Unit 4 - Female Repro 4

Question 1

What gross changes are associated with Neospora?

Answer 1

mid gestation fetus that is generally autolyzed, has diffuse subcutaneous edema, and abundant serosanguinous fluid in body cavities

Question 2

What is the pathogenesis of Neospora abortion?

Answer 2

Its a loop: You have a cow that becomes infected by ingesting oocysts from feed contaminated by canid feces, there is a recrudescence of infection at mid gestation. The cow either aborts or produces a congenitally infected calf which will grow up and repeat the process

Question 3

What are some gross lesions of the fetus associated with Neospora abortions?

Answer 3

subcutaneous edema, serosanguinous fluid in body cavities, and the fetus is mid-gestation (small and hairless)

Question 4

Where are microscopic lesions from Neospora abortions found?

Answer 4

the brain

Question 5

What are the preferred diagnostic samples for Neospora abortion diagnosis?

Answer 5

brain, heart, skeletal muscle, kidney, and liver

Question 6

What microscopic lesions are associated with Neospora abortion?

Answer 6

multiple, random, foci of cerebral necrosis surrounded by reactive glial cells and gitter cells often accompanied by focal areas of gliosis

Question 7

What are the vast majority of viral abortions in US bovines due to?

Answer 7

Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis and bovine virus diarrhea

Question 8

Why doesn’t vaccination against BVD prevent fetal infection/abortion?

Answer 8

because there are many strains and it doesn’t protect against all of them

Question 9

If a cow is infected near conception, what does BVD cause?

Answer 9

infertility

Question 10

If a cow is infected between 42-125 days of pregnancy what does BVD cause?

Answer 10

abortion, fetal mummification, or fetal malformations

Question 11

If a cow is infected between 125-170 days, what does BVD cause?

Answer 11

development of congenital malformations and abortion (less common)

Question 12

If a cow is infected in the third trimester, what does BVD cause?

Answer 12

no significant fetal disease

Question 13

What are the common congenital defects associated with BVD?

Answer 13

cerebral defects, ocular defects, intrauterine growth retardation, partial alopecia, and pulmonary hypoplasia

Question 14

What cerebral defects are caused by BVD?

Answer 14

cerebellar hypoplasia, hydrancephaly, porencephaly, hydrocephalus, and hypomyelinogenesis

Question 15

What ocular defects are caused by BVD infection?

Answer 15

retinal dysplasia, congenital cataracts, and microphthalmia

Question 16

What tissues are important to diagnose for BVD?

Answer 16

brain, kidney, lung, spleen, lymph nodes, thymus, or any tissue with lesions

Question 17

What is the most common cause of porcine abortion?

Answer 17

PRRSV

Question 18

Do all porcine fetuses become infected at the same time?

Answer 18

no

Question 19

Are there any gross lesions caused by PRRSV that are helpful in diagnosing abortion?

Answer 19

no - there is perirenal edema, mesocolonic edema, and umbilical cord edema

Question 20

Why do you want to submit more than one fetus for a PRRSV diagnosis?

Answer 20

because not all of the fetuses will be infected - if you only send in one you may not get the dianosis because it wasnt infected

Question 21

What does transplacental porcine circovirus infection result in?

Answer 21

fetal mummification, abortion, or the birth of weak pigs

Question 22

What gross lesions are associated with porcine circovirus infection?

Answer 22

mummified fetuses and lesions in the heart (fluid in body cavities, accentuated lobular pattern in the liver, and cardiac hypertrophy)

Question 23

What is the target tissue for porcine circovirus and therefore the preferred diagnostic sample?

Answer 23

the heart

Question 24

What is the typical manifestation of porcine parvovirus?

Answer 24

it is in gilts - increased and irregular returns to service, decreased litter size, and elevated mummy rate

Question 25

What is the preferred diagnostic sample for porcine parvovirus?

Answer 25

mummified fetuses

Question 26

If a gilt is infected with PPV 0-30 days in gestation what does it cause?

Answer 26

early embryonic death with resorption

Question 27

If a gilt is infected with PPV 30-70 days in gestation what does it cause?

Answer 27

in utero death with fetal mummification

Question 28

If a gilt is infected with PPV greater than 70 days in gestation what does it cause?

Answer 28

fetus mounts an immune response and infection is typically inapparent

Question 29

When determining the cause of small ruminant abortion what should you submit?

Answer 29

the placenta

Question 30

What classic gross lesion is associated with Campylobacter abortion?

Answer 30

circular foci of hepatic necrosis

Question 31

What is Q-fever caused by?

Answer 31

Coxiella burnetii

Question 32

Abortions caused by Q-fever are more common in what species?

Answer 32

goats

Question 33

Where is Coxiella burnetii commonly found in?

Answer 33

placenta, colostrum, urine, uterine discharge, and milk

Question 34

What clinical signs are associated with Q-fever?

Answer 34

late gestation abortion, stillborn/weakborn kids, and minimal signs in the aborting doe

Question 35

What gross lesions are associated with Q-fever?

Answer 35

thick, gray-brown exudate on the placenta, thickened intercotyledonary placenta, multifocal cotyledonary necrosis and mineralization

Question 36

What is the preferred tissue for diagnosis of Q-fever?

Answer 36

the placenta

Question 37

What is the source of Toxoplasma abortion in small ruminants?

Answer 37

cats

Question 38

How do small ruminants get toxoplasma?

Answer 38

ingestion of bedding, hay, grain contaminated by oocysts

Question 39

What gross lesions are associated with toxoplasma abortion?

Answer 39

multifocal necrosis and mineralizationof cotyledonary villi

Question 40

What are the preferred diagnostic samples for toxoplasma abortion?

Answer 40

placenta, brian, fetal thoracic fluid

Question 41

What serves as the intitial source of infection for Chlamydial abortions?

Answer 41

ewes infected in the previous lambing season

Question 42

What is the source of chlamydial infection during the abortion storm?

Answer 42

the fetus, fetal membranes, and uterine discharge

Question 43

What are the gross lesions associated with chlamydial abortions?

Answer 43

multifocal cotyledonary necrosis and thickened intercotyledonary placenta

Question 44

What are the preferred diagnostic samples for chlamydial abortions?

Answer 44

placenta, fetal thoracic fluid, and uterine discharge

Question 45

What is a hippomane?

Answer 45

a soft putty-like aggregate of urinary calculus and cellular debris whiich form throughout pregnancy - its normal

Question 46

Where is the cervical star located?

Answer 46

where the placenta abuts the cervix

Question 47

In the case of equine placentitis, where will placentitis be the worst?

Answer 47

surrounding the cervical star

Question 48

When is umbilical cord torsion a significant finding in horses?

Answer 48

when there are functional consequences such as edema, hemorrhage, and thrombosis - five or six turns are normal

Question 49

What is the most common contagious bacterial cause of abortion in the bitch?

Answer 49

Brucella canis

Question 50

What does Brucella canis cause?

Answer 50

early embryonic death and resportion, spontaneous abortions between 49 and 59 days after breeding, stillborn puppies, and neonatal mortality

Question 51

What gross lesions are associated with Brucella canis?

Answer 51

placentitis

Question 52

What are the preferred diagnostic specimens for Brucella canis?

Answer 52

serum from dam, placenta, aborted fetus, and vaginal discharge

Question 53

How can panleukopenia affect the fetus?

Answer 53

it may spread transplacentally and cause embryonic resorption, fetal mummification, abortion, or stillbirth

Question 54

What does in utero infection of panleukopenia lead to?

Answer 54

cerbellar hypoplasia