Lecture 177 Flashcards

(89 cards)

1
Q

What pathogen causes bubonic and pneumonic plague?

A

Yersinia pestis

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2
Q

What pathogen causes enterocolitis and pseudoappendicitis?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

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3
Q

What zoonotic microbe is a gram-negative, facultative anaerobic rod that is resistant to cold?

A

Yersinia

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4
Q

What type of secretion system injects proteins into host cells, resisting phagocytosis and inhibiting cytokine production/inflammation?

A

Type III secretion system

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5
Q

What type of secretion system does Yersinia species display?

A

Type III secretion system

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6
Q

What is the reservoir for Y. pestis?

A

Rodents/cats

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7
Q

How does Y. pestis spread to humans?

A

Via infected flea bites

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8
Q

How is Y. enterocolitica acquired?

A

Contaminated meat, milk, or water

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9
Q

What zoonotic disease is characterized by fever and painful, swollen lymph nodes (buboes), typically in the axilla/groin?

A

Bubonic plague (Y. pestis)

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10
Q

What high mortality zoonotic disease results in fever and pulmonary symptoms within 1 day?

A

Pneumonic plague (Y. pestis)

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11
Q

What zoonotic disease is characterized by diarrhea, fever, abdominal pain lasting 1-2 weeks; affects the terminal ileum and mesenteric lymph nodes?

A

Enterocolitis (Y. enterocolitica)

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12
Q

What zoonotic pathogen must be grown on cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN)?

A

Yersinia

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13
Q

What zoonotic pathogen presents as an encapsulated, gram-positive, obligate aerobe that forms long chains of rods?

A

Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)

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14
Q

What bacillus anthracis toxin binds to cells, allowing entry of edema factor and lethal factor?

A

Protective antigen (PA)

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15
Q

What bacillus anthracis toxin combines with protective antigen to form edema toxin?

A

Edema factor (EF)

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16
Q

How does bacillus anthracis edema toxin cause edema?

A

Increases intracellular cAMP

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17
Q

What bacillus anthracis toxin targets MAP kinases to inhibit innate immunity, causing necrosis?

A

Lethal factor (LF)

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18
Q

Bacillus anthracis is primarily a disease of ____

A

Herbivores (livestock)

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19
Q

What zoonotic disease begins as a painless papule that ulcerates and becomes surrounded by vesicles, developing into a characteristic black, necrotic eschar, often with painful edema and LAD?

A

Cutaneous anthrax

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20
Q

Necrosis in cutaneous anthrax is caused by ____

A

Lethal factor (LF)

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21
Q

What zoonotic infection causes upper GI involvement of regional LAD, sepsis, and edema and lower GI involvement of nausea, vomiting, and malaise?

A

Gastrointestinal (GI) anthrax

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22
Q

What zoonotic infection is taken up by alveolar macrophages and is transported to mediastinal lymph nodes where it progresses rapidly to mediastinal widening/LAD and death within days?

A

Inhalation anthrax

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23
Q

What zoonotic microbe appears as non-hemolytic colonies with a ‘ground-glass’ surface on standard media and reveals a capsule under India ink stain?

A

Bacillus anthracis

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24
Q

What does empiric therapy for anthrax often include?

A

Ciprofloxacin or doxycycline

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25
What zoonotic disease does borrelia burgdorferi cause?
Lyme disease
26
What zoonotic disease does borrelia recurrentis cause?
Relapsing fever
27
What is the shape of borrelia?
Spirochetes (spiral-shaped)
28
How is B. burgdorferi transmitted?
Ixodes ticks
29
How is B. recurrentis transmitted?
Human body louse
30
How does B. recurrentis evade host immune response and cause recurring episodes of fever?
Undergoes antigenic variation
31
Expanding skin rash, creating a bulls-eye appearance
Erythema migrans (EM)
32
Zoonotic microbe described as a thin, flexible spirochete with characteristic hooked ends with flagella
Leptospira
33
Where do Leptospira reservoir hosts carry the bacteria?
Renal tubules
34
Where do over half of leptospirosis cases occur in the USA?
Hawaii
35
What is the incubation period of leptospirosis?
1-2 weeks
36
What zoonotic infection involves a biphasic illness where the second phase emerges after a brief remission, with return of fever and earlier symptoms and development of more severe illness?
Leptospirosis
37
Weil disease is a severe form of what zoonotic infection?
Leptospirosis
38
What form of leptospirosis presents as an icteric form, involving hepatic and renal dysfunction, hemorrhage, vascular collapse, and potentially respiratory distress?
Weil disease
39
How is leptospirosis antibody detection performed?
Microscopic agglutination test (MAT)
40
How are moderate/severe cases of leptospirosis treated?
IV penicillin or doxycycline
41
What antibiotic can be used for short-term prevention of leptospirosis in high-risk exposure situations?
Doxycycline
42
What disease does Rickettsia rickettsii cause?
Rocky mountain spotted fever (RMSF)
43
What zoonotic pathogen is an obligate intracellular gram-negative rod that targets endothelial cells lining blood vessels?
Rickettsia rickettsii
44
What is the vector for Rickettsia rickettsii?
Hard ticks
45
Adherence of Rickettsia rickettsii of endothelial cells is mediated by ____
Outer membrane protein A (OmpA)
46
What zoonotic infection presents with a rash that starts as small, flat, pink, non-itchy spots (macules) on wrists, forearms, and ankles which spreads centrally to the trunk?
Rocky mountain spotted fever
47
What characteristic of rocky mountain spotted fever is a poor prognostic sign?
The presence of petechial rash
48
What is the drug of choice for treatment of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
Doxycycline
49
What zoonotic microbes causes Epidemic typhus?
Rickettsia prowazekii
50
What zoonotic microbe causes Brill-Zinsser disease?
Rickettsia prowazekii
51
What is the vector of Rickettsia prowazekii?
Human body louse
52
What zoonotic disease presents with abrupt onset fever, headache, chills, and rash that starts on the trunk and spreads outwards, often sparing palms and soles?
Epidemic typhus
53
What zoonotic disease is a recurrent form of epidemic typhus occurring months to years after primary infection?
Brill-Zinsser disease
54
How is Brill-Zinsser disease treated?
Doxycycline
55
Anaplasma and ehrlichia infect white blood cells and form characteristic clumps known as ____
Morulae
56
Ehrlichia chaffeensis primarily infects ____
Monocytes
57
Anaplasma phagocytophilum primarily infects ____
Granulocytes (neutrophils)
58
What is the vector for Ehrlichia?
Lone star tick
59
What is the vector for Anaplasma?
Ixodes tick
60
High fever, headache, malaise, and muscle aches and lab findings of leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and elevated liver transaminases are suggestive of what two zoonotic infections?
Human monocytic ehrlichiosis (HME) and human granulocytic anaplasmosis (HGA)
61
How is HME and HGA treated?
Doxycycline
62
What zoonotic infection exists in small-cell variants and large-cell variants?
Coxiella burnetii
63
What disease does coxiella burnetii cause?
Q fever
64
Where in sheep, goats, and cattle is Coxiella burnetii highly concentrated?
Birth products
65
What zoonotic infection is typically asymptomatic and or mild, but when symptomatic it presents with high fever, debilitating fatigue, severe headache, and muscle aches?
Acute Q fever
66
What is the most common manifestation of chronic Q fever?
Endocarditis
67
How is acute Q fever treated?
2 weeks doxycycline
68
How is chronic Q fever treated?
Prolonged combination therapy, doxycycline plus hydroxychloroquine for at least 18 months
69
What disease is caused by Francisella tularensis?
Tularemia
70
Francisella tularensis requires specific media enriched with ____ for growth
Cysteine
71
What is the vector for francisella tularensis?
Ticks and biting flies
72
What is the most common clinical form of tularemia?
Ulceroglandular
73
What clinical form of tularemia results from skin inoculation, leading to an ulceration with painful regional lymphadenopathy, fever, chills, headache, and malaise?
Ulceroglandular
74
What clinical form of tularemia is similar to the ulceroglandular type but without the skin ulcer; lymphadenopathy is the primary feature?
Glandular
75
What clinical form of tularemia results from bacteria entering the right, resulting in painful conjunctivitis, ulceration, and regional lymphadenopathy?
Oculoglandular
76
What clinical form of tularemia results from ingestion, leading to a sore throat, pharyngitis, tonsillitis, swollen cervical lymph nodes, or abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea?
Oropharyngeal/GI
77
What clinical form of tularemia results from inhalation of aerosols, leading to pneumonia, chest pain, and cough?
Pneumonic
78
What clinical form of tularemia presents as a systemic illness without clear localization?
Typhoidal
79
What is the treatment of choice for tularemia?
Gentamicin
80
What disease does streptobacillus moniliformis cause?
Rat bite fever
81
What zoonotic infection presents as abrupt onset of irregular fever, chills, HA, vomiting, migratory polyarthralgia, and a maculopapular, petechial, or purpuric rash involving the extremities, including palms and soles?
Rat bite fever
82
What is the drug of choice for rat bite fever?
Penicillin
83
What disease does brucella cause?
Undulant fever
84
What is the most common route of transmission of brucella?
Consumption of unpasteurized/raw dairy products
85
Where does brucella typically reside in the human body?
Reticuloendothelial system (macrophages)
86
What causes recurrent symptoms in brucellosis?
Periodic release from infect cells into the bloodstream
87
What zoonotic illness presents as non-specific flu-like illness with profuse night sweats, and a characteristic waxing and waning fever pattern, often rising in the afternoon/evening and falling by morning?
Brucellosis
88
What is the standard regimen for treating brucellosis?
Doxycycline plus rifampin for 6 weeks
89
How are pregnant women and children treated for brucellosis?
TMP-SMX