JAALAS 2011 No. 6

Question 1

1. Who enforces the guidelines and regulations made by the USDA?

Answer 1

1. Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) of the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA)

Question 2

2. What document spells out the guidelines and regulations of the UDSA relative to animals used in research?

Answer 2

2. The Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) Title 9

Question 3

3. What are three general criteria for considering a pair to be compatible on the day of pairing?

Answer 3

3. If there are no aggressive interactions resulting in severe injury, no signs of depression in either animal, and both are able to obtain their share of food.

Question 4

What is fibrinogen?

Answer 4

Fibrinogen is a glycoprotein synthesized in the liver, is a soluble precursor of insoluble fibrin, and a major component of blood clots.

Question 5

What is an important role of fibrinogen?

Answer 5

Fibrinogen plays an important role in platelet aggregation by linking activated platelets. Activated platelets express the integrin αIIb β3, which binds plasma fibrinogen as well as that secreted from activated platelet granules.

Question 6

What disorders can affect fibrogen?

Answer 6

The function and quality of plasma fibrinogen can be altered by both inherited and acquired disorders. Some common causes of decreased fibrinogen concentration are increased consumption during localized or disseminated intravascular coagulation, severe hepatic dysfunction, and hemodilution. Low plasma fibrinogen concentration is associated with an increased risk of bleeding, due to impaired primary or secondary hemostasis. Fibrinogen is a positive acute-phase protein that increases in response to inflammatory processes.

Question 7

What does Pearson correlation coefficient test?

Answer 7

In statistics, the Pearson correlation coefficient is a measure of the correlation between two variables (linear dependence).

Question 8

1. The newest edition of the Guide gives very specific cage change frequencies for rodents.

Answer 8

1. F. The frequency is to be determined on a performance-based approach.

Question 9

2. Female mice were found to cause higher ammonia levels than cages of male mice.

Answer 9

2. F. Cages with 5 male mice were found to have the highest ammonia concentrations.

Question 10

3. Long term housing of mice should aim at having ammonia levels ≤ 25 ppm.

Answer 10

True

Question 11

4. Experienced animal care workers are very skilled at visually identifying cages which have dangerous ammonia levels.

Answer 11

4. F. Visual inspection was unreliable in determining air quality.

Question 12

5. There are very minimal pathologic changes seen in animals housed in even very high levels of ammonia.

Answer 12

5. F. This team found quite a bit of pathology. Also, they found that experienced animal workers could not identify animal with pathologic rhinitis ante-mortem.

Question 13

1. In OTC, the intercage temperature, humidity, CO2 and ammonia (microenvironment) is influenced directly by _______.

Answer 13

1. Room environment (macroenvironment)

Question 14

What does HEPA stand for?

Answer 14

2. High-efficiency particulate air

Question 15

What are some advantages of IVC?

Answer 15

3. reduction of pathogen transmission, reduction of cage changing frequency, increased housing capacity, and reduction of allergen exposure for personnel

Question 16

True or False: ATP detection devices offer multiple advantages over traditional bacterial culture because they are cost effective and time efficient and show a superior reproducibility and sensitivity

Answer 16

True

Question 17

ATP detection devices have limitations:

a. Gram negative bacteria are poorly detected
b. Protein-only soiling are poorly detected
c. Bleach, temperature and pH can affect the accuracy of the results
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

Answer 17

D

Question 18

When choosing wood as environmental enrichment one must take into consideration

a. The species of wood
b. The way the wood wears
c. The color of the wood
d. a, c
e. a, b

Answer 18

E

Question 19

1. Which is an example of a stereotypical behavior?
   a. Head twist
   b. Partner clasp
   c. Self-hit
   d. Threat bite

Answer 19

a. The rest are self abusive or abnormal social behaviors

Question 20

2. A reason for the variability with stereotypical behavior reduction was that the methods of distribution of the enrichment devices may have led to stress and fear. According to this assumption which device was the least stressful and why?
   a. Puzzle Balls were easy to manipulate
   b. Shakers were not very novel
   c. Supertubes were given without opening the cage door.

Answer 20

c. This explained why supertubes were the only device in which no significant increase in stereotypy was observed.

Question 21

1. To measure ATP, a swab is taken of the surface, the swab placed in the lumenometer, and the level of ATP present is recorded as Relative Light Units (RLU). T/F

Answer 21

True

Question 22

2. The use of the ATP detection systems have been validated as a surrogate to assess cleanliness/disinfection as compared to what traditional method for doing so?

Answer 22

RODAC plating

Question 23

3. What are some advantages of an ATP detection system as compared to RODAC plating?

Answer 23

3. ATP detection systems produce much faster results (minutes compared to days) and ATP detection systems assess microbial burden but also organic contamination beyond microbial burden whereas RODAC only does the former.

Question 24

1. T/F: This study indicates that biomedical journals are more likely to have an ethical policy for animal experiments than broader biologic journals.

Answer 24

True

Question 25

2. What are the 3Rs? a. Reduce, reuse, recycle b. Replacement, Refinement, Reduction c. Research, Refinement, Reduction d. Research, Replacement and Reduction

Answer 25

B

Question 26

3. What is a goal of the ARRIVE guidelines? a. To improve reporting of research using animals without being prescriptive b. To specifically prescribe ethical policy for published animal experiments c. To improve research animal transport d. To guide study design in animal experiments

Answer 26

A

Question 27

What are the details of the life cycle (how many days in each stage) for A. tetraptera?

Answer 27

Aspiculuris tetraptera prepatent period is 21-25 days; larvae hatch in colon, where they remain for 3-5 days, before adult worms migrate to distal colon. The eggs are excreted in the feces, and are not infective for 5-8 days. Female worms have a lifespan of 45-50 days.

Question 28

What are two common drug therapies used for eliminating pinworm infestation?

Answer 28

Ivermectin and fenbendazole

Question 29

Yes or No - Would an anal tape test be an appropriate method for A. tetraptera detection?

Answer 29

No - only Syphacia obvelata eggs stick to the perianal hair.

Question 30

True or False: Roosters are generally more susceptible to Northern Fowl Mite infestation than hens.

Answer 30

True

Question 31

In chickens, which areas of the body do Northern Fowl Mites tend to congregate? a. Base of feathers in the vent and occipital regions b. Shaft of feathers in vent and occipital regions c. Base of feathers in the vent and axillary regions d. Base of feathers in the axillary and occipital regions

Answer 31

A

Question 32

Which best describes the mechanism of action for the pesticide, tetrachlorvinphos-dichlorvos (RAVAP-EC) used for control of the Northern Fowl mite infestation in this study? a. Tetrachlorvinphos-dichlorvos (RAVAP-EC) is a pyrethroid that blocks depolarization of axonal sodium channels b. Tetrachlorvinphos–dichlorvos (RAVAP-EC) is an organophosphate that inhibits the activity of cholinesterase at the synapse c. Tetrachlorvinphos–dichlorvos (RAVAP-EC) is a carbamate that inhibits cholinesterase d. None of the above

Answer 32

B

Question 33

True or False: Medetomidine is an alpha2-adrenoceptor agonist that acts at central receptors to cause sedative and analgesic effects.

Answer 33

True

Question 34

Which of the following is not usually a side effect of medetomidine administration in mice? a. Hypothermia b. Hyperthermia c. Hypotension d. Bradycardia.

Answer 34

B

Question 35

Why is atropine used in conjunction with medetomidine/ketamine anesthesia in mice? a. Atropine causes bronchospasm and increased bronchial secretions b. Atropine causes bradycardia c. Atropine prevents bradycardia d. None of the above

Answer 35

C

Question 36

1. T/F. endometriosis is caused by endometrial stroma and glands dissemination to areas of the body other than the uterus.

Answer 36

True

Question 37

2. The symptoms of the endometriosis include: a. Pain during menstruation b. Menstrual cycle is abnormally long or irregular c. Abnormal abdominal palpation d. All of the above

Answer 37

D

Question 38

3. The treatment of endometriosis may include all EXCEPT: a. Premarin (estrogen) b. Ovariectomy or ovariohysterectomy c. Progesterone (MPA)

Answer 38

A

Question 39

4. T/F. MPA treatment did not affect insulin sensitivity or glycosylated hemoglobin levels.

Answer 39

False

Question 40

5. The diagnosis of the endometriosis include: a. Ultrasound-guided aspiration of endometrial cysts b. Visualization at surgery and confirmation by histopathology c. Incidental finding during an unrelated procedure d. All of the above

Answer 40

D

Question 41

Describe how the study illustrated that alopecia of nonhuman primates cannot be attributed solely to hair plucking.

Answer 41

Only 53.9% of animals in the alopecic group were seen to hair pluck. The assumption that a behavioral etiology is responsible for all cases of alopecia would have overestimated the actual number of animals that hair plucked and let to inappropriate diagnosis for almost half of alopecic animals. In addition, hair plucking may not be the primary underlying cause of hair loss in these animals, because both hair plucking and alopecia are multifactorial diseases. Also, 13% of control animals were observed to hair pluck, suggesting that hair plucking that does not lead to clinical alopecia may be more prevalent than previously thought.

Question 42

T/F – The positive dermatophyte cultures in the present study represented an underlying fungal etiology for two alopecic animals.

Answer 42

False – Four animals cultured positive for dermatophytes. The medium of one alopecic animal grew Aspergillus spp and another Penicillium spp, while the medium of one control animal grew Cladosporium spp and another Penicillium spp. All isolates were the 3 most common fungal isolates in a survey of dermatophyte cultures performed on domestic and laboratory animals. In addition, other than alopecia, few dermatologic lesions consistent with dermatophyte infections (such as scaling, crusts, and erythema) were noted.

Question 43

What was the only serum biochemistry value that was significantly different in the alopecic group compared to the control group? a. Increased serum creatinine b. Decreased serum creatinine c. Increased creatine kinase d. Decreased creatine kinase

Answer 43

b. Decreased serum creatinine (practical utility unknown)

Question 44

Which of the following situations will result in a significant loss in amniotic fluid in a sheep fetus? a. Fetal surgical catheterization with all membranes closed tightly around the catheters. b. Fetal surgical catheterization with an incomplete closure of the amnion. c. Fetal surgical catheterization with an incomplete closure of both the amnion and chorion. d. b or c

Answer 44

D

Question 45

T or F. In regards to the amniotic fluid, the amnion appears to function in limiting the AF movement through the intramembranous pathway while the chorion functions in absorbing AF thru the chorionic blood vessels.

Answer 45

True

Question 46

1. Octopus bimaculoides is in the phylum a. Mollusca b. Octopoda c. Cephalopoda d. Octopus

Answer 46

1. a (Phylum Mollusca, Order is Cephalopoda)

Question 47

2. The primary function of ctenidia is a. Apprehension of prey b. Ingestion of prey c. Reproduction d. Respiration

Answer 47

D

Question 48

3. Narcotization for surgery was accomplished by use of MS-222 (tricaine methanesulfonate). T or F

Answer 48

F, 2% ethanol was used

Question 49

4. The authors hypothesize that the intramantle inking caused death due to a. Toxicity of the ink b. Suffocation

Answer 49

B

Question 50

Which of the following are known stress behaviors in captive cephalopods? a. Autophagy b. Agitated swimming behaviors c. Extramantle inking d. Intramantle inking e. All of the above

Answer 50

E

Question 51

T or F - The current evidence suggests that ink presents a risk of toxicity to the octopus producing it.

Answer 51

F. The evidence suggests that the toxicity risk is very low but that high concentrations around the ctenidia may cause asphyxiation and potentially death.

Question 52

True or False: Operant behavior studies are used routinely in the field of behavioral pharmacology to evaluate the effects of drugs.

Answer 52

True

Question 53

True or False: Tapering the dose and prolonging the treatment intervals of corticosteroids can avoid potential problems with the adrenal glands following termination of the treatment regimen.

Answer 53

True

Question 54

True or False: Combination therapy of NSAIDS and opioids is an example of multi-modal pain therapy.

Answer 54

True