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PPOM1 Block 4 > Lecture 166 > Flashcards

Lecture 166 Flashcards

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1
Q

What bacteria is gram-negative, bacillus (rod-shaped), catalase negative, and oxidase negative?

A

Bartonella

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2
Q

What is the culture incubation time for bartonella?

A

2-6 weeks

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3
Q

How is bartonella visualized?

A

Warthin-Starry silver stain

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4
Q

What disease does bartonella henselae cause?

A

Cat scratch fever

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5
Q

What are the symptoms of cat scratch fever in immunocompetent hosts?

A

A small papule at the inoculation site, lymphadenopathy, and low grade fever that resolves in weeks to months.

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6
Q

What bartonella can cause stellate necrotizing granulomas?

A

Bartonella henselae

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7
Q

Bartonella henselae patients with AIDS can develop benign capillary skin lesions known as ____

A

Bacillary angiomatosis

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8
Q

What CD4+ count threshold is set for bacillary angiomatosis in AIDS patients?

A

<100

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9
Q

Bacillary angiomatosis lesions in AIDS patients can be mistaken for ____

A

Kaposi sarcoma

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10
Q

What differentiates bacillary angiomatosis from Kaposi sarcoma?

A

Bacillary angiomatosis has neutrophilic infiltrates on biopsy

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11
Q

What disease does bartonella quintana cause?

A

Trench fever

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12
Q

How is bartonella quintana transmitted?

A

Body louse

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13
Q

What are the clinical features of bartonella quintana (trench fever)?

A

High fevers, severe back and leg pains, and a 5-day interval between febrile episodes.

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14
Q

What is the treatment for bartonella quintana?

A

Oral erythromycin, doxycycline, or azithromycin

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15
Q

What disease does bartonella bacilliformis cause?

A

Oroya fever/Carrion disease

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16
Q

Where is bartonella bacilliformis endemic?

A

Peru, Ecuador, Colombia

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17
Q

How is bartonella bacilliformis transmitted?

A

Sandfly

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18
Q

What are the clinical features of bartonella bacilliformis?

A

Massive anemia, myalgia, and arthralgia.

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19
Q

What bartonella species multiplies within erythrocyte cytoplasm and endothelial cells?

A

Bartonella bacilliformis

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20
Q

How is bartonella bacilliformis treated?

A

Chloramphenicol or ciprofloxacin

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21
Q

What bacteria is a spirochete that is typically carried by ticks and lice?

A

Borrelia

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22
Q

What are the two F’s of Borrelia?

A

Flagella & fastidious

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23
Q

What disease does borrelia burgdorferi cause?

A

Lyme disease

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24
Q

What is the vector of borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Ixodes (deer) tick

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25
What microbe is erythema migrans associated with?
Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)
26
What group of bacteria are known to cause acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans?
Borrelia
27
How is borrelia burgdorferi treated?
4 week course of doxycycline or amoxicillin
28
What disease does borrelia miyamotoi cause?
Hard tick relapsing fever
29
Where is borrelia miyamotoi geographically located?
Northern hemisphere
30
How is borrelia miyamotoi transmitted?
Ixodes ticks
31
What borrelia species causes flu-like symptoms and relapsing fevers?
Borrelia miyamotoi
32
What borrelia infection is diagnosed with anti-glpQ antibodies?
Borrelia miyamotoi
33
How is borrelia miyamotoi treated?
2-4 week course of doxycycline, amoxicillin, or ceftriaxone
34
What disease does babesia microti cause?
Babesiosis
35
How is babesia microti transmitted?
Ixodes tick
36
What protozoal infection causes flu-like illness and hemolytic anemia?
Babesia microti
37
What protozoa shows a classic tetrad pattern (Maltese cross) or ring form within RBCs on a blood smear?
Babesia microti
38
What risk factors can predispose to babesia microti?
Asplenia, immunocompromised status, and the elderly
39
How is a moderate babesia microti infection treated?
Atovaquone + azithromycin
40
How is a severe babesia microti infection treated?
Clindamycin and quinine transfusion
41
What is the vector for plasmodium?
Anopheles mosquito
42
What classification of malaria is acquired in an endemic area and brought to a non-endemic area during the incubation period?
Imported malaria
43
What classification of malaria is transmitted through blood transfusion or needle sharing?
Induced malaria
44
Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) is gaining popularity to diagnose ____?
Malaria
45
Plasmodium sporozoites travel to the liver, multiply and become ____?
Merozoites
46
What species of plasmodium causes the most severe form of malaria?
Plasmodium falciparum
47
What is the fever pattern for plasmodium falciparum?
Irregular fever pattern
48
What are possible complications of plasmodium falciparum?
Blackwater fever and cerebral malaria
49
What complication of plasmodium falciparum is caused by intravascular hemolysis with rapid RBC lysis?
Blackwater fever
50
What complication of plasmodium falciparum is caused by infected RBCs occluding capillaries in the brain?
Cerebral malaria
51
Does plasmodium falciparum produce hypnozoites in the liver?
No
52
What are the diagnostic forms of plasmodium falciparum?
Rings forms and mature gametocyte
53
Does plasmodium vivax produce hypnozoites in the liver?
Yes
54
Does plasmodium ovale produce hypnozoites in the liver?
Yes
55
What is the RBC preference for plasmodium vivax?
Young, larger, RBCs
56
What is the RBC preference for plasmodium ovale?
Young, larger, RBCs
57
What is the fever pattern of plasmodium vivax?
Tertian (every 48 hours)
58
What is the fever pattern of plasmodium ovale?
Tertian (every 48 hours)
59
Does plasmodium knowlesi produce hypnozoites in the liver?
No
60
What is the fever pattern of plasmodium knowlesi?
Quotidian (every 24 hours)
61
What plasmodium species typically infects monkeys?
Plasmodium knowlesi
62
What is the RBC preference of plasmodium malariae?
Mature RBCs
63
What is the fever pattern of plasmodium knowlesi?
Quartan (every 72 hours)
64
What type of parasite is toxoplasma gondii?
Coccidian parasite
65
How is toxoplasma gondii transmitted?
House cats, contaminated meats or shellfish
66
What disease does toxoplasma gondii cause?
Toxoplasmosis
67
What is the CD4 level threshold for AIDS patients to be at risk for severe toxoplasmosis?
<100 CD4+
68
What is the classic triad for congenital toxoplasmosis?
Chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcifications.
69
What type of rash is possible in congenital toxoplasmosis?
"blueberry muffin" rash
70
How is toxoplasmosis diagnosed?
Elevated antibody (IgM) in immunocompetent individuals
71
How is toxoplasmosis treated in HIV patients?
4-6 week course of pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine
72
How is disseminated toxoplasmosis treated?
TMP-SMX
73
What is the geographical distribution of leishmania species?
Central & South America, Africa, Middle East
74
During what life stage of leishmania are they intracellular, non-motile, and round or oval-shaped?
Amastigotes
75
During what life stage of leishmania are they extracellular, motile, and elongated with a flagellum?
Promastigotes
76
What is the vector for leishmania species?
Sandfly
77
What disease do leishmania species cause?
Leishmaniasis
78
What type of leishmaniasis causes an ulcerating lesion that leads to scarring?
Cutaneous leishmaniasis
79
How long does cutaneous leishmaniasis take to heal?
1 year
80
What type of leishmaniasis initially presents as a dermal ulcer that heals quickly?
Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis
81
What is the progression of mucocutaneous leishmaniasis?
Ulcers in the mucous membranes of the nose and mouth develop months to years after initial infection.
82
What type of leishmaniasis presents with a spiking fever, diarrhea, and anemia?
Visceral leishmaniasis
83
What syndrome develops at variable intervals after/during treatment for visceral leishmaniasis?
Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL)
84
How is leishmaniasis treated?
Amphotericin B, sodium stibogluconate
85
What disease does Trypanosoma cruzi cause?
Chagas disease
86
What is the vector for Trypanosoma cruzi?
Reduviid ("kissing") bug
87
What is a chagoma?
Hardened, red skin rash at the site of parasite entry.
88
What parasite causes chagoma?
Trypanosoma cruzi
89
What is Romana sign?
Unilateral painless periorbital swelling.
90
What parasite is associated with Romana sign?
Trypanosoma cruzi
91
What are the classic triad symptoms for the chronic phase of Trypanosoma cruzi?
Megaesophagus, megacolon, and dilated cardiomyopathy.
92
How is Trypanosoma cruzi treated?
Nifurtimox or benznidazole
93
What disease does Trypanosoma brucei cause?
African sleeping sickness
94
What is the geographic distribution of Trypanosoma brucei gambiense?
West Africa
95
What is the geographic distribution of Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense?
East Africa
96
What is the vector for Trypanosoma brucei?
Tsetse fly (painful bite)
97
What is the first clinical manifestation of Trypanosoma brucei?
A hard, red, painful skin ulcer that heals within 2 weeks.
98
What is Winterbottom sign?
Posterior cervical lymph node swelling.
99
What parasitic infection features Winterbottom sign during the hemolymphatic stage?
Trypanosoma brucei
100
What are the symptoms specific to T.b. gambiense?
Slowly progressive fevers, wasting, and late neurological symptoms.
101
What subtype of Trypanosoma brucei is more severe and can cause death within weeks to months?
T.b. rhodesiense
102
How is Trypanosoma brucei diagnosed?
Giemsa stain of blood smear
103
How is systemic infection of Trypanosoma brucei treated?
Pentamidine or suramin
104
How is CNS infection of Trypanosoma brucei treated?
Melarsoprol
105
What family of viruses does the Zika virus belong to?
Flaviviridae
106
Is Zika virus negative- or positive-sense?
Positive-sense
107
Is Zika virus single-stranded or double-stranded?
Single-stranded
108
Is Zika virus enveloped or not?
Enveloped
109
Is Zika virus an RNA or DNA virus?
RNA virus
110
What is the vector for Zika virus?
Aedes mosquito
111
What mosquito-transmitted virus resembles dengue fever and chikungunya?
Zika virus
112
Infection with what virus correlates with a higher incidence of Guillain-Barre syndrome?
Zika virus
113
What viral protein binds to the ACE2 receptor of host cells, leading to viral entry?
Spike protein on SARS-CoV-2

PPOM1 Block 4 (44 decks)

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