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Flashcards in Section 7D - Individual Standards Deck (43):
1

___ actions are steps a commander may take to correct behavior without resorting to punishment under the UCMJ.

Administrative. (After leadership by example, one-on-one counseling and performance feedback fail to convince an individual to conform to standards.)

2

The ___ is an official record of unfavorable information about an individuals performance, responsibility and behavior.

Unfavorable Information File (UIF).

3

Which documents must be filed in an Unfavorable Information File (UIF)?

Records of any 1) suspended or unsuspended Article 15 punishments of more than one month (31 days or more; 2) court-martial convictions; 3) civilian convictions where penalty is confinement for one year or more; 4) placement on the control roster; and 5) other documented unfavorable information at the commanders discretion.

4

Who has authority to establish, remove or destroy an Unfavorable Information File (UIF)?

Commanders at al levels; vice commanders; staff directors directors at MAJCOMs; Field Operating Agencies (FOA) and Direct Reporting Units (DRU); and the senior Air Force officer assigned to a joint command.

5

Before establishing an Unfavorable Information File (UIF), what document(s) do(es) the commander show the member?

AF IMT 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action, and optional documents, such as Letters of Admonishment (LOA), Letters of Counseling (LOC) and Letters of Reprimand (LOR).

6

After the commander notifies a member that an Unfavorable Information File (UIF) will be established, the member has ___ duty days to acknowledge the planned actions and provide pertinent information.

Three duty days.

7

Which person(s) cannot access Unfavorable Information Files (UIF) as needed in the course of their Air Force Duties - the person on whom the file is kept, the first sergeant, an EPR rater, chaplain or security forces personnel?

Chaplain. (The commander, Military Personnel Flight (MPF) personnel, IG inspection team, judge advocate, paralegal, Military Equal Opportunity (MEO) personnel, Alcohol Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT) personnel and Air Force OSI are also authorized access.)

8

Which Air Force publication contains guidance on disposition dates for Unfavorable Information Files (UIF)?

AFI 36-2907, UIF Program (Commanders keep the UIF and its documents for the disposition period, unless early removal is clearly warranted.

9

The control roster is a rehabilitative tool that establishes a(n) ___ -month observation period for members with substandard duty performance or who fail to meet or maintain Air Force standards of conduct, bearing and integrity, on- air off-duty.

6-month.

10

Should a brief incident of substandard performance or an isolated breach of standards (not likely to be repeated) result in placement on the control roster?

Usually not.

11

When may commanders direct an EPR - before entering or before removing an individual from the control roster?

Either before entering or removing, or both.

12

An individual is shielded from other actions while on the control roster. (T/F)

False.

13

What happens if a member is not rehabilitated within six months of placement on the control roster?

The commander initiates more severe action.

14

Which form does the commander use to initiate control roster action?

AF IMT 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action.

15

Placement on the control roster is a mandatory Unfavorable Information File (UIF) entry. (T/F)

True.

16

An individual placed on the control roster has ___ duty days to submit a statement on his or her behalf before the AF IMT 1058 is finalized

Three duty days.

17

When does the 6-month time period for a control roster begin and end?

It begins the day the AF IMT 1058 is finalized and ends at 2400 hours six months later.

18

The control roster 6-month time period stops and starts for periods of TDY, ordinary leave or change in immediate supervisor. (T/F)

False.

19

What are the intentions of commanders, supervisors and others in authority when they issue administrative counseling, admonitions and reprimands?

To improve, correct or instruct subordinates.

20

Administrative counseling, admonishments and reprimands only apply to subordinates who depart from standards of performance, conduct, bearing and integrity while on-duty and whose actions degrade the individual and unit's mission. (T/F)

False. (They also apply to such actions while off duty.)

21

What outlines the rules of access, protection and disclosure for written administrative counseling, admonishments and reprimands?

The Privacy Act of 1974. (The same rules apply to any copies.)

22

AF IMT 174, Record of Individual Counseling, is one method of recording an administrative counseling session. What is another method?

Documenting Letter of Counseling (LOC) on bond paper or letterhead.

