Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Anatomic Pathology 2 > Pathology of Hemolymphatics > Flashcards

Pathology of Hemolymphatics Flashcards

(113 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

<p>Where in the body does hematopoiesis occur?</p>

A

<p>bone marrow, liver, spleen</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is hematopoiesis?

A

the proliferation and orderly differentiation of hematoloogic cell lineages from pleuripotent stem cells and progenitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some positive regulators of hematopoesis?

A

erythropoietin, thrombopoietin, and cytokines (GM-CSF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some negative regualtors of hematopoiesis?

A

inflammation, hormones, drugs, toxins, and infectious agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the steps of erythroid maturation?

A

rubriblast to prorubricyte to rubricyte to metarubricyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the steps of myeloid maturation?

A

myeloblast to promyelocyte to myelocyte to metamyelocyte to seg and band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is physiologic hyperplasia?

A

the increased demand for RBCs, granulocytes, and platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some peripheral manifestations in bone marrow?

A

leukocytosis, regenerative anemia, and extramedullary hematopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is leukocytosis?

A

increased white blood cell count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the causes for hypoplasia, aplasia, and atrophy in bone marrow?

A

decreased demand, increased destruction, and genetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are some causes/processes for increased destruction of bone marrow?

A

immune-mediated, infiltrative disease, paraneoplastic, and exogenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is an example of an infiltrative disease that causes increased destriction to bone marrow?

A

myelophthisis - replacement of BM by non-native issue/cells leading to pancytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are some examples of paraneoplastic syndromes?

A

anemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of exogenous agents cause increased destruction in bone marrow?

A

infectious (parvovirus, FeLv, FIV, EIA, Ehrlichia) and chemical (antimicrobials, chemotherapeutics, phenylbutazone, bracken fern, and estrogen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some categories of bone marrow neoplasias?

A

lymphoproliferative disease, myeloproliferative disease, and metastatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some examples of neoplasias that arise from lymphoproliferative disease?

A

lymphoma, leukemia, plasma cell tumor, multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some examples of neoplasias that arise from myeloproliferative disorders?

A

progenitor-derived neoplasms with bone marrow and hematologic involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What causes serous atrophy of fat?

A

any animal that is undergoing a negative energy balance for a long amount of time (starvation or cancer related)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is myelofibrosis?

A

when bone marrow stroma and parenchyma is replaced by fibrous connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the structure of the thymus?

A

multilobular with capsule, cortex, and medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the function of the thymus?

A

it is the site of T cell production and maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What lymphatics are associated with the thymys?

A

only efferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does the cortex of the thymus do?

A

produces immunocompetent naïve T-cells which are then sent to the medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are epithelial reticular cells?

A

isolates of naïve T cells from antigen exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What do tingible-body macrophages do?
break down deleted T-cells
26
What does the medulla of the thymus contain?
immunocompetent naïve T-cells
27
What are Hassall's corpuscles?
confined epithelial cells
28
What can cause hypoplasia of the thymus?
SCID in arabian foals and mice
29
What does SCID stand for?
severe combined immunodeficiency
30
What causes SCID in arabian foals?
there is a defect in DNA protein kinase (premature stop codon)
31
What is the pathogenesis of hypoplasia of the thymus?
enzyme defect to inadequate gene rearrangement to no T or B receptor to apoptosis of lymphocyte precursors to few functional T and B cells to poor adaptive immune response to death by 5 months of age
32
What does thymic atrophy occur in response to?
environmental toxin or systemic disease
33
What is thymic atrophy not to be confused with?
involution
34
What is thymitis?
inflammation of the thymus
35
What does circovirus infection in pigs cause?
pyogranulomatous thymitis
36
What is a thymoma composed of?
neoplastic thymic epithelial cells and non-neoplastic T-lymphocytes
37
Where are thymomas typically located?
in the cranioventral thorax and may impinge on nearby structures (esophagus, trachea, and vessels)
38
Do thymomas typically occur to older or younger animals?
older animals
39
Where are thymic lymphomas located?
in the mediastinum
40
Microscopically, what do thymic lymphomas look like?
sheets of neoplastic lymphocytes
41
What is the structure of the spleen?
capsule, smooth muscle trabecula, vessels, and NO lymphatics
42
What is the flow of blood through the spleen?
trabecular artery to central artery (PALS) to penicillar artery to sheathed arteriole (macrophages) to capillary to sinuses (red pulp)
43
What is the red pulp made up of?
sinuses and splenic cords
44
What are the sinuses of the red pulp?
discontinuous endothelium
45
What are the splenic cords of the red pulp?
reticular fibers and macrophages, T and B cells, plasma cells, and extramedullar hematopoiesis
46
What is the white pulp of the spleen made up of?
peri-arteriial lymphatic sheaths, lymhoid nodules, and marginal zone
47
What are peri-arterial lymphatic sheets?
T-cells around central arteries
48
What are lymphoid nodules in the spleen?
B-cell areas adjacent to PALS; may contain germinal centers
49
What is the marginal zone of the spleen?
it is located external to lymphoid nodules and PALS and is the interface with red pulp
50
What is the marginal zone of the spleen made up of?
T and B cells, plasma cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells
51
What are the functions of the spleen?
filtration, immunologic, hematopoiesis, and storage
52
What is the purpose of filtration in the spleen?
erythrocyte removal and removal of particulates
53
What does the spleen store?
blood, iron, and recycling
54
How does the spleen respond to injury (8)?
inflammation, hyperplasia, hematopoiesis, lymphoid atrophy, necrosis, hemorrhage, hemosiderosis, and neoplasia
55
What is diffuse enlargement of the spleen known as?
splenomegaly
56
What causes splenomegaly?
congestion, extramedullary hematopoiesi, and amyloidosis
57
What are some types of congestion that lead to splenomegaly?
CHF, torsion, epticemia, viremia, and barbituates
58
What are some types of extramedullary hematopoiesis processes that cause splenomegaly?
AIHA and anaplasmosis
59
What causes nodules in the spleen?
abscesses, granulomas, hematoma, and neoplasia
60
What can cause splenic contraction/atrophy?
hemorrhage/hypovolemia and lymphoid atrophy
61
What are hemosiderotic plaques?
small plaques that form on the surface of the spleen made up of hemosiderin and bilirubin
62
What are splenic explants?
accessory spleens
63
What do primary splenic neoplasias arise from?
cell populations that normally exist in the speen: lymphocytes, macrophages, endothelial cells, and smooth muscle
64
What is the path of flow of the lymphatic system?
interstitial fluid to afferent lymphatics to subcapsular space of draining lymph node to interaction with immune cells to efferent lymphatics to other nodes to the thoracic duct to subclavian veins to the cranial vena cava
65
What are the functions of the lymphatic system?
lymph drainage, innate and adaptive immunity, and transport of fat and fat-soluble vitamins via lacteals
66
What causes hypoplasia of the lymph nodes?
SCID
67
What causes atrophy of lymph nodes?
lymphoid depletion
68
What causes lymphadenomegaly?
lymphoid/reactive hyperplasia, inflammation, primary neoplasia, and secondary neoplasia
69
What is inflammation of the lymph node called?
lymphadenitis
70
What is a primary neoplasia of the lymph node?
lymphosarcoma
71
What are some secondary neoplasias that affect the lymph nodes?
carcinoma, round cell tumors, and sarcomas
72
What exudate is associeated with lymphadenitis?
suppurative, eosinophilic, pyogranulomatous, and granulomatous
73
Lymphadenitis is a common response to infection by what?
bacteria, fungi, viruses
74
What is an example of a bacteria that causes lymphadenitis in horse?
streptococcus equi ssp. Equi
75
What is an example of a virus that causes lymphadenitis in swine?
procine circovirus (causes granulomatous lymphadenitis)
76
What is an example of a bacteria that causes lymphadenitis in sheep?
corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis; caseous lymphadenitis
77
What is lymphoma (like specifically what is it)?
neoplastic proliferation of lymphocytes
78
What causes lymphoma?
sporadic or viral-associated or other
79
What is large cell lymphoma caused by?
lymphoblastic (immature) cells
80
What is small cell lymphoma caused by?
indolent (mature) cells
81
What are the lymphoid immunophenptypes?
T cell, B cell, plasma cells, and multiple myelomas
82
What paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with lymphoma?
cytopenias, anemia, and hypercalcemia
83
Canine lymphoma is the most common of canine ________.
malignancies
84
80percent of canine lymphomas are of what type?
multicentrac - generalized lymphadenopathy
85
20-40 percent of other canine lymphomas are associated with what clinical signs?
weight loss, anorexia, fever, hepato-/splenomegaly
86
Where are the 20-40percent of canine lymphomas that arent multicentric located?
thymic, cutaneous, epidermotropic, and ocular
87
What type of cells are most of the canine lymphomas made up of?
B-cells (60-80percent )
88
Are most canine lymphomas large cell or small cell?
large cell
89
Are most feline lymphomas large cell are small cell?
large cell
90
What is the ratio of B-cell to T-cell types of lymphoma in cats?
fifty fifty
91
FeLv associated lymphomas typically occur to what age of cats?
4-6 year olds
92
FeLv associated lymphomas typically localize where?
mediastinum or spine
93
Non-FeLv associated lymphomas typically occur in what age of cats?
older cats
94
Non-FeLv associated lymphomas are typically localized where?
GI/abdominal: 70percent intestinal, 30percent liver, spleen and kidney other sites: nasal, CNS, ocular, cutaneous
95
What is Marek's disease?
T-cell lymphosarcoma of 2-5 month old chickens
96
What is Marek's disease caused by?
oncogenic herpesvirus
97
How is Marek's disease transmitted?
horizontal transmission via infected feather follicle dander
98
Where does Marek's disease localized?
liver, brain, peripheral nerves, and other organs
99
What is lymphoid leukosis?
B-cell lymphosarcoma of chickens greater than 4 months old
100
What is lymphoid leukosis caused by?
avian retrovirus
101
Where does lymphoid leukosis localize?
Bursa of Fabricius, liver, spleen, ovary, and other organs
102
What is the most comon form of bovine lymphoma?
adult form
103
What is the adult form of bovine lymphoma caused by?
bovine leukemia virus - a retrovirus
104
Where does bovine lymphosarcoma typically manifest?
HURLS
105
What does HURLS stand for?
heart, uterus, renal and retrilobular, lymph nodes, stomach, and spinal
106
At what age does the adolescent form of bovine lymphoma occur?
6-30 months of age
107
Where does adolescent bovine lymphoma localize?
in the thymus and bone marrow
108
When does juvenile bovine lymphoma infect cattle?
in calves under 6 months old
109
What type of lymphoma is associated with juvenile lymphoma?
multicentric often with organ involvement
110
What is MALT?
mucosal associated lymphoid tissue
111
What organs are part of MALT?
tonsils, Peyer's patches, gut associated lymphoid tissue, bronchial-associated lymphoid tissue, rectoanal mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue and others
112
MALT is an important part of what type of immunity?
mucosal
113
What pathogens can invade MALT?
bovine herpesvirus 1, salmonella, CSF, FMD, brucella abortus, Mycobacterium avium susbp. Paratuberculosis, prions

Anatomic Pathology 2 (48 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions