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Anatomic Pathology 2 > Unit 4 - Female Repro 2 > Flashcards

Unit 4 - Female Repro 2 Flashcards

(93 cards)

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1
Q

How do animals with disorders of sexual differentiation generally present?

A

for infertility or evaluation of ambiguous genitalia

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2
Q

What is hydrosalpinx?

A

when the oviduct is distended by watery fluid

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3
Q

What is hydrosalpinx caused by?

A

a combination of secretory activity of the oviduct and blockage of the oviduct

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4
Q

What is salpingitis?

A

inflammation of the oviduct most commonly secondary to endometritis or peritonitis

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5
Q

What is pyosalpinx?

A

pus-filled oviduct

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6
Q

What are the consequences of hydrosalpinx, salpingitis, and pyosalpinx?

A

decreased fertility if unilateral, infertility if bilateral, or permanent infertility if severe inflammation

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7
Q

What is uterine torsion associated with?

A

pregnancy, pyometra, and hydrometra

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8
Q

What species is uterine torsion most common in?

A

cattle - more common in pluriparous couse where the broad ligament is looser and longer

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9
Q

What can greater than 180 uterine torsion lead to?

A

dystocia or circulatory obstruction leading to fetal death

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10
Q

What is another term for uterine displacement?

A

prolapse

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11
Q

What are the causes of uterine displacement?

A

prolonged dystocia with mechanical traction, retained placenta, or postparturient hypocalcemia

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12
Q

What are the causes of hydrometra/mucometras?

A

hormone-mediated increased uterine secretion (ovarian cysts, ovarian tumors, pseudopregnancy) or fluid cannot drain from the uterus (closed cervix; obstruction in the uterus, cervix, or vagina)

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13
Q

In hydrometras, what is the uterus distended with?

A

watery fluid

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14
Q

In mucometras, what is the uterus distended with?

A

mucus

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15
Q

What is uterine inflammation most commonly associated with?

A

estrus and pregnancy

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16
Q

What factors increase the risk of uterine infection?

A

abortion, retained fetus(s), retained placenta, twin births, dystocia, trauma to the canal during birth, and cystic endometrial hyperplasia

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17
Q

What is endometritis?

A

inflammation of the uterus limited to the endometrium

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18
Q

What is metritis?

A

inflammation of the entire uterine wall

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19
Q

What is perimetritis?

A

inflammation of the uterine serosa

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20
Q

What is pyometra?

A

suppurative inflammation of the uterus with an accumulation of pus distending the uterine lumen

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21
Q

What are the common routes of uterine infection?

A

via the cervix or maternal blood stream

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22
Q

When does placental subinvolution most commonly occur?

A

in young bitches after whelping their first litter

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23
Q

How do animals with placental subinvolutioin present?

A

with excessive or prolonged sanguinous vulvular discharge 4 weeks postpartum

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24
Q

What does placental subinvolution look like grossly?

A

the uterus may contain several large nodules representing slow involution of normal maternal placental sites

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25
What clinical signs are associated with subinvolution?
no fever, no depression, wbc are normal, may be anemic, primarily cellular debris and rbc's in the discharge
26
What clinical signs are associated with metritis?
fever, depression, wbc are elevated, rbc are normal, purulent discharge
27
What typical lab results are associated with canine pyometra?
inflammatory leukogram, hyperproteinemia, PU/PD, proteinuria
28
What species does pyometra most commonly occur in?
the cow, bitch, cat, and mare
29
What makes a mare a candidate for endometrial biopsy as part of a breeding soundness exam?
mares that have difficulty getting pregnant or carrying a foal to term
30
What is uterine hyperplasia mediated by>
hormone
31
What specifically causes uterine hyperplasia?
progesterone causes physiologic endometrial hyperplasia with subsequent atrophy during anestrus
32
What is uterine hyperplasia initiated by in ruminants?
excessive or prolonged hormonal stimulation (ovarian tumors, estrogenic plants, ovarian cysts)
33
What age is canine cystic endometrial hyperplasia common in?
older (>6 years)
34
What causes canine cystic endometrial hyperplasia?
repeated estrogen priming causing prolonged progesterone stimulation
35
What is a common sequela to cystic endometrial hyperplasia?
pyometra - progesterone makes the uterus more susceptible to infection
36
What are the types of uterine neoplasias?
epithelial, smooth muscle, or multicentric
37
What species commonly get epithelial uterine neoplasia?
rabbits
38
What does epithelial uterine neoplasia arise from?
the endometrium and endometrial glands
39
What type of epithelial uterine neoplasia do rabbits typically get?
adenocarcinoma
40
What type of smooth muscle neoplasias are found in the uterus?
leiomyoma and leiomyosarcomas
41
What is vulvar edema a normal response to?
estrogen
42
What can cause vulvar edema in swine?
feed containing the estrogenic mycotoxin zearalenone
43
What is vaginal hyperplasia a response to?
it is an exaggerated response of the vaginal mucosa to estrogen
44
Does vaginal hyperplasia resolve itself?
yes spontaneously during diestrus
45
What is vaginitis?
inflammation of the vagina
46
What gross changes are associated with vaginal inflammation?
mucosal surface is reddened and there may be vulvular discharge
47
What are the viral potential causes of vaginitis in cows?
bovine herpesvirus-1 (infectious pustular vulvovaginitis)
48
What are the viral potential causes of vaginitis in horses?
equine herpesvirus 3 (coital exanthema)
49
What are the bacterial causes of vaginitis?
Campylobacter fetus subsp venerealis and Taylorella equigenitalis
50
What is a protozoal cause of vaginitis?
Tritrichomonas fetus
51
What are some examples of vaginal/vulvar neoplasias that arise from the surface epithelium?
fibropapillomas and squamous cell carcinomas
52
What is the biological behavior of vaginal/vulvar squamous cell carcinomas?
they are locally invasive and may metastasize in the course of disease
53
What smooth muscle tumors are found in the vagina/vulva and in what species?
leiomyoma in older bitches
54
What is TVT?
canine transmissible venereal tumor
55
What clinical signs are associated with TVT?
bulging of the perineal region, dysuria, pollakiuria, and bulging of the tumor through the vulva
56
Where are TVTs located?
vagina, vulva, and nasal mucosa
57
How are TVTs transmitted?
they are transmitted to the external genitalia during mating
58
What is the behavior of TVTs in healthy, immuno-competent, adult dogs?
the tumor regresses simultaneously
59
How do you diagnose TVTs?
by exfoliative cytology or histopath
60
What species is twinning desirable in?
sheep and goats
61
What species is twinning undesirable in?
horses and cattle
62
How does the fetus react to injury?
early embryonic death and resorption, fetal mummification, fetal maceration, fetal emphysema, fetal edema, fetal anomalies, stillbirth, and abortion
63
When is the greatest risk of fetal loss?
during the first trimester
64
How does early embryonic death appear clinically?
as infertility - with either regular or delayed return to estrus
65
What are fetal causes for early embryonic death?
genetic or infectious
66
In what species is fetal mummification the most common in?
swine
67
What are the requirements for fetal mummification?
fetal death after bones have formed, fetal death without luteolysis, and a bacteria-free environment
68
What is the process of fetal mummification?
1. fetal death 2. autolysis 3. fluid resorption in a bacteria-free environment 4. mummy
69
What are the fetal causes of fetal mummification?
infectious and inadequate space
70
What are the requirements for fetal maceration?
fetal death after bones have formed, retention of fetus, and a non-sterile environment
71
What is the process of fetal maceration?
1. fetal death 2. non-sterile environment 3. bacterial digestion of fetal tissues 4. macerated fetus
72
What are the common sequela to fetal maceration?
metritis, endometritis, pyometra
73
What are the requirements for fetal emphysema?
in utero death plus gas producing bacteria
74
What are the causes of fetal emphysema?
maternal bacteremia and in utero death
75
What is abortion?
expulsion of a fetus prior to the time of expected viability
76
What is a still birth?
delivery of a dead fetus at a stage of gestation which it could have been viable - the lungs are not inflated
77
How do you know a fetal death is prepartum?
the lungs are not inflated and sink in formalin and there is mucoid fluid in the stomach
78
How do you know a fetal death was during parturition?
there is edema of the head, one or more forelimbs, the tail, tongue, or perineum, partial lung aeration, abdominal hemorrhage from liver rupture
79
How do you know a fetal death was post partum?
aerated lung, air or milk in stomach, evidence of muscle movement, and hoof ware
80
What are the types of placentas?
diffuse, cotyledonary, zonary, and discoid
81
What is the structure of a diffuse placenta?
nearly the entire surface of the allantochorion is involved in the formation of the placenta
82
What species have a diffuse placenta?
horses and pigs
83
What is the structure of a cotyledonary placenta?
multople discrete areas of attachment called cotyledons
84
What structures are on the fetal portion of a cotyledonary placenta?
cotyledons
85
What structures are on the maternal contact sites of a cotyledonary placenta?
caruncles
86
What is the cotyledon-caruncle complex called?
a placentome
87
What species have cotyledonary placentas?
ruminants
88
What is the structure of a zonary placenta?
the exchange placenta forms a complete or incomplete band of tissue surrounding the fetus
89
What species have zonary placentas?
dogs and cats
90
What is the structure of a discoid placenta?
the exchange placenta is discoid in shapw
91
What species have discoid placentas?
primates and rodens
92
What is the amnion?
the fluid filled sac around the fetus
93
What is chorioallantois?
the site of attachment to the maternal placenta and exchange with uterus

Anatomic Pathology 2 (48 decks)

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