⭐️ PREVMED Flashcards
(154 cards)
0
Q
Define mean.
A
Average, the sum of observations divided by the number of observations
1
Q
Appropriate measure of central tendency in qualitative data such as gender, religion or nationality,
A
Mode
2
Q
Define median.
A
Middle observation in a series of ordered observations i.e. 50th percentile
3
Q
The observtion tht occurs with the greatest frequency
A
Mode
4
Q
Define epidemiology
A
Studies both the DISTRIBUTION of diseases in human populations and the DETERMINANTS of the observed distribution.
5
Q
What is the sampling unit in epidemiologic studies in the identification of causal factors?
A
A group of individuals
6
Q
Ultimate goal of an epidemiologic investigation
A
To institute curtive, preventive, and control measures to avoid most cases
7
Q
Study of the distribution of diseases in animals
A
Epizootiology
8
Q
Define antigenic drift
A
Slow and provressive change in the antigenic composition of microorganisms. This alters tye immunological responses of individuals and a population’s susceptibility to that organisms.
9
Q
Define antigenic SHIFT.
A
A sudden change in the molecular structure of a microorganism and produces new strains. This results in little or no acquired immunity to these new strains and is the ecplanation for new epidemics and pandemics.
10
Q
____________ would result in influenza cases with high case fatality rates seen previously with this strain.
A
Vaccine failure
11
Q
__________ would decrease the rate of infection by decreasing the probability that a susceptible person would come into contact with an infected person. This would not affect the clinical presentation of those infected.
A
Herd immunity
12
Q
Define endemic.
A
Constant occurence
13
Q
Define epidemic.
A
Occurence of a number of cases of disease in excess of normal occurrence of expectancy.
14
Q
Define pandemic.
A
Epidemic involving many countries.
15
Q
Also called a prospective study
A
Cohort
16
Q
Refers to the group of subjects who are followed forward in time to see which ones develop the outcome
A
Cohort
17
Q
Prospective studies in which an intervention is supplied
A
Clinical trials
18
Q
Also known as a retrospective study
A
Case control study
19
Q
Bias usually found in case control studies
A
Recall bias
20
Q
Exposures and outcomes are measured at the same point in time
A
Cross sectional study
21
Q
Name the type of study.
Clinical characteristic or outcome from a single clinical event or subject (n=1)
A
Case report
22
Q
Following a prison inmate population and marking the development of MDRTB.
Name the type of study.
A
Cohort
23
Q
A 23 year old man with MDRTB.
Name the type of study.
A
Case report
24
Name the type of study.
Clinical characteristic or outcome from a group of clinical subjects or events (n>1)
Case series
25
Patients in a local hospital with MDRTB.
Name the type of study.
Case series
26
Population group exposed to a risk factor is followed over time compared with a group not exposed to the risk factors.
Name the type of study.
Cohort
27
Can determine incidence and causal relationships if there is a statistical association between risk factor and disease.
Name the type of study.
Cohort
28
Control group is the population at risk vs. population not at risk.
Cohort
29
Prevalence study
Cross-sectional
30
Who in the community now has MDRTB?
Name the type of study.
Cross-sectional
31
Determines in each member of the population the presence or absence of a disease and other variables at one point in time.
Name the type of study.
Cross-sectional
32
Causality cannot usually be determined.
Name the type of study.
Cross-sectional
33
Comparing cases of MDRTB with cases of non-resistant TB.
Name the type of study.
Case-control
34
Assesses many risk factors for disease.
Name the type of study.
Case-control
35
Cannot assess incidence and prevalence of disease.
Name the type of study.
Case-control
36
Weakest because outcome has already happened.
Name the type of study.
Case-control
37
A new screening test is applied to a representative sample of 1,000 people in the population. Based on the data presented in the following table, calculate the requested screening test measures:
Diseased (pos=90 neg =10)
Well (pos=60 neg=840)
Sensitivity?
90/100 [true pos/total disease]
90%
38
A new screening test is applied to a representative sample of 1,000 people in the population. Based on the data presented in the following table, calculate the requested screening test measures:
Diseased (pos=90 neg =10)
Well (pos=60 neg=840)
Specificity?
840/900 [true negative/total number without disease]
93%
39
A new screening test is applied to a representative sample of 1,000 people in the population. Based on the data presented in the following table, calculate the requested screening test measures:
Diseased (pos=90 neg =10)
Well (pos=60 neg=840)
Positive predictive value?
90/150 [how many diseased among positives?]
40
Define prevalence.
Total number of cases in a population at a given time. (Old and nee, for chronic conditions)
41
Define incidence.
Number of new cases in a population per unit time. Incidence is new incidents. (For acute conditions)
42
Define sensitivity.
Number of true positives divided by the number of people with disease.
Mnemonics: PID Positive in disease; SNOUT sensitivity rules out
43
Define specificity
Number of true negatives divided by the number of people without the disease.
Mnemonics: NIH Negative in health: SPIN Specificity rules in
44
High sensitivity is desirable for which type of test?
Screening test to rule out
45
High specificity is desirable for which type of test?
Confirmatory test to rule in
46
Define positive predictive value
Number of true positives divided by the number of people who tested positive for the disease.
The probability of having a condition given a positive test
47
Define negative predictive value.
Number of true negatives divided by the number of people who tested negative for the disease.
The probability of not having the condition given a negative test
48
The most important factor for the development of breast cancer is
Age
49
Is smoking a major risk factor for breast CA?
No
50
Population affected by appendicitis? Age and sex
20 to 30s and equal among males and females
51
Most common site of nosocomial infections?
GU tract
52
Arrange the following nosocomial infections from highest incidenc e to lowest:
SSI RTI Septicemia UTI
UTI SSRI RTI Septicemia
53
A methylxanthine related to theophylline which is a low potency bronchodilator
Caffeine
54
Most common cause of cobalamin deficiency in temperate climates
Pernicious anemia
55
Hypercholesterolemia is associated with increased risk for gallstone formation. True or false.
False
56
Exposure to sulfur dioxide causes
Irritation of mucus membranes
57
Exposure to mercury causes
Intention tremor, delirium.
Use of mercury in felt hats led to the phrase "mad as a hatter"
58
Exposure to lead causes
Peripheral neuropathy and ataxia
59
Exposure to nitrous oxide causes
Similar to neuropathy in pernicious anemia
60
A fibrosing lung disease usually due to chronic occupational exposure to air with particulate matter
Pneumoconiosis
61
Byssinoisis is
A form of pneumoconiosis from textile, cotton, or flax
62
The most serious manifestation of lead intoxication is
Cerebral edema
63
Cerebral edema is often noted with blood lead levels exceeding
100 ug/dl
64
Hutchinson's teeth is associated with
Congenital syphilis
65
5 b's of congenital rubella syndrome
Bulag, bingi, bobo, butas, blueberry muffin baby
66
Most prevalent mental health disorder in children
Behavioral problems
67
Behavioral problems such as ADD and learning disabilities occur in how many percent of children?
10%
68
Autism occurs in how many percent of children?
0.05%
69
Mental retardation occurs in how many percent of children?
1%
70
The mother is more commonly the abuser perhaps because of the greater contact with the child. True or false.
True
71
Time from infection to a positive tuberculin skin test
2-8 weeks
72
Define immunogenicity.
Ability of a microbe or purified antigen to induce specific antibody production in a host as a result of infection or immunization.
73
Define pathogenicity.
Capacity of a microbe to cause symptomatic illness in an infected host
74
Defien virulence
Severity of the illness produced by a microbe; measure by percentage of severe or fatal cases
75
Define contagiousness
Ability of a microbe to spread in a population of exposed susceptible persons
76
Single most important preventive measure against diseases?
Water sanitation
77
This test is done as a prenatal test for people at high risk for thalassemia or sickle cell anemia
Electrophoresis
78
This prenatal test is done for women with uncertain menstrual histories or risk of IUGR
UTZ
79
RA 10152
Mandatory infants and children health immunization act of 2011
80
Why is gonorrhea treated with oral tetracycline for 7 days rather than ampicillin plus probenecid at one time?
Better coverage for chlamydia trachomatis
81
Tetracycline is contraindicated in pregnancy. Which alternative drug will you give?
Azithromycin
82
Cut off age for tetracycline and fluoroquinolones
Tetracycline -8
| Fluoroquinolones -18
83
Prevention of human brucellosis depends on
Pasteurization of dairy products derived from goats, sheeps or cattle
84
Effective means of preventing trichinosis in humans
Prohibiting marketing of garbage fed hogs
85
Thorough cooking at temperature at least ____ helps in the control of trichinella spiralis
77 C
86
Absolute indication for a pap smear
Sexual activity
87
Signs of vitamin c deficiency
Petechiae, sore gums, hematuria, bone, and joint pain
88
Signs of niacin deficiency
Dermatitis, diarrhea, delirium
89
Signs of thiamine deficiency
Edema, neuropathy, myocardial failure
90
Signs of vitamin A deficiency
Xerosis conjunctivae, hyperkeratosis, and keratomalacia
91
Effect of calcium deficiency
Poor mineralization of bones and teeth, osteoporosis
92
Effect of sodium deficiency
Nausea, diarrhea, muscle cramps, dehydration
93
Effect of fluorine deficiency
Tendency of dental caries
94
Effect of zinc deficiency
Dwarfism, hepatosplenomegaly, poor wound healing
95
Most common cause of cobalamin deficiency in temperate climates
Pernicious anemia
96
Hypercholesterolemia is associated with increased risk for gallstone formation. True or false.
False
97
Exposure to sulfur dioxide causes
Irritation of mucus membranes
98
Exposure to mercury causes
Intention tremor, delirium.
Use of mercury in felt hats led to the phrase "mad as a hatter"
99
Exposure to lead causes
Peripheral neuropathy and ataxia
100
Exposure to nitrous oxide causes
Similar to neuropathy in pernicious anemia
101
A fibrosing lung disease usually due to chronic occupational exposure to air with particulate matter
Pneumoconiosis
102
Byssinoisis is
A form of pneumoconiosis from textile, cotton, or flax
103
The most serious manifestation of lead intoxication is
Cerebral edema
104
Cerebral edema is often noted with blood lead levels exceeding
100 ug/dl
105
Hutchinson's teeth is associated with
Congenital syphilis
106
5 b's of congenital rubella syndrome
Bulag, bingi, bobo, butas, blueberry muffin baby
107
Most prevalent mental health disorder in children
Behavioral problems
108
Behavioral problems such as ADD and learning disabilities occur in how many percent of children?
10%
109
Autism occurs in how many percent of children?
0.05%
110
Mental retardation occurs in how many percent of children?
1%
111
The mother is more commonly the abuser perhaps because of the greater contact with the child. True or false.
True
112
Time from infection to a positive tuberculin skin test
2-8 weeks
113
Define immunogenicity.
Ability of a microbe or purified antigen to induce specific antibody production in a host as a result of infection or immunization.
114
Define pathogenicity.
Capacity of a microbe to cause symptomatic illness in an infected host
115
Defien virulence
Severity of the illness produced by a microbe; measure by percentage of severe or fatal cases
116
Define contagiousness
Ability of a microbe to spread in a population of exposed susceptible persons
117
Single most important preventive measure against diseases?
Water sanitation
118
This test is done as a prenatal test for people at high risk for thalassemia or sickle cell anemia
Electrophoresis
119
This prenatal test is done for women with uncertain menstrual histories or risk of IUGR
UTZ
120
RA 10152
Mandatory infants and children health immunization act of 2011
121
Why is gonorrhea treated with oral tetracycline for 7 days rather than ampicillin plus probenecid at one time?
Better coverage for chlamydia trachomatis
122
Tetracycline is contraindicated in pregnancy. Which alternative drug will you give?
Azithromycin
123
Cut off age for tetracycline and fluoroquinolones
Tetracycline -8
| Fluoroquinolones -18
124
Prevention of human brucellosis depends on
Pasteurization of dairy products derived from goats, sheeps or cattle
125
Effective means of preventing trichinosis in humans
Prohibiting marketing of garbage fed hogs
126
Thorough cooking at temperature at least ____ helps in the control of trichinella spiralis
77 C
127
Absolute indication for a pap smear
Sexual activity
128
Signs of vitamin c deficiency
Petechiae, sore gums, hematuria, bone, and joint pain
129
Signs of niacin deficiency
Dermatitis, diarrhea, delirium
130
Signs of thiamine deficiency
Edema, neuropathy, myocardial failure
131
Signs of vitamin A deficiency
Xerosis conjunctivae, hyperkeratosis, and keratomalacia
132
Effect of calcium deficiency
Poor mineralization of bones and teeth, osteoporosis
133
Effect of sodium deficiency
Nausea, diarrhea, muscle cramps, dehydration
134
Effect of fluorine deficiency
Tendency of dental caries
136
Effect of zinc deficiency
Dwarfism, hepatosplenomegaly, poor wound healing
137
Fundamental to the detection of TB infectious cases
| and is recommended for case finding among adults and children who can expectorate.
Direct sputum smear microscopy
138
Definitive diagnosis of active TB
Direct sputum smear microscopy
139
Benefit of CXR in TB diagnosis
Complement bacteriologic testing in making a diagnosis. However, it has low specificity and does not differentiate drug-susceptible from drug-resistant disease.
140
Routine diagnostic test for drug-resistant TB
TB culture and drug susceptibility test (DST)
141
Basic screening tool for TB infection among children
Tuberculin skin test (TST)
142
Time from collection of fi rst sputum sample to initiation of treatment for TB
Turnaround time
Desired: 5 days
143
Define presumptive TB
Any person whether adult or child with signs and/or symptoms suggestive of TB whether pulmonary or extra-pulmonary, or those with CXR findings suggestive of active TB
144
Define Presumptive Drug Resistant TB
Any person whether adult or child, who
belongs to any of the DR-TB high-risk groups, such as: re-treatment cases, new TB cases that are contacts of confirmed DR-TB cases or non-converter of Category I, and
people living with HIV with signs and symptoms of TB
145
Define TB Exposure
A condition in which an individual is in close contact with an active adult TB case, but without any signs and symptoms of TB, with negative TST reaction, and no radiologic and laboratory findings suggestive of TB.
146
Define latent TB or TB infection (LTBI)
A condition in which an individual has no signs and symptoms presumptive of TB nor radiologic or laboratory evidence, but has a positive TST reaction.
147
Define TB disease.
A presumptive TB who after clinical and diagnostic evaluation is confirmed to have TB.
148
Classification of TB based on anatomical site
Pulmonary and Extrapulmonary TB
149
A patient with both pulmonary and extra-pulmonary TB should be classified as a case of
pulmonary TB
150
Classification of TB based on bacteriologic status
Bacteriologically confirmed and clinically diagnosed
151
What is the definition of a clinically diagnosed TB disease?
A patient with two (2) sputum specimens negative for
AFB or MTB, or with smear not done due to specified
conditions but with radiographic abnormalities
consistent with active TB;
and there has been no response to a course of empiric antibiotics and/ or symptomatic medications; and who has been decided (either by the physician and/or TBDC) to
have TB disease requiring a full course of anti-TB
chemotherapy
152
What is the definition of a clinically diagnosed TB disease in children?
A child (less than 15 years old) with two (2) sputum
specimens negative for AFB or with smear not done,
who fulfills three (3) of the five (5) criteria for disease
activity
(i.e., signs and symptoms suggestive of TB,
exposure to an active TB case, positive tuberculin
test, abnormal chest radiograph suggestive of TB, and
other laboratory findings suggestive of tuberculosis);
and who has been decided (either by the physician
and/or TBDC) to have TB disease requiring a full
course of anti-TB chemotherapy
153
Definition of a TB retreatment case
A patient who has been previously treated with anti-TB
| drugs for at least one (1) month in the past.
154
Differentiate monoresistant vs. polyresistant vs. multi-drug resistant TB vs extensively drug resistant TB
a. Monoresistant-TB – Resistance to one fi rst-line anti-TB drug only.
b. Polydrug-resistant TB – Resistance to more than one fi rst-line anti-TB drug (other than both Isoniazid and Rifampicin).
c. Multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB) – Resistance to at least both Isoniazid and Rifampicin.
d. Extensively drug-resistant TB (XDR-TB) – Resistance to any fluoroquinolone and to at least one of three second-line injectable drugs (Capreomycin, Kanamycin and Amikacin), in addition to multidrug resistance.
