⭐️ PREVMED Flashcards Preview

ANA, BCHM, PHY > ⭐️ PREVMED > Flashcards

Flashcards in ⭐️ PREVMED Deck (154):
0

Appropriate measure of central tendency in qualitative data such as gender, religion or nationality,

Mode

1

Define mean.

Average, the sum of observations divided by the number of observations

2

Define median.

Middle observation in a series of ordered observations i.e. 50th percentile

3

The observtion tht occurs with the greatest frequency

Mode

4

Define epidemiology

Studies both the DISTRIBUTION of diseases in human populations and the DETERMINANTS of the observed distribution.

5

What is the sampling unit in epidemiologic studies in the identification of causal factors?

A group of individuals

6

Ultimate goal of an epidemiologic investigation

To institute curtive, preventive, and control measures to avoid most cases

7

Study of the distribution of diseases in animals

Epizootiology

8

Define antigenic drift

Slow and provressive change in the antigenic composition of microorganisms. This alters tye immunological responses of individuals and a population's susceptibility to that organisms.

9

Define antigenic SHIFT.

A sudden change in the molecular structure of a microorganism and produces new strains. This results in little or no acquired immunity to these new strains and is the ecplanation for new epidemics and pandemics.

10

____________ would result in influenza cases with high case fatality rates seen previously with this strain.

Vaccine failure

11

__________ would decrease the rate of infection by decreasing the probability that a susceptible person would come into contact with an infected person. This would not affect the clinical presentation of those infected.

Herd immunity

12

Define endemic.

Constant occurence

13

Define epidemic.

Occurence of a number of cases of disease in excess of normal occurrence of expectancy.

14

Define pandemic.

Epidemic involving many countries.

15

Also called a prospective study

Cohort

16

Refers to the group of subjects who are followed forward in time to see which ones develop the outcome

Cohort

17

Prospective studies in which an intervention is supplied

Clinical trials

18

Also known as a retrospective study

Case control study

19

Bias usually found in case control studies

Recall bias

20

Exposures and outcomes are measured at the same point in time

Cross sectional study

21

Name the type of study.

Clinical characteristic or outcome from a single clinical event or subject (n=1)

Case report

22

Following a prison inmate population and marking the development of MDRTB.

Name the type of study.

Cohort

23

A 23 year old man with MDRTB.

Name the type of study.

Case report

24

Name the type of study.

Clinical characteristic or outcome from a group of clinical subjects or events (n>1)

Case series

25

Patients in a local hospital with MDRTB.

Name the type of study.

Case series

26

Population group exposed to a risk factor is followed over time compared with a group not exposed to the risk factors.

Name the type of study.

Cohort

27

Can determine incidence and causal relationships if there is a statistical association between risk factor and disease.

Name the type of study.

Cohort

28

Control group is the population at risk vs. population not at risk.

Cohort

29

Prevalence study

Cross-sectional

30

Who in the community now has MDRTB?

Name the type of study.

Cross-sectional

31

Determines in each member of the population the presence or absence of a disease and other variables at one point in time.

Name the type of study.

Cross-sectional

32

Causality cannot usually be determined.

Name the type of study.

Cross-sectional

33

Comparing cases of MDRTB with cases of non-resistant TB.

Name the type of study.

Case-control

34

Assesses many risk factors for disease.

Name the type of study.

Case-control

35

Cannot assess incidence and prevalence of disease.

Name the type of study.

Case-control

36

Weakest because outcome has already happened.

Name the type of study.

Case-control

37

A new screening test is applied to a representative sample of 1,000 people in the population. Based on the data presented in the following table, calculate the requested screening test measures:

Diseased (pos=90 neg =10)
Well (pos=60 neg=840)

Sensitivity?

90/100 [true pos/total disease]

90%

38

A new screening test is applied to a representative sample of 1,000 people in the population. Based on the data presented in the following table, calculate the requested screening test measures:

Diseased (pos=90 neg =10)
Well (pos=60 neg=840)

Specificity?

840/900 [true negative/total number without disease]

93%

39

A new screening test is applied to a representative sample of 1,000 people in the population. Based on the data presented in the following table, calculate the requested screening test measures:

Diseased (pos=90 neg =10)
Well (pos=60 neg=840)

Positive predictive value?

90/150 [how many diseased among positives?]

40

Define prevalence.

Total number of cases in a population at a given time. (Old and nee, for chronic conditions)

41

Define incidence.

Number of new cases in a population per unit time. Incidence is new incidents. (For acute conditions)

42

Define sensitivity.

Number of true positives divided by the number of people with disease.

Mnemonics: PID Positive in disease; SNOUT sensitivity rules out

43

Define specificity

Number of true negatives divided by the number of people without the disease.

Mnemonics: NIH Negative in health: SPIN Specificity rules in

44

High sensitivity is desirable for which type of test?

Screening test to rule out

45

High specificity is desirable for which type of test?

Confirmatory test to rule in

46

Define positive predictive value

Number of true positives divided by the number of people who tested positive for the disease.

The probability of having a condition given a positive test

47

Define negative predictive value.

Number of true negatives divided by the number of people who tested negative for the disease.

The probability of not having the condition given a negative test

48

The most important factor for the development of breast cancer is

Age

49

Is smoking a major risk factor for breast CA?

No

50

Population affected by appendicitis? Age and sex

20 to 30s and equal among males and females

51

Most common site of nosocomial infections?

GU tract

52

Arrange the following nosocomial infections from highest incidenc e to lowest:

SSI RTI Septicemia UTI

UTI SSRI RTI Septicemia

53

A methylxanthine related to theophylline which is a low potency bronchodilator

Caffeine

54

Most common cause of cobalamin deficiency in temperate climates

Pernicious anemia

55

Hypercholesterolemia is associated with increased risk for gallstone formation. True or false.

False

56

Exposure to sulfur dioxide causes

Irritation of mucus membranes

57

Exposure to mercury causes

Intention tremor, delirium.

Use of mercury in felt hats led to the phrase "mad as a hatter"

58

Exposure to lead causes

Peripheral neuropathy and ataxia

59

Exposure to nitrous oxide causes

Similar to neuropathy in pernicious anemia

60

A fibrosing lung disease usually due to chronic occupational exposure to air with particulate matter

Pneumoconiosis

61

Byssinoisis is

A form of pneumoconiosis from textile, cotton, or flax

62

The most serious manifestation of lead intoxication is

Cerebral edema

63

Cerebral edema is often noted with blood lead levels exceeding

100 ug/dl

64

Hutchinson's teeth is associated with

Congenital syphilis

65

5 b's of congenital rubella syndrome

Bulag, bingi, bobo, butas, blueberry muffin baby

66

Most prevalent mental health disorder in children

Behavioral problems

67

Behavioral problems such as ADD and learning disabilities occur in how many percent of children?

10%

68

Autism occurs in how many percent of children?

0.05%

69

Mental retardation occurs in how many percent of children?

1%

70

The mother is more commonly the abuser perhaps because of the greater contact with the child. True or false.

True

71

Time from infection to a positive tuberculin skin test

2-8 weeks

72

Define immunogenicity.

Ability of a microbe or purified antigen to induce specific antibody production in a host as a result of infection or immunization.

73

Define pathogenicity.

Capacity of a microbe to cause symptomatic illness in an infected host

74

Defien virulence

Severity of the illness produced by a microbe; measure by percentage of severe or fatal cases

75

Define contagiousness

Ability of a microbe to spread in a population of exposed susceptible persons

76

Single most important preventive measure against diseases?

Water sanitation

77

This test is done as a prenatal test for people at high risk for thalassemia or sickle cell anemia

Electrophoresis

78

This prenatal test is done for women with uncertain menstrual histories or risk of IUGR

UTZ

79

RA 10152

Mandatory infants and children health immunization act of 2011

80

Why is gonorrhea treated with oral tetracycline for 7 days rather than ampicillin plus probenecid at one time?

Better coverage for chlamydia trachomatis

81

Tetracycline is contraindicated in pregnancy. Which alternative drug will you give?

Azithromycin

82

Cut off age for tetracycline and fluoroquinolones

Tetracycline -8
Fluoroquinolones -18

83

Prevention of human brucellosis depends on

Pasteurization of dairy products derived from goats, sheeps or cattle

84

Effective means of preventing trichinosis in humans

Prohibiting marketing of garbage fed hogs

85

Thorough cooking at temperature at least ____ helps in the control of trichinella spiralis

77 C

86

Absolute indication for a pap smear

Sexual activity

87

Signs of vitamin c deficiency

Petechiae, sore gums, hematuria, bone, and joint pain

88

Signs of niacin deficiency

Dermatitis, diarrhea, delirium

89

Signs of thiamine deficiency

Edema, neuropathy, myocardial failure

90

Signs of vitamin A deficiency

Xerosis conjunctivae, hyperkeratosis, and keratomalacia

91

Effect of calcium deficiency

Poor mineralization of bones and teeth, osteoporosis

92

Effect of sodium deficiency

Nausea, diarrhea, muscle cramps, dehydration

93

Effect of fluorine deficiency

Tendency of dental caries

94

Effect of zinc deficiency

Dwarfism, hepatosplenomegaly, poor wound healing

95

Most common cause of cobalamin deficiency in temperate climates

Pernicious anemia

96

Hypercholesterolemia is associated with increased risk for gallstone formation. True or false.

False

97

Exposure to sulfur dioxide causes

Irritation of mucus membranes

98

Exposure to mercury causes

Intention tremor, delirium.

Use of mercury in felt hats led to the phrase "mad as a hatter"

99

Exposure to lead causes

Peripheral neuropathy and ataxia

100

Exposure to nitrous oxide causes

Similar to neuropathy in pernicious anemia

101

A fibrosing lung disease usually due to chronic occupational exposure to air with particulate matter

Pneumoconiosis

102

Byssinoisis is

A form of pneumoconiosis from textile, cotton, or flax

103

The most serious manifestation of lead intoxication is

Cerebral edema

104

Cerebral edema is often noted with blood lead levels exceeding

100 ug/dl

105

Hutchinson's teeth is associated with

Congenital syphilis

106

5 b's of congenital rubella syndrome

Bulag, bingi, bobo, butas, blueberry muffin baby

107

Most prevalent mental health disorder in children

Behavioral problems

108

Behavioral problems such as ADD and learning disabilities occur in how many percent of children?

10%

109

Autism occurs in how many percent of children?

0.05%

110

Mental retardation occurs in how many percent of children?

1%

111

The mother is more commonly the abuser perhaps because of the greater contact with the child. True or false.

True

112

Time from infection to a positive tuberculin skin test

2-8 weeks

113

Define immunogenicity.

Ability of a microbe or purified antigen to induce specific antibody production in a host as a result of infection or immunization.

114

Define pathogenicity.

Capacity of a microbe to cause symptomatic illness in an infected host

115

Defien virulence

Severity of the illness produced by a microbe; measure by percentage of severe or fatal cases

116

Define contagiousness

Ability of a microbe to spread in a population of exposed susceptible persons

117

Single most important preventive measure against diseases?

Water sanitation

118

This test is done as a prenatal test for people at high risk for thalassemia or sickle cell anemia

Electrophoresis

119

This prenatal test is done for women with uncertain menstrual histories or risk of IUGR

UTZ

120

RA 10152

Mandatory infants and children health immunization act of 2011

121

Why is gonorrhea treated with oral tetracycline for 7 days rather than ampicillin plus probenecid at one time?

Better coverage for chlamydia trachomatis

122

Tetracycline is contraindicated in pregnancy. Which alternative drug will you give?

Azithromycin

123

Cut off age for tetracycline and fluoroquinolones

Tetracycline -8
Fluoroquinolones -18

124

Prevention of human brucellosis depends on

Pasteurization of dairy products derived from goats, sheeps or cattle

125

Effective means of preventing trichinosis in humans

Prohibiting marketing of garbage fed hogs

126

Thorough cooking at temperature at least ____ helps in the control of trichinella spiralis

77 C

127

Absolute indication for a pap smear

Sexual activity

128

Signs of vitamin c deficiency

Petechiae, sore gums, hematuria, bone, and joint pain

129

Signs of niacin deficiency

Dermatitis, diarrhea, delirium

130

Signs of thiamine deficiency

Edema, neuropathy, myocardial failure

131

Signs of vitamin A deficiency

Xerosis conjunctivae, hyperkeratosis, and keratomalacia

132

Effect of calcium deficiency

Poor mineralization of bones and teeth, osteoporosis

133

Effect of sodium deficiency

Nausea, diarrhea, muscle cramps, dehydration

134

Effect of fluorine deficiency

Tendency of dental caries

136

Effect of zinc deficiency

Dwarfism, hepatosplenomegaly, poor wound healing

137

Fundamental to the detection of TB infectious cases
and is recommended for case finding among adults and children who can expectorate.

Direct sputum smear microscopy

138

Definitive diagnosis of active TB

Direct sputum smear microscopy

139

Benefit of CXR in TB diagnosis

Complement bacteriologic testing in making a diagnosis. However, it has low specificity and does not differentiate drug-susceptible from drug-resistant disease.

140

Routine diagnostic test for drug-resistant TB

TB culture and drug susceptibility test (DST)

141

Basic screening tool for TB infection among children

Tuberculin skin test (TST)

142

Time from collection of fi rst sputum sample to initiation of treatment for TB

Turnaround time

Desired: 5 days

143

Define presumptive TB

Any person whether adult or child with signs and/or symptoms suggestive of TB whether pulmonary or extra-pulmonary, or those with CXR findings suggestive of active TB

144

Define Presumptive Drug Resistant TB

Any person whether adult or child, who
belongs to any of the DR-TB high-risk groups, such as: re-treatment cases, new TB cases that are contacts of confirmed DR-TB cases or non-converter of Category I, and
people living with HIV with signs and symptoms of TB

145

Define TB Exposure

A condition in which an individual is in close contact with an active adult TB case, but without any signs and symptoms of TB, with negative TST reaction, and no radiologic and laboratory findings suggestive of TB.

146

Define latent TB or TB infection (LTBI)

A condition in which an individual has no signs and symptoms presumptive of TB nor radiologic or laboratory evidence, but has a positive TST reaction.

147

Define TB disease.

A presumptive TB who after clinical and diagnostic evaluation is confirmed to have TB.

148

Classification of TB based on anatomical site

Pulmonary and Extrapulmonary TB

149

A patient with both pulmonary and extra-pulmonary TB should be classified as a case of

pulmonary TB

150

Classification of TB based on bacteriologic status

Bacteriologically confirmed and clinically diagnosed

151

What is the definition of a clinically diagnosed TB disease?

A patient with two (2) sputum specimens negative for
AFB or MTB, or with smear not done due to specified
conditions but with radiographic abnormalities
consistent with active TB;

and there has been no response to a course of empiric antibiotics and/ or symptomatic medications; and who has been decided (either by the physician and/or TBDC) to
have TB disease requiring a full course of anti-TB
chemotherapy

152

What is the definition of a clinically diagnosed TB disease in children?

A child (less than 15 years old) with two (2) sputum
specimens negative for AFB or with smear not done,
who fulfills three (3) of the five (5) criteria for disease
activity

(i.e., signs and symptoms suggestive of TB,
exposure to an active TB case, positive tuberculin
test, abnormal chest radiograph suggestive of TB, and
other laboratory findings suggestive of tuberculosis);

and who has been decided (either by the physician
and/or TBDC) to have TB disease requiring a full
course of anti-TB chemotherapy

153

Definition of a TB retreatment case

A patient who has been previously treated with anti-TB
drugs for at least one (1) month in the past.

154

Differentiate monoresistant vs. polyresistant vs. multi-drug resistant TB vs extensively drug resistant TB

a. Monoresistant-TB – Resistance to one fi rst-line anti-TB drug only.

b. Polydrug-resistant TB – Resistance to more than one fi rst-line anti-TB drug (other than both Isoniazid and Rifampicin).

c. Multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB) – Resistance to at least both Isoniazid and Rifampicin.

d. Extensively drug-resistant TB (XDR-TB) – Resistance to any fluoroquinolone and to at least one of three second-line injectable drugs (Capreomycin, Kanamycin and Amikacin), in addition to multidrug resistance.