23

Which is more serious, a Letter of Admonishment (LOA), a Letter of Counseling (LOC) or a Record of Individual Counseling (RIC)?

An LOA. (It should not be used when a Letter of Reprimand (LOR) is more appropriate.)

24

Which may be files in an Unfavorable Information File (UIF) - a negative Record of Individual Counseling (RIC) or a Letter of Reprimand (LOR)?

Both may be filed.

25

Counseling, reprimands and admonishments can be verbal or written. (T/F)

True.

26

What five facts must a written Record of Individual Counseling (RIC), Letter of Counseling (LOC), Letter of Admonishment (LOA) or Letter of Reprimand (LOR) state?

1) What the member specifically did or failed to do; 2) what improvement is expected; 3) that further deviation may result in more severe action; 4) that the member has three duty days to submit rebuttal documents; and 5) that all supporting documents received from the individual become part of the record.

27

Who may demote MSgt and below?

The group or equivalent-level commander.

28

Who may demote SMSgts and CMSgts?

MAJCOM, Field Operation Agency (FOA) and Direct Reporting Unit (DRU) commanders.

29

Name two of the four common reasons for administrative demotion.

Any two of the following: failure to 1) complete officer transitional training because of academic deficiency, self-elimination or misconduct; 2) maintain grade and skill relationship and skill level; 3) fulfill NCO responsibilities; and 4) attain or maintain fitness program standards.

30

For an administrative demotion, what must the commander inform the Airman of in writing?

The intention to recommend demotion, citing the specific reason, demotion authority, recommended grade for demotion and providing a summary of facts. (The commander must advise the Airmen that he or she may seek legal counsel (give the name and number of the local Area Defence Counsel (ADC)), that he r she has the right to apply for retirement (if eligible) in lieu of demotion and must ensure the Airman endorses the demotion when he or she receives it.)

31

Who is the appellate authority for demotions of Amn-MSgt?

The next level commander above the group commander.

32

Who is the appellate authority for demotion of SMSgts and CMSgts?

The Air Force Vice Chief of Staff. (Unless the MAJCOM, Field Operation Agency (FOA) or Direct Reporting Unit (DRU) commander delegated demotion authority to a subordinate level, who then becomes the appellate authority.

33

What is the usual Military Service Obligation (MSO) for first term Airmen?

Eight years.

34

What can happen if you separate from active service before fulfilling your Military Service Obligation (MSO)?

You can be released (not discharged) and transferred to the AFR to complete the balance of your MSO.

35

Administrative discharges under AFI 36-3208, Administrative Separation of Airmen, can characterize service in what three ways?

1) Honorable; 2) under honorable conditions (general); and 3) under other than honorable conditions.

36

Separation at Expiration of Term of Service (ETS) is automatic. (T/F)

False. (A separation action is required.)

37

Airmen are entitled to separate at Expiration of Term of Service (ETS) unless one of what two conditions apply?

1) There is specific authority for retention; or 2) the consent to retention.

38

Many reasons for administrative separation exist. List the four main reasons.

1) required; 2) voluntary; 3) involuntary; and 4) discharge instead of trial by court-martial.

39

List three examples of situations that require separation.

1) Airmen who will continue to serve in another military status (i.e ANG or AFR); 2) to accept appointment as a commissioned officer or the Air Force or as a warrant or commissioned officer of another branch of service; or 3) Airmen with insufficient retainability for PCS.

40

What type of separation may be allowed for entering an officer training program, pregnancy, conscientious objection, hardship or early release for school?

Voluntary separation.

41

What factors may result in involuntary separation as discharge for cause?

Unsatisfactory performance, substance abuse, misconduct or in the interest of national security.

42

Physical conditions that interfere with duty performance or assignment availability, inability to cope with parental responsibilities or military duty, or insufficient retainability for required retraining are reasons for involuntary discharge for the ___of the government.

Convenience.

43

When charges with offenses punishable by punitive discharge, what may Airmen request in lieu of court-martial?

An administrative discharge. (There is no guarantee that the request will be granted.)

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