Lecture 180 Flashcards

(87 cards)

1
Q

What is a flat, circumscribed lesion differing in color from surrounding skin?

A

Macule/patch

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2
Q

What is an elevated dome-shaped or flat-topped lesion?

A

Papule/nodule

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3
Q

What is an elevated, flat-topped lesion?

A

Plaque

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4
Q

What is a discrete, raised lesion filled with pus?

A

Pustule

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5
Q

What is a fluid-filled raised lesion?

A

Vesicle/bulla/blister

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6
Q

What is an itchy, transient, elevated lesion with variable blanching and erythema due to dermal edema?

A

Wheal

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7
Q

What is diffuse epidermal hyperplasia (thickening of the epidermis)?

A

Acanthosis

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8
Q

What is abnormal, premature keratinization of cells below the stratum granulosum?

A

Dyskeratosis

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9
Q

What is thickening of the stratum corneum, often with qualitative keratin abnormality?

A

Hyperkeratosis

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10
Q

What is a linear pattern of melanocyte proliferation within the epidermal basal cell layer?

A

Lentiginous

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11
Q

What is keratinization with retained nuclei in the stratum corneum?

A

Parakeratosis

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12
Q

What is intercellular edema (fluid accumulation between cells) within the epidermis?

A

Spongiosis

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13
Q

What acute inflammatory dermatoses is caused by localized mast cell degranulation, resulting in wheals?

A

Urticaria (hives)

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14
Q

What type of urticaria is a classic type I hypersensitivity reaction to allergens?

A

Mast cell-dependent, IgE-dependent

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15
Q

What type of urticaria is caused by certain substances directly triggering mast cell degranulation?

A

Mast-cell dependent, IgE-independent

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16
Q

What type of urticaria is triggered by factors increasing vascular permeability directly, such as aspirin?

A

Mast cell-independent, IgE-independent

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17
Q

What type of urticaria is caused by a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor?

A

Hereditary angioedema

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18
Q

What acute inflammatory dermatoses appears as dermal edema?

A

Urticaria

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19
Q

What acute inflammatory dermatoses is characterized by erythema, edema, vesiculation, and pruritis?

A

Acute eczematous dermatitis

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20
Q

How does intercellular edema in the epidermis differ from dermal edema in acute inflammatory dermatoses?

A

Dermatitis vs. urticaria

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21
Q

Fluid accumulation in dermatitis can lead to microvesicles due to shearing of ____

A

Desmosomes

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22
Q

What chronic, relapsing inflammation is due to skin barrier dysfunction and immune dysregulation?

A

Atopic dermatitis (eczema)

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23
Q

Eczema commonly affects ____

A

Affects flexural areas

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24
Q

What is a rare, self-limiting hypersensitivity reaction, appearing as classic ‘targetoid’ lesions?

A

Erythema multiforme (EM)

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25
What is the most common infectious trigger of erythema multiforme (EM)?
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
26
Erythema multiforme appears as symmetrical distribution on ____ surfaces
Extensor
27
Erythema multiforme (EM) is mediated by ____
T-cells
28
Erythema multiforme (EM) under histology appears as inflammation centered at the dermal-epidermal junction, aka
Interface dermatitis
29
What lesions begin as erythematous or purpuric macules, rapidly progressing to flaccid bullae?
SJS/TEN
30
What chronic, immune-mediated inflammatory disorder is characterized by hyperproliferation of keratinocytes?
Psoriasis
31
Psoriasis typically affects ____ surfaces, scalp, groin, gluteal cleft, and axillae
Extensor
32
Initial psoriasis outbreak can follow infection or signify new ____
HIV infection
33
Psoriasis is immune-mediated, primarily driven by ____ and ____ T-cell pathways
Th1 and Th17
34
HLA-C*06:02 allele is the strongest known genetic risk factor for what chronic inflammatory disorder?
Psoriasis
35
What are well-demarcated, pink-salmon colored plaques with overlying silvery-white scales?
Psoriasis
36
What is the development of psoriasis lesions at sites of skin trauma known as?
Koebner phenomenon
37
What are pinpoint bleeding points when psoriasis scales are lifted known as?
Auspitz sign
38
What are the histological characteristics of psoriasis?
Acanthosis, parakeratosis, thinning of stratum granulosum, and elongation of Rete ridges
39
What chronic inflammatory dermatoses is characterized by the 6 P's?
Lichen planus
40
Lichen planus has a strong association with what infection?
Hepatitis C virus infection
41
Lichen planus is thought to be a cell-mediated immune response involving ____ cells
CD8+ T-cells
42
What are fine white dots or lace-like lines associated with lichen planus?
Wickham striae
43
What are the histological characteristics of lichen planus?
Interface dermatitis, sawtoothing, hyperkeratosis, hypergranulosis, and civatte bodies
44
What are anucleate, necrotic basal keratinocytes associated with lichen planus?
Civatte bodies
45
What is a common, chronic, relapsing inflammatory condition affecting sebaceous gland-rich areas?
Seborrheic dermatitis
46
What overgrowth is strongly implicated in seborrheic dermatitis?
Malassezia yeast
47
How is seborrheic dermatitis treated?
Topical antifungals
48
What class of blisters are caused by a split occurring below the stratum corneum?
Subcorneal
49
What class of blisters are caused by a split occurring within the epidermis?
Suprabasal
50
What class of blisters are caused by a split occurring below the entire epidermis?
Subepidermal
51
What autoimmune blistering disease is caused by IgG autoantibodies targeting desmosomal proteins?
Pemphigus vulgaris (PV)
52
What does PV involve?
Skin and mucous membranes
53
What clinical sign is positive in PV?
Positive Nikolsky sign
54
What do patients with PV have autoantibodies against?
Dsg3 and Dsg1
55
What are the histological characteristics of pemphigus vulgaris?
Acantholysis, suprabasal split, and 'row of tombstones'
56
What does direct IF on pemphigus vulgaris patient skin biopsy show?
Intercellular pattern of IgG deposition
57
What autoimmune blistering disease is caused by autoantibodies targeting components of the hemidesmosome?
Bullous pemphigoid (BP)
58
What population is typically affected by BP?
Older/elderly individuals
59
What are commonly affected sites of BP?
Flexor surfaces of arms, inner thighs, axillae, and groin
60
What clinical sign is negative in BP?
Negative Nikolsky sign
61
What do BP patients have autoantibodies against?
BPAG1 and BPAG2
62
What are the histological characteristics of bullous pemphigoid?
Subepidermal split and no loss of cohesion between keratinocytes
63
What does direct IF in a BP patient show?
Linear deposition of IgG and/or C3 along DE junction
64
What is a rare autoimmune skin disorder characterized by intensely pruritic urticarial papules?
Dermatitis herpetiformis (DH)
65
What are the symptoms of dermatitis herpetiformis?
Symmetrical and group pruritic papules and small vesicles
66
What do patients with DH develop IgA antibodies against?
Dietary gluten that cross-react with epidermal transglutaminase
67
What are the histological characteristics of dermatitis herpetiformis?
Subepidermal split and neutrophilic micro abscesses
68
What does direct IF of dermatitis herpetiformis show?
Granular deposits of IgA
69
What is a group of inherited disorders characterized by skin fragility and blister formation?
Epidermolysis bullosa (EB)
70
What EB subtype displays intraepidermal cleavage with mutated keratin 5 or keratin 14?
Epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS)
71
What EB subtype displays intra-lamina lucida with mutated laminin-332?
Junctional epidermolysis bullosa (JEB)
72
What EB subtype displays cleavage with mutated type VII collagen?
Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa (DEB)
73
What EB subtype has variable levels of cleavage with mutated kindlin-1?
Kindler syndrome (KEB)
74
What is a common disorder of the pilosebaceous unit?
Acne vulgaris
75
What is an open comedone?
Lesion where follicular opening is dilated, filled with keratin and lipid plug
76
What is a closed comedone?
Lesion where the follicular opening is obstructed, appearing as small, skin-colored papules
77
What anaerobic bacterium proliferates in the sebum-rich, blocked follicle?
Propionibacterium acnes
78
What is a chronic inflammatory condition primarily affecting the central face?
Rosacea
79
What rosacea subtype presents with flushing episodes and persistent central facial erythema?
Erythematotelangiectatic rosacea
80
What rosacea subtype presents with persistent erythema with transient papules and pustules?
Papulopustular rosacea
81
What rosacea subtype presents with skin thickening and irregular surface nodularities?
Phymatous rosacea
82
What rosacea subtype presents with eye irritation and dryness?
Ocular rosacea
83
Increased cutaneous levels of what antimicrobial peptide are observed in rosacea?
Cathelicidin
84
What is a form of panniculitis primarily involving inflammation affecting the fibrous septa?
Erythema nodosum (EN)
85
What is the acute onset of tender, erythematous, non-ulcerating subcutaneous nodules known as?
Erythema nodosum (EN)
86
Erythema nodosum (EN) typically occurs on ____
Anterior lower legs (shins)
87
What is a common trigger of erythema nodosum (EN)?
Beta-hemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis