Lecture 172 Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

Complement deficiency can increase the risk of what type of infections?

A

Neisseria infections

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2
Q

Humoral immunity defects can increase the risk of what type of infections?

A

Encapsulated bacteria

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3
Q

Granulocytopenia can increase the risk of what type of infections?

A

Gram-negative enterics, pseudomonas, staphylococci, Viridians streptococci fungi

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4
Q

Cellular immunity defects can increase the risk of what type of infection?

A

Intracellular bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites

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5
Q

Alpha4 integrin blockade by natalizumab increase the risk of what condition?

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) caused by JC virus

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6
Q

What infections are SOT recipients most at risk for immediately after surgery?

A

Hospital-acquired bacteria, candida, C. diff

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7
Q

What combination of CMV status presents the highest risk for a SOT recipient?

A

Donor positive, recipient negative

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8
Q

What CD4+ count characterizes stage 1 AIDS?

A

CD4 >500

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9
Q

What CD4+ count characterizes stage 2 AIDS?

A

CD4 200-499

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10
Q

What CD4+ count characterizes stage 3 AIDS?

A

CD4 <200

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11
Q

What criteria other than CD4 count characterizes stage 3 AIDS?

A

Documentation of an AIDS-defining condition

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12
Q

What type of organism causes PJP?

A

Fungi

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13
Q

What CD4 count predisposes PJP?

A

CD4 <200

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14
Q

What is the most common opportunistic infection in untreated AIDS?

A

PJP

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15
Q

Subacute onset of a nonproductive cough, fever, and progressive dyspnea with lungs that are clear to auscultation suggests what AIDS OI?

A

PJP

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16
Q

What radiographic findings are common in PJP?

A

CXR shows bilateral interstitial/ground-glass opacities without effusion

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17
Q

What is the treatment for PJP in AIDS patients?

A

TMP/SMZ

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18
Q

What is the recommended prophylaxis for PJP in AIDS?

A

TMP/SMZ

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19
Q

What type of organism is CMV?

A

Beta herpesvirus

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20
Q

What CD4 count predisposes to CMV?

A

CD4 <50

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21
Q

Retinitis, pneumonitis, ulcerative esophagitis, colitis, and transplant rejection are clinical signs of what AIDS OI?

A

CMV

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22
Q

Flame hemorrhages and cotton wool spots are diagnostic findings that suggest what AIDS OI?

A

CMV

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23
Q

Tissue biopsy showing ‘Owl’s eye’ inclusion bodies suggests what AIDS OI?

A

CMV

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24
Q

How is CMV treated in AIDS?

A

Ganciclovir/valganciclovir

25
What is the prophylaxis of AIDS CMV?
Valganciclovir
26
What type of organism is HSV?
Alpha herpesvirus
27
What CD4 count predisposes to HSV?
CD4 <50
28
Retinitis, oral ulcers, esophagitis, tracheobronchitis, pneumonitis, colitis, and encephalitis are presentations of what AIDS OI?
HSV
29
What is the treatment for AIDS HSV?
Acyclovir/valacyclovir
30
What is the prophylaxis for AIDS HSV?
Acyclovir
31
What type of organism is VZV?
Alpha herpesvirus
32
VZV retinitis in AIDS presents at what CD4 threshold?
CD4 <200
33
VZV acute retinal necrosis presents at what CD4 threshold?
CD4 <50
34
What is the treatment for AIDS VZV?
Acyclovir/valacyclovir
35
What is the prophylaxis for AIDS VZV?
Acyclovir
36
What CD4 count predisposes to MAC (mycobacterium avium complex)?
CD4 <50
37
Fever, weight loss, night sweats, diarrhea, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, and anemia suggest what disseminated AIDS OI?
MAC
38
How is AIDS MAC treated?
Combination therapy: clarithromycin, plus ethambutol
39
What type of organism is cryptococcus neoformans?
Encapsulated yeast-like fungus
40
Where is C. neoformans found?
Soil contaminated with avian droppings
41
What CD4 count predisposes to C. neoformans infection?
CD4 <50
42
What is the most common presentation of C neoformans infection in a patient with AIDS?
Meningitis
43
What is the induction therapy for C. neoformans infection?
Amphotericin B and flucytosine
44
What is the maintenance therapy for C. neoformans infection?
Oral fluconazole
45
What is the prophylactic treatment for C. neoformans?
Fluconazole
46
What CD4 count predisposes to JC reactivation and ensuing PML?
CD4 <50
47
Subacute neurological decline affecting brain white matter and characteristic demyelinating lesions suggest what AIDS OI?
PML
48
What type of organism is toxoplasma gondii?
Protozoan parasite
49
What CD4 count predisposes to toxoplasma gondii infection?
CD4 <100
50
Fever, headache, confusion, focal neurological deficits, and seizures suggest what AIDS OI?
Cerebral toxoplasmosis
51
Brain imaging showing multiple ring-enhancing lesions, often in basal ganglia or corticomedullary junction suggest what AIDS OI?
Cerebral toxoplasmosis
52
How is cerebral toxoplasmosis treated?
Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine
53
What prophylaxis is used to prevent toxoplasma gondii infection in IgG-positive patients with CD4 <100?
TMP/SMZ
54
What is IRIS?
Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome
55
What is an exaggerated inflammatory reaction to an opportunistic pathogen that occurs after initiating ART?
Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome
56
What type of IRIS involves a flare-up of a previously undiagnosed/subclinical infection soon after starting ART?
Unmasking IRIS
57
What type of IRIS involves worsening of a previously treated infection despite microbiologic control after starting ART?
Paradoxical IRIS
58
Starting ART with a very low CD4 count and a high pathogen burden increases the risk of ____
IRIS