyping unit, archiving unit, quarantine unit, transgenic unit, and support infrastructure.

Question 11

2. Which principle functional unit in most of the facilities has the highest hygiene level and access restrictions of the entire facility?

Answer 11

Core breeding unit

Question 12

3. What were four concerns facilities had with their current or previous designs?

Answer 12

3. Size and capacity of holding or quarantine rooms, size and number of procedure rooms, support infrastructure (autoclave capacity, storage space), and lack of cost reductions.

Question 13

1. How long did it typically take to detect EHS after dirty bedding exposure?
   a. 2 weeks
   b. 3 weeks
   c. 4 weeks
   d. 5 weeks

Answer 13

C

Question 14

2. True or false: Monoinfections of EHS were more commonly found.

Answer 14

False

Question 15

3. What was the most commonly identified EHS in the study?
   a. H. bilis
   b. H. rodentium
   c. H. typhlonicus
   d. H. hepaticus

Answer 15

D

Question 16

1. What causes Chagas disease and how is it transmitted?

Answer 16

1. Trypanosoma cruzi; triatomine insect vectors (kissing bug) through contact of parasite containing feces with mammalian mucous membranes or through a break in skin

Question 17

2. The first case of T. cruzi in NHP occurred where?

Answer 17

2. Covington, LA

Question 18

3. What species of NHP could possibly be explored as an animal model for Chagas disease?

Answer 18

3. Pig-tailed macaques

Question 19

4. T. cruzi can be transmitted from infected animals to caregivers and lab workers through contamination with infected blood? T or F

Answer 19

True

Question 20

True or False: As defined by the USDA and the Animal Welfare Act, a painful procedure is any procedure that would reasonably be expected to cause more than slight or momentary pain or distress in a human being to which that procedure is applied.

Answer 20

True

Question 21

True or False: Open-field measurements reflect responses to a novel environment and are less sensitive measures of wellbeing than are those obtained repeatedly or in the home cage.

Answer 21

False—they are a more sensitive measure.

Question 22

Which of the following readily observable physical signs was a sensitive indicator of pain and distress after immunization with CFA or IFA in mice?

a. Body temperature
b. Erythema at immunization site
c. Swelling at immunization site
d. General physical activity
e. None of the above

Answer 22

E

Question 23

Which of the following anesthetics targets both glycine and GABAA receptors?

a. Chloral hydrate
b. Pentobarbital
c. Urethane
d. All of the above

Answer 23

A

Question 24

2. Which of the following anesthetics targets only the GABAA receptor?
   a. Chloral hydrate
   b. Pentobarbital
   c. Urethane
   d. All of the above

Answer 24

B

Question 25

3. Which of the following anesthetics targets GABAA , glycine, and glutamate receptors? a. Chloral hydrate b. Pentobarbital c. Urethane d. All of the above

Answer 25

C

Question 26

4. __________ anesthetized animals are thought to have similar physiologic and pharmacologic behaviors as unanesthetized animals. a. Chloral hydrate b. Pentobarbital c. Urethane d. Ketamine

Answer 26

C

Question 27

True or False: Amphibians requires much higher concentrations of MS222 that due mammals.

Answer 27

True (reference 3)

Question 28

MS222 stands for which of the following? a. Eugenol b. Benzocaine c. Tricaine methanesulfonate d. Tiletamine combined with zolazepam

Answer 28

C

Question 29

What is the common name of Xenopus laevis? a. African clawed toad b. Bufo marinus c. African clawed frog

Answer 29

C

Question 30

Plethysmography is: a. Used only to assess lung function. b. Used only in small laboratory rodents. c. Used to record changes in the size an organ. d. Only effective when used on an anesthetized animal.

Answer 30

C

Question 31

Mice and rats have: a. 3 right lung lobes and 2 left lung lobes. b. 1 right lung lobe and 4 left lung lobes. c. 2 right lung lobes and 3 left lung lobes. d. 4 right lung lobes and 1 left lung lobe.

Answer 31

D

Question 32

In this article, statistical analysis of the data for various parameters was accomplished using the 2-tailed paired t test or the 2-way ANOVA. Regarding statistics: a. If the P value is sufficiently small, the investigator can accept the null hypothesis. b. Including a pilot study in the main study may increase Type 2 errors. c. A Type 1 error is also called a false discovery. d. Alpha is the probability that the null hypothesis will be accepted when it actually true.

Answer 32

C

Question 33

The three different temperature ranges used were: a. 2-8°C, -10 to -20°C, and -100°C b. -2 to -8°C, -10 to -20°C, and -100°C c. 2-8°C, -10 to -20°C, and -70°C d. 0°C, 32°C, and -70°C

Answer 33

C

Question 34

Chloride is stable after 3 freeze-thaw cycles at what temperature? a. Refrigeration b. Freeze c. Deep freeze

Answer 34

C

Question 35

Albumin is unstable after 2 or 3 freeze-thaw cycles when stored at what temperature? a. 2-8°C b. -10 to -20°C c. -70°C

Answer 35

B

Question 36

Regarding temperature measurement, which of the following is true? a. The stress of chemical or manual restraint may alter the validity of the temperature measurement obtained b. Rectal temperatures can be influenced by the presence of feces in the rectum c. Repeated sampling increases the risk of rectal bruising and tearing d. All of the above

Answer 36

D

Question 37

Subcutaneous temperatures may differ from rectal temperatures because a. The subcutaneous temperatures may be affected by ambient temperatures or wet fur b. A lag time between changes in core and subcutaneous temperatures could account for some of the disagreement between temperatures c. The location of microchip implantation and the amount of subcutaneous adipose tissue could influence temperature readings d. All of the above

Answer 37

D

Question 38

Noncontact infrared thermometers are similar to subcutaneous transponders in that a. Both measure surface temperatures b. The temperatures obtained may be influenced by ambient temperatures or wet fur c. The presence of hair seemed to affect the ability of the beam to reach the skin surface sufficiently to measure temperatures d. All of the above

Answer 38

